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Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are some safety precautions when working with ordinance?

A
  • Do not smoke or allow open flames near ordnance.
  • Only use authorized equipment on ordnance (don’t ‘wing’ it)
  • Do not leave exposed ordnance unattended
  • Do not leave open magazines or RSLs unattended
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2
Q

What are some safety precautions when handling ordnance?

A
  • Ensure that “bravo” flag is flying during ordnance cargo handling operations or a red task light is displayed at night
  • Thoroughly wash hands after handling ordnance
  • Do not allow any other cargo handling operations to take place in the area where ordnance handling is taking place
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3
Q

What are some safety requirements while conducting operations with helicopters?

A
  • Remove soft hats during helicopter landings and take-offs
  • Do not take flash pictures during flight operations
  • Avoid approaching within 50ft of a helicopter while the rotor blades are turning unless directed by the signal man
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4
Q

In referencing priciples of hazard controls, what term best describes the placement of appropriate barrier or limiter between the hazard and an individual who may be affected by the hazard?

A

Isolation

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5
Q

Name 2 safety requirements for small boats.

A
  • Verify weather deck drains are free of obstructions, drain overboard and not into the bilge
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6
Q

At what interval are supervisory personnel and employee representatives required to recieve training on hearing concervation?

A
  • Initially
  • Annually
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7
Q

When working on energized equipment, a safety observer capablel of securing power and rendering adequate aid in the event of an emergency must be stationed when the voltage exceeds what level?

A

30 volts

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8
Q

According to Navy policy, who is responsible for providing PPE when competent authority determines that its use is necessary and that such use will lessen the likelihood of the occupational injuries and/or inllnesses?

A

The Command

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9
Q

When working on energized electronic equipment authorized?

A
  • When duly authorized and trained on that equipment
  • When done according to published maintenance or technical manual procedures
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10
Q

What type of burn is life threatening?

A

3rd Degree

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11
Q

What type of cold injury is caused when exposed to prolong cold weather?

A

Hypothermia

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12
Q

Discuss signs/symptoms for 3rd degree burn.

A
  • Involves all layers of skin
  • Burn penetrates into muscle, connective tissue, and bone
  • The skin may vary from white and lifeless to black and charred
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13
Q

What type of cold injury is a result of the tisue feeling sold (or wooden) to the touch?

A

Frost Bite

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14
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of Hypothermia?

A
  • Progressive discomfort
  • Shivering
  • Faint Pulse
  • Drowsy or Mentally slow
  • Slurred speach
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15
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of 2nd degree burn?

A
  • Red
  • Blistered
  • Weeping
  • Skin appears (spotted) mottled
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16
Q

Which heat injury is a life-threatening emergency where the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweatinf mechanism?

A

Heat Stroke

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17
Q

Which method of transporting a victim is one of the easiest ways to carry an unconscious person?

A

Fireman carry

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18
Q

What are the two major classifications of fractures?

A
  • Closed
  • Open
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19
Q

What will all severe injuries left untreated eventually lead to?

A

Cardiac Arrest

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20
Q

Which type of bleeding is life-threatening and difficult to control?

A

Arterial

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21
Q

Which method of transporting a victim is described as a wire basket supported by iron rods and may be tipped or turned while keeping the casualty securely in place?

A

Strokes

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22
Q

Which method of transporting a victim can be used by one person when, due to the severity of the injury, the victim should not be lifted by one person?

A

Blanket Carry

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23
Q

What type of bleeding oozes from the wound or cut?

A

Capillary

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24
Q

What heat injury isi the most common condition from exposure to hot environments and is due to excessive sweating?

A

Heat Exhaustion

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25
Q

Which type of burn involves the first layer of skin and is red, dry, warm, sensitive to touch, and turns white with pressure?

A

1st Degree

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26
Q

What type of burn is treated with hydration, burn dressings and treatment for shock?

A

3rd Degree Burn

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27
Q

What type of heat injury causes the casualty’s skin to become red (flushed), hot and dry?

A

Heat Stroke

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28
Q

In the initial evaluation of a victim, what should you do after you identify the injuries?

A

Check for consciousness

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29
Q

What type of injury is caused by airway obstruction?

A

Asphyxiation

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30
Q

Who used his body to shield a grenade blast saving the other 11 people inside the building wounding only two of them?

A

SO2(SEAL) Michael A. Monsoor

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31
Q

What is the mission of United States Special Operations Command?

