Board Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What are some safety precautions when working with ordinance?
A
- Do not smoke or allow open flames near ordnance.
- Only use authorized equipment on ordnance (don’t ‘wing’ it)
- Do not leave exposed ordnance unattended
- Do not leave open magazines or RSLs unattended
2
Q
What are some safety precautions when handling ordnance?
A
- Ensure that “bravo” flag is flying during ordnance cargo handling operations or a red task light is displayed at night
- Thoroughly wash hands after handling ordnance
- Do not allow any other cargo handling operations to take place in the area where ordnance handling is taking place
3
Q
What are some safety requirements while conducting operations with helicopters?
A
- Remove soft hats during helicopter landings and take-offs
- Do not take flash pictures during flight operations
- Avoid approaching within 50ft of a helicopter while the rotor blades are turning unless directed by the signal man
4
Q
In referencing priciples of hazard controls, what term best describes the placement of appropriate barrier or limiter between the hazard and an individual who may be affected by the hazard?
A
Isolation
5
Q
Name 2 safety requirements for small boats.
A
- Verify weather deck drains are free of obstructions, drain overboard and not into the bilge
6
Q
At what interval are supervisory personnel and employee representatives required to recieve training on hearing concervation?
A
- Initially
- Annually
7
Q
When working on energized equipment, a safety observer capablel of securing power and rendering adequate aid in the event of an emergency must be stationed when the voltage exceeds what level?
A
30 volts
8
Q
According to Navy policy, who is responsible for providing PPE when competent authority determines that its use is necessary and that such use will lessen the likelihood of the occupational injuries and/or inllnesses?
A
The Command
9
Q
When working on energized electronic equipment authorized?
A
- When duly authorized and trained on that equipment
- When done according to published maintenance or technical manual procedures
10
Q
What type of burn is life threatening?
A
3rd Degree
11
Q
What type of cold injury is caused when exposed to prolong cold weather?
A
Hypothermia
12
Q
Discuss signs/symptoms for 3rd degree burn.
A
- Involves all layers of skin
- Burn penetrates into muscle, connective tissue, and bone
- The skin may vary from white and lifeless to black and charred
13
Q
What type of cold injury is a result of the tisue feeling sold (or wooden) to the touch?
A
Frost Bite
14
Q
What are some signs/symptoms of Hypothermia?
A
- Progressive discomfort
- Shivering
- Faint Pulse
- Drowsy or Mentally slow
- Slurred speach
15
Q
What are some signs/symptoms of 2nd degree burn?
A
- Red
- Blistered
- Weeping
- Skin appears (spotted) mottled
16
Q
Which heat injury is a life-threatening emergency where the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweatinf mechanism?
A
Heat Stroke
17
Q
Which method of transporting a victim is one of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person?
A
Fireman carry
18
Q
What are the two major classifications of fractures?
A
- Closed
- Open
19
Q
What will all severe injuries left untreated eventually lead to?
A
Cardiac Arrest
20
Q
Which type of bleeding is life-threatening and difficult to control?
A
Arterial
21
Q
Which method of transporting a victim is described as a wire basket supported by iron rods and may be tipped or turned while keeping the casualty securely in place?
A
Strokes
22
Q
Which method of transporting a victim can be used by one person when, due to the severity of the injury, the victim should not be lifted by one person?
A
Blanket Carry
23
Q
What type of bleeding oozes from the wound or cut?
A
Capillary
24
Q
What heat injury isi the most common condition from exposure to hot environments and is due to excessive sweating?
A
Heat Exhaustion
25
Which type of burn involves the first layer of skin and is red, dry, warm, sensitive to touch, and turns white with pressure?
1st Degree
26
What type of burn is treated with hydration, burn dressings and treatment for shock?
3rd Degree Burn
27
What type of heat injury causes the casualty's skin to become red (flushed), hot and dry?
Heat Stroke
28
In the initial evaluation of a victim, what should you do after you identify the injuries?
Check for consciousness
29
What type of injury is caused by airway obstruction?
Asphyxiation
30
Who used his body to shield a grenade blast saving the other 11 people inside the building wounding only two of them?
SO2(SEAL) Michael A. Monsoor
31
What is the mission of United States Special Operations Command?
* To plan, direct, and execute Special Operations
* To organize, train, and equip Special Operation Forces
32
In 1989, SEALs participated in which operation, to topple the Noriega dictatorship during the invasion of Panama?
Operation Just Cause
33
Which unit was established in 1980 and designated to study special operations requirements and techniques as well as plan and conduct joint special operations exercises and training?
JSOC
34
Who retired from the Navy after completing 45 years of continuous active duty?
BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch
35
Who recieved the Medal of Honor as a result of a 3-hour battle, destroyed 50 vessels and numberous Viet Cong along with a major enemy logistic operation?
BMC(SEAL) James E. Williams
36
Who was the first Navy SEAL to ever be appointed to the grade of 3-Star?
ADM Eric Olsen
37
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for running into a hail of enemy fire to retrieve a fallen teammate and dragging him to the beach, inflating his life vest and swimming both his teammate and a wounded Vietnamese seaward for two hours?
LT Michael Thornton
38
In April 1944, the Demolition Teams were deployed to England to prepare for which operation ISO the Amphibious landing at Normandy?
Operation Overlord
39
Who is known as the "Father of Naval Special Warfare"?
CAPT Phil H. Bucklew
40
Discuss LTJG Joesph Kerrey
Medal of Honor recipient (Vietnam)
Recieved massive injuries when a grenade exploded at his feet from a member of the Viet Cong on the island in the bay of Nha Trang.Bleeding profusely, he called in the second element's fire support causing devistating crossfire
41
Discuss LT Michael Murphy
Awarded Medal of Honor (Operation Red Wings)
OIC
Ambushed by Taliban Forces. Sacrificed his life to gain high ground to call for reinforcements. Team killed 3-4 dozen Taliban
42
Who joined the Navy in April 1945 and immediately volunteered for "secret and hazardous duty" with the Amphibious Scouts and Raiders?
BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch
43
Which operation became the real catalyst for the UDT training program?
Operation Flintlock
44
Who was 1 of 50 hand-selected men to join the original SEAL Team TWO and became one of their most distinguished members?
BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch
45
What year was the United States Operations Command established?
1987
46
How many Unified Combatant Commands are there?
10
47
When did ADM Eric Olsen assume command of United States Special Operations Command?
July 9th, 2007
48
What organization was formed by LCDR Draper L. Kauffman on June 6, 1943, in response to intelligence indicating German forces were arraying a "barrier of invasion" of underwater obstacles on the beaches of Normandy?
Naval Combat Demolition Unit
49
SEALs conducted the first successful U.S. POW rescue since WWII in which military era?
GWOT
50
In what operation did SEALs participate in to topple the Noriega dictatorship in Panama?
Operation Just Cause
51
What organization was formed in response to difficulties encountered with U.S. Marines landing on the Tarawa Atoll?
Underwater Demolition Teams
52
What organization traces their roots back to the WWII and Vietnam era USN Riverine warfare forces?
Special Boat Squadrons
53
What organization was developed in response to President Kennedy's direction to develop an unconventional warfare capability?
SEALTeams
54
Who made up the six-man teams of volunteers that formed the Navy Combat Demolition Units?
Seabees
55
What organization first saw combat on January 31, 1944 during Operation Flintlock in the Marshall Islands?
Underwater Demolition Teams
56
Which Special Operation Core Task involves those actions required to locate, identify, seize, destroy, render safe, transport, capture, or recover WMD?
Counter Proliferation (CP)
57
Which NSW Group(s) are responsible for organizing, equipping, resourcing, deploying, and sustaining special boat detachments and SWCC to combatant commander areas of responsibility to conduct special operations and other activities ISO theater objectives?