A
  • To plan, direct, and execute Special Operations
  • To organize, train, and equip Special Operation Forces
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32
Q

In 1989, SEALs participated in which operation, to topple the Noriega dictatorship during the invasion of Panama?

A

Operation Just Cause

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33
Q

Which unit was established in 1980 and designated to study special operations requirements and techniques as well as plan and conduct joint special operations exercises and training?

A

JSOC

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34
Q

Who retired from the Navy after completing 45 years of continuous active duty?

A

BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch

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35
Q

Who recieved the Medal of Honor as a result of a 3-hour battle, destroyed 50 vessels and numberous Viet Cong along with a major enemy logistic operation?

A

BMC(SEAL) James E. Williams

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36
Q

Who was the first Navy SEAL to ever be appointed to the grade of 3-Star?

A

ADM Eric Olsen

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37
Q

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for running into a hail of enemy fire to retrieve a fallen teammate and dragging him to the beach, inflating his life vest and swimming both his teammate and a wounded Vietnamese seaward for two hours?

A

LT Michael Thornton

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38
Q

In April 1944, the Demolition Teams were deployed to England to prepare for which operation ISO the Amphibious landing at Normandy?

A

Operation Overlord

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39
Q

Who is known as the “Father of Naval Special Warfare”?

A

CAPT Phil H. Bucklew

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40
Q

Discuss LTJG Joesph Kerrey

A

Medal of Honor recipient (Vietnam)

Recieved massive injuries when a grenade exploded at his feet from a member of the Viet Cong on the island in the bay of Nha Trang.Bleeding profusely, he called in the second element’s fire support causing devistating crossfire

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41
Q

Discuss LT Michael Murphy

A

Awarded Medal of Honor (Operation Red Wings)

OIC

Ambushed by Taliban Forces. Sacrificed his life to gain high ground to call for reinforcements. Team killed 3-4 dozen Taliban

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42
Q

Who joined the Navy in April 1945 and immediately volunteered for “secret and hazardous duty” with the Amphibious Scouts and Raiders?

A

BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch

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43
Q

Which operation became the real catalyst for the UDT training program?

A

Operation Flintlock

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44
Q

Who was 1 of 50 hand-selected men to join the original SEAL Team TWO and became one of their most distinguished members?

A

BMCM(SEAL) Rudy Boesch

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45
Q

What year was the United States Operations Command established?

A

1987

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46
Q

How many Unified Combatant Commands are there?

A

10

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47
Q

When did ADM Eric Olsen assume command of United States Special Operations Command?

A

July 9th, 2007

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48
Q

What organization was formed by LCDR Draper L. Kauffman on June 6, 1943, in response to intelligence indicating German forces were arraying a “barrier of invasion” of underwater obstacles on the beaches of Normandy?

A

Naval Combat Demolition Unit

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49
Q

SEALs conducted the first successful U.S. POW rescue since WWII in which military era?

A

GWOT

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50
Q

In what operation did SEALs participate in to topple the Noriega dictatorship in Panama?

A

Operation Just Cause

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51
Q

What organization was formed in response to difficulties encountered with U.S. Marines landing on the Tarawa Atoll?

A

Underwater Demolition Teams

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52
Q

What organization traces their roots back to the WWII and Vietnam era USN Riverine warfare forces?

A

Special Boat Squadrons

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53
Q

What organization was developed in response to President Kennedy’s direction to develop an unconventional warfare capability?

A

SEALTeams

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54
Q

Who made up the six-man teams of volunteers that formed the Navy Combat Demolition Units?

A

Seabees

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55
Q

What organization first saw combat on January 31, 1944 during Operation Flintlock in the Marshall Islands?

A

Underwater Demolition Teams

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56
Q

Which Special Operation Core Task involves those actions required to locate, identify, seize, destroy, render safe, transport, capture, or recover WMD?

A

Counter Proliferation (CP)

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57
Q

Which NSW Group(s) are responsible for organizing, equipping, resourcing, deploying, and sustaining special boat detachments and SWCC to combatant commander areas of responsibility to conduct special operations and other activities ISO theater objectives?

A

NSW Group FOUR

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58
Q

Which Unified Combatant Command was established in 1983 and plans for regional contingencies and emplys military forces within Europe and parts of the Middle East?

A

Europe Command (EUCOM)

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59
Q

Who serves as the schoolhouse for much of Naval Special Warfare training as well as the 26 week BUD/S and 9 week Special Warfare Combatant Crewman?