NSW Group FOUR
58
Which Unified Combatant Command was established in 1983 and plans for regional contingencies and emplys military forces within Europe and parts of the Middle East?
Europe Command (EUCOM)
59
Who serves as the schoolhouse for much of Naval Special Warfare training as well as the 26 week BUD/S and 9 week Special Warfare Combatant Crewman?
Naval Special Warfare Center
60
Which NSW Group(s) specializes in the deployment of SEALs from submarines, including the SEAL Delivery Vehicle, Dry Deck Shelter, and Advanced SEAL Delivery Systems?
NSW Group THREE
61
Which Special Operation Core Task are actions taken to achieve information superiority over the enemy by affecting adversary information or information systems while leveraging and protecting U.S. information and information systems?
Information Operations (IO)
62
Which Special Operation Core Task are normally short duration strikes and other small scale offensive actions?
Direct Action (DA)
63
Which NSW Group(s) are equipped to support and provide command and control elements and trained SEAL and SDV platoons and forces to the Unified Combatant Commander?
NSW Group ONE/TWO
64
Which Special Operation Core Task conduct operations by applying highly specialized capabilities to prevent, deter, protect against, and respond to terrorism?
Counter-Terrorism (CT)
65
Who is the principal military advisor to the president, SECDEF, and the National Security Council?
Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
66
Which Special Operations Core Task use NSW forces to train, advise, and otherwise assist friendly government or military forces?
Foreign Internal Defense (FID)
67
Which Unified Combatant Command was established in 1952 and promotes security and peaceful development in the Asia-Pacific region?
Pacific Command (PACOM)
68
Who serves as the Naval Special Warfare Squadron Commander?
CO of the SEAL Team
69
What is generally the smallest task-organized element used for planning purposes in the sourcing Combatant Commander (CCD) requirements?
NSWTU
70
Who does the CNSWC report directly to for Navy specific administrative and other matter?
CNO
71
What civilian post is in charge of low-intensity conflict as established by the Cohen-Nunn Amendment to the 1987 Defense Authorization Act?
Office of the SECDEF
72
What did the Cohen-Nunn Amendment to the 1987 Defense Authorization Act provide for the establishment of?
United States Special Operations Command
73
Under whose direction is the Intelligence Officer responsible for collecting and disseminating intelligence information?
Operations Officer
74
Who exercises ADCON over all NSW forces promulgated by CNO and CDRUSSOCOM?
CNSWC
75
Army supply class that deals with personal demand items
* health
* hygiene products
* writing material
* snack
* food
* cigarettes
6
76
Army class of supply that deals with:
* petroleum
* fuels
* lubricants
* hydraulic
* insulating oils
3
77
Army class of supply that deals with:
* medical material
* repair parts for medical
8
78
Which supply form is used as a request for contractual procurement?
NAVCOMPT 2276
79
Whose duty is it to promote effectiveness and efficiency of the Chain of Command?
Command Master Chief
80
What is the micro-purchase threshold of the Government Purchase Card?
$3,000
81
Which supply form is used for items lost, damaged, unserviceable, or not economically repairable?
DD form 200
82
Army supply class that deals with:
* subsistense
* gratuitous health
* comfort items
1
83
What activity has a supply support mission, i.e. direct support supply units, missile support elements, and maintenance support units?
Army Supply Support Activity (SSA)
84
Army supply class that deals with:
* materials to support non-military programs
* agriculture
* economic development
10
85
Army supply class that deals with:
* Construction material
* installed equipment
* barrier materials
4
86
Army class that deals with:
* Ammunition of all types
5
87
Army supply class that deals with:
* Clothing
* individual equipment
* tentage
* organizational tool sets and kits
2
88
Army class that deals with:
* repair parts
* kits
* assemblies
* subassembiles
9
89
What military logistics unit deals with managing, cataloging, requirements determinations, procurement, distribution, overhaul. and disposal of material?
Supply Management Unit (SMU)
90
Supply form for over-the-counter (OTC) purchases?
SF 44
91
Army supply class that deals with:
* launchers
* tanks
* mobile machine shops
* vehicles
7
92
How often do Type Commanders allocate OPTAR grants to fleet units?
Quarterly
93
What form is utilized to document and account for all organizational clothing/equipment issued to an individual from the supply stock or open market procedures?
NAVPERS 1070/613
\*\*\*PAGE 13\*\*\*
94
Who grants each ship or activity funding authority in the form of OPTAR to obtain the material and service necessary for day to day operations?
Type Commanders
95
What form is used to request various printing, graphics, and audiovisual work from DoD?
DD form 282
96
What type of net (circuit) must obtain permission from the Net Control Station before communicating with the other stations on the net?
Direct
97
Name two functions that can be performed by the Defense Advance GPS receiver
* Can't performing area navigation functions, storing up to 999 waypoints
* Resist jamming
* Resists spoofing when crypto keys are installed
98
Which type of net (circuit) used at sea are operational or tactical nets; some circuits, however, are often used to pass administrative traffic?
Tactical
99
What document normally contains call signs, call words and frequencies to be used by designated operating units?
CEOI
100
Who is responsible for training all personnel in regards to handling CMS?
CMS custodian
101
What radios provide primary communications for Marine Corps forces around the world?
SINGARS
102
What has both a maritime (submersible to 20m) and in urban (submersible to 2m) version?
PRC-148
103
Discuss the PRC-117F
An advanced multiband, multi-mission manpack radio providing reliable tactical communications performance in a small, lightweight package that maximizes user mobility
104
What antenna can be used with the AN/PRC–117G for satellite communications?
AV– 2090 collapsible antenna
105
What is capable of interfacing with the Integrated Bridge System (IBS)
AN/PSN-13A DAGR
106
In what type of net are you required to obtain permission from NECOS communicating with other stations on the net?
Directed
107
Name two types of antenna that are considered filled directional antennas.
* Half-Rhombic
* Long Wire
* Yagi
108
What radio can store up to 100 preset channels organized in 10 groups of 16 channels each?
AN/PRC– 117G
109
What proword(s) in the message instructions immediately proceed the text of a tactical message sent by the Delayed Executive Method?
EXECUTIVE TO FOLLOW
110
What frequency range does the AN/PRC 148 MBITR operate over?
30 - 512 MHz
111
What type of net are most voice circuits used at sea?
Tactical/Operational
112
What type of destruction is required for superseded COMSEC material as soon as possible after supersession?
Routine destruction
113
What is the VHF High Band frequency range for the PRC– 117G?
90 - 224.99999 MHz
114
What radio is a handheld military use dual signal tracking GPS receiver that incorporates anti-jam movements for enhanced protection and includes the Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module?
PSN-13A
115
What are the rate(s) of fire for the M2HB?
450 - 550 rounds per minute
116
What is the MAX RANGE of the M2HB?
6,767 m
117
Discuss the M2HB
* 50 caliber
* Recoil-operated
* Fully automatic
* Link Belt Fed
* Fires from a closed bolt position
* Can be set up for right or left-handed feed
118
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M2HB?
1,829 m
119
The M4 Carbine has how many different types of fire?
2
120
What weapon is shoulder-fired, gas-operated, magazine-fed, carbine with a collapsible butt stock, and is capable of semi-auto or full-auto fire?
M4 Carbine
121
What is the rate of automatic fire for the M4 Carbine?
90 rounds per minute
122
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M4 Carbine on area targets?
600m
123
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M4 Carbine on point targets?
500m
124
Discuss the P226
* 9mm
* Recoil-operated
* Semi-automatic
* Both single/double action
* Double stacked magazine
* 15 round magazine + 1 in chamber
125
What is the maximum number of rounds the Remington 870 will hold?
6 in magazine tube + 1 in chamber
126
What weapon is best described as a manually operated, tube fed, repeating shoulder-fired weapon?
Remington 870
127
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the P226?