A

Naval Special Warfare Center

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60
Q

Which NSW Group(s) specializes in the deployment of SEALs from submarines, including the SEAL Delivery Vehicle, Dry Deck Shelter, and Advanced SEAL Delivery Systems?

A

NSW Group THREE

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61
Q

Which Special Operation Core Task are actions taken to achieve information superiority over the enemy by affecting adversary information or information systems while leveraging and protecting U.S. information and information systems?

A

Information Operations (IO)

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62
Q

Which Special Operation Core Task are normally short duration strikes and other small scale offensive actions?

A

Direct Action (DA)

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63
Q

Which NSW Group(s) are equipped to support and provide command and control elements and trained SEAL and SDV platoons and forces to the Unified Combatant Commander?

A

NSW Group ONE/TWO

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64
Q

Which Special Operation Core Task conduct operations by applying highly specialized capabilities to prevent, deter, protect against, and respond to terrorism?

A

Counter-Terrorism (CT)

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65
Q

Who is the principal military advisor to the president, SECDEF, and the National Security Council?

A

Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff

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66
Q

Which Special Operations Core Task use NSW forces to train, advise, and otherwise assist friendly government or military forces?

A

Foreign Internal Defense (FID)

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67
Q

Which Unified Combatant Command was established in 1952 and promotes security and peaceful development in the Asia-Pacific region?

A

Pacific Command (PACOM)

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68
Q

Who serves as the Naval Special Warfare Squadron Commander?

A

CO of the SEAL Team

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69
Q

What is generally the smallest task-organized element used for planning purposes in the sourcing Combatant Commander (CCD) requirements?

A

NSWTU

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70
Q

Who does the CNSWC report directly to for Navy specific administrative and other matter?

A

CNO

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71
Q

What civilian post is in charge of low-intensity conflict as established by the Cohen-Nunn Amendment to the 1987 Defense Authorization Act?

A

Office of the SECDEF

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72
Q

What did the Cohen-Nunn Amendment to the 1987 Defense Authorization Act provide for the establishment of?

A

United States Special Operations Command

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73
Q

Under whose direction is the Intelligence Officer responsible for collecting and disseminating intelligence information?

A

Operations Officer

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74
Q

Who exercises ADCON over all NSW forces promulgated by CNO and CDRUSSOCOM?

A

CNSWC

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75
Q

Army supply class that deals with personal demand items

  • health
  • hygiene products
  • writing material
  • snack
  • food
  • cigarettes
A

6

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76
Q

Army class of supply that deals with:

  • petroleum
  • fuels
  • lubricants
  • hydraulic
  • insulating oils
A

3

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77
Q

Army class of supply that deals with:

  • medical material
  • repair parts for medical
A

8

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78
Q

Which supply form is used as a request for contractual procurement?

A

NAVCOMPT 2276

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79
Q

Whose duty is it to promote effectiveness and efficiency of the Chain of Command?

A

Command Master Chief

80
Q

What is the micro-purchase threshold of the Government Purchase Card?

A

$3,000

81
Q

Which supply form is used for items lost, damaged, unserviceable, or not economically repairable?

A

DD form 200

82
Q

Army supply class that deals with:

  • subsistense
  • gratuitous health
  • comfort items
A

1

83
Q

What activity has a supply support mission, i.e. direct support supply units, missile support elements, and maintenance support units?

A

Army Supply Support Activity (SSA)

84
Q

Army supply class that deals with:

  • materials to support non-military programs
    • agriculture
    • economic development
A

10

85
Q

Army supply class that deals with:

  • Construction material
    • installed equipment
    • barrier materials
A

4

86
Q

Army class that deals with:

  • Ammunition of all types
A

5

87
Q

Army supply class that deals with:

  • Clothing
  • individual equipment
  • tentage
  • organizational tool sets and kits
A

2

88
Q

Army class that deals with:

  • repair parts
    • kits
    • assemblies
    • subassembiles
A

9

89
Q

What military logistics unit deals with managing, cataloging, requirements determinations, procurement, distribution, overhaul. and disposal of material?

A

Supply Management Unit (SMU)

90
Q

Supply form for over-the-counter (OTC) purchases?

A

SF 44

91
Q

Army supply class that deals with:

  • launchers
  • tanks
  • mobile machine shops
  • vehicles
A

7

92
Q

How often do Type Commanders allocate OPTAR grants to fleet units?