50 m
128
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range for the M240G on area targets?
1800 m
129
What is the max rate of fire for the M240G?
750–950 rounds/min
130
What weapon is a gas-operated, belt-fed, machine gun that fires from the open bolt position?
M240G
131
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M240G?
3,375 m
132
What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range for the M240G on point targets?
800 m
133
What size ammunition does the M240G use?
7.62 mm
134
What form is identified as a valid U.S. Government Constitution Equipment Operator's License?
11260/2
135
What form is identified as an Accidental Identification Card?
DD Form 518
136
Which form is identified as a valid U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator's Identification Card that covers the size and type of vehicle requested?
OF/346
137
What form is identified as a Motor Vehicle Accident Report?
SF 91
138
What class is assigned for CESE full time assignment of a specific nonstandard vehicle to an individual billet?
Class A
139
What class is assigned for CESE authorized in writing by the local commander to an organizational unit of a command or a tenant command on a recurring/regular or continuous basis for official business?
Class B
140
Who are the first line of defense against equipment wear, failure and damage to vehicles?
Operators
141
Which phase in the terrorist attack methodology seeks to detect routines, procedures, and site-specific security measures?
Detailed Surveillance
142
What type of assessment helps planners determine which assets are critical to a unit's mission and which are most vulnerable?
Criticality and vulnerability
143
What are some common tactics terrorists use to exploit a target's weaknesses and vulnerabilities once they are known?
* Assassinations
* Arsons
* Bombings
* Hostage taking
* kidnappings
* Hijacking/Skyjacking
* Sabotage
* Seizure of important buildings or assets
* Information warfare
* Raids or attacks on facilities
* Employment of weapons of mass destruction (WMD)
144
What type of assessment contributes to the installation's ability to deter and employ countermeasures both pre-incident and post-incident?
Planning and response
145
What three components of an asset or area are assessed to determine it's vulerability?
* Construction
* Accessibility
* Recognizability
146
What are the phases of terrorist attack methodology?
* Target Options
* Selective Surveilance
* Target Selection
* Detailed Surveilance
* Training and Preparation
* The Attack
147
What is the determination of position by advancing a previous position for courses and distances?
Dead reckoning
148
What is the term for a line or anything else running from the side of the boat?
Athwartships
149
On a vessel, what white light is place over the fore and aft center line of the vessel showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 225 degrees, and so fixed to show 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on either side of the vessel?
Masthead Light
150
What is the average height of all high-tide water levels measured over a 19 year period?
Mean High Water
151
What is best described as the development of a low-pressure area on the forward face of the blade and a high-pressure area on the after face of the blades, forcing it in a stream toward the stern?
Propeller Action
152
This is the period that occurs while the current is changing direction and has no horizontal momentum.
Slack Water
153
What usually occurs when the propeller rotates at a very high speed ans a partial vacuum forms air bubbles at the tips of the propeller blades?
Cavitations
154
What yellow light has the same characteristics as the "stern light"?
Towing Light
155
On a vessel, what white light is placed as near the stern as possible, showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 135 degrees and so fixed as to show the light 67.5 degrees from the right aft on each side of the vessel?
Stern Light
156
What light shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 360 degrees?
All-Around Light
157
This is a condition in which visibility isi restricted by fog, mist, falling snow, heavy rainstorms, sandstorms, or any other similar causes?
Restricted Visibility
158
What is the duration of a "short blast"?
about 1 second
159
What is the duration of a "prolonged blast"?
four to six seconds
160
What rule covers short blasts and prolonged blasts?
Rule 32
161
What boat is a high speed, high bouyancy, extreme weather craft with the primary mission of insertion and extraction of personnel from enemy occupied beaches?
RHIB
Rigid-Hull Inflatable Boat
162
What boat has a primary mission of insertion and extraction into a low-medium threat environment and a secondary mission limited to Coastal Patrol and Inderdiction?
MK V Special Operations Craft (SOC)
163
This boat is designated as a high speed boat with ample weapons and equipment capacity. It's primary mission is insertion and extraction into a low-medium threat environment in a riverine area.
Special Operations Craft - Riverine
| (SOC-R)
164
This boat is quick and maneuverable with a shallow draft and can operate in coastal environments as well as waterways that are located well inland?
Special Operations Craft - Riverine
SOC-R
165
What boat is a lightly armed Boston Whaler-type craft with no armor?
Patrol Boat, Light
PBL
166
What boat is used for clandestine surface insertion and extraction of lightly armed SOF?
Combat Rubber Raiding Craft (CRRC)
167
This is a submersible underwater vehicle, designed to carry SEALs and their equipment in fully-flooded compartments?
SEAL Delivery Vehicle
SDV
168
What is the max speed for the SDV?
18 kts
169
This is a dry, submersible and strategic asset that is used for long range insertion of SEALs from a host platform, either surface ships or submarine, to a mission area with an added advantage of keeping SEALs dry and minimizing their exposure to cold and fatigue while in transit to their mission objective?
Advanced SEAL Delivery System
ASDS
170
Who is responsible for standard equipment requirements and organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicle?
* ammo
* food
* water
* fuel
Vehicle Commander
171
Who gains control of the steering wheel when conducting a downed-driver drill
Vehicle Commander
172
Who issues the WRNO to ensure subordinate leaders have key information they need to maximize their preparation time in regards to convoy troop leading procedures?
Convoy Commander
173
Who in a convoy is responsible for primary and alternate sectors of fire?
Crew served weapons operator
174
Who receives the mission via a warning order (WARNO), an operations order (OPORD), fragmentary order (FRAGO), transportation movement request or verbal order for convoys?
Convoy Commander
175
Which battle drill is used when a vehicle is inoperable or when the occupants are required to use the vehicle as cover?
Bailout
176
Which convoy formation provides greater headlight coverage at night?
Staggered
177
Who makes the call to dismount the vehicle?
Vehicle Commander / Driver
178
What is the primary means of communication with movement control, air support, and within the convoy?
Radio
179
What is the first step when reacting to a contact by Blow Through?
Speed Up
180
Discuss SMEAC
5 Paragraph Order that specifies instruction to a unit
* Situation
* Orientation
* Enemy Forces
* Friendly Forces
* Attachments/Detachments
* Mission
* Execution
* Admin and Logistics
* Command and Control
181
What type of Unmanned Aircraft Systems supports small ground teams/elements in the field and are generally controlled by a single individual?
Man-portable UAS
182
What type of intelligence is derived from information collected and provided by human sources?
HUMINT
183
What type of intelligence is technical, geographic, and intelligence information derived through the interpretation or analysis of imagery and collateral materials?
IMINT
184
What type of intelligence information is collected by potential intelligence that is available to the general public?
OSINT
185
Discuss Blue Force Tracking (BFT) capabilities.
Identify and track U.S., Allied, or Coalition Forces for the purpose of giving the combatant commander enhanced battlespace situational awareness and for reducing friendly fire.
186
What training plan shall indicate what training is to be conducted on specific days and who the instructor will be?
Monthly Training Plan
187
What training plan provides the framework for developing the short range training plan?
Long Range Training Plan
188
Name 2 participants of PB4T
* XO
* CMC
* Training Officer
189
Who must the High Risk Training Agents forward all training-related recordable and reportable training mishaps to?
Commander, Naval Safety Center
190
How often must high risk training agents conduct a procedural walk-through?
Quarterly
191
Who must the High Risk Training Agents forward a copy of the high risk training to?
Naval Safety Center
192
ORM RAC Codes
1. Critical
2. Serious
3. Moderate
4. Minor
5. Negligible
193
This type of plan is required during high risk training evolutions.
Emergency Action Plan (EAP)
194
What are the 3 basic features ofo effective unit training?
* Compatibility
* Evaluation and Instruction
* Analysis and Improvement
195