A

Quarterly

93
Q

What form is utilized to document and account for all organizational clothing/equipment issued to an individual from the supply stock or open market procedures?

A

NAVPERS 1070/613

***PAGE 13***

94
Q

Who grants each ship or activity funding authority in the form of OPTAR to obtain the material and service necessary for day to day operations?

A

Type Commanders

95
Q

What form is used to request various printing, graphics, and audiovisual work from DoD?

A

DD form 282

96
Q

What type of net (circuit) must obtain permission from the Net Control Station before communicating with the other stations on the net?

A

Direct

97
Q

Name two functions that can be performed by the Defense Advance GPS receiver

A
  • Can’t performing area navigation functions, storing up to 999 waypoints
  • Resist jamming
  • Resists spoofing when crypto keys are installed
98
Q

Which type of net (circuit) used at sea are operational or tactical nets; some circuits, however, are often used to pass administrative traffic?

A

Tactical

99
Q

What document normally contains call signs, call words and frequencies to be used by designated operating units?

A

CEOI

100
Q

Who is responsible for training all personnel in regards to handling CMS?

A

CMS custodian

101
Q

What radios provide primary communications for Marine Corps forces around the world?

A

SINGARS

102
Q

What has both a maritime (submersible to 20m) and in urban (submersible to 2m) version?

A

PRC-148

103
Q

Discuss the PRC-117F

A

An advanced multiband, multi-mission manpack radio providing reliable tactical communications performance in a small, lightweight package that maximizes user mobility

104
Q

What antenna can be used with the AN/PRC–117G for satellite communications?

A

AV– 2090 collapsible antenna

105
Q

What is capable of interfacing with the Integrated Bridge System (IBS)

A

AN/PSN-13A DAGR

106
Q

In what type of net are you required to obtain permission from NECOS communicating with other stations on the net?

A

Directed

107
Q

Name two types of antenna that are considered filled directional antennas.

A
  • Half-Rhombic
  • Long Wire
  • Yagi
108
Q

What radio can store up to 100 preset channels organized in 10 groups of 16 channels each?

A

AN/PRC– 117G

109
Q

What proword(s) in the message instructions immediately proceed the text of a tactical message sent by the Delayed Executive Method?

A

EXECUTIVE TO FOLLOW

110
Q

What frequency range does the AN/PRC 148 MBITR operate over?

A

30 - 512 MHz

111
Q

What type of net are most voice circuits used at sea?

A

Tactical/Operational

112
Q

What type of destruction is required for superseded COMSEC material as soon as possible after supersession?

A

Routine destruction

113
Q

What is the VHF High Band frequency range for the PRC– 117G?

A

90 - 224.99999 MHz

114
Q

What radio is a handheld military use dual signal tracking GPS receiver that incorporates anti-jam movements for enhanced protection and includes the Selective Availability Anti-Spoofing Module?

A

PSN-13A

115
Q

What are the rate(s) of fire for the M2HB?

A

450 - 550 rounds per minute

116
Q

What is the MAX RANGE of the M2HB?

A

6,767 m

117
Q

Discuss the M2HB

A
  • 50 caliber
  • Recoil-operated
  • Fully automatic
  • Link Belt Fed
  • Fires from a closed bolt position
  • Can be set up for right or left-handed feed
118
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M2HB?

A

1,829 m

119
Q

The M4 Carbine has how many different types of fire?

A

2

120
Q

What weapon is shoulder-fired, gas-operated, magazine-fed, carbine with a collapsible butt stock, and is capable of semi-auto or full-auto fire?

A

M4 Carbine

121
Q

What is the rate of automatic fire for the M4 Carbine?

A

90 rounds per minute

122
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M4 Carbine on area targets?

A

600m

123
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M4 Carbine on point targets?

A

500m

124
Q

Discuss the P226

A
  • 9mm
  • Recoil-operated
  • Semi-automatic
  • Both single/double action
  • Double stacked magazine
  • 15 round magazine + 1 in chamber
125
Q

What is the maximum number of rounds the Remington 870 will hold?

A

6 in magazine tube + 1 in chamber

126
Q

What weapon is best described as a manually operated, tube fed, repeating shoulder-fired weapon?

A

Remington 870

127
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the P226?

A

50 m

128
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range for the M240G on area targets?

A

1800 m

129
Q

What is the max rate of fire for the M240G?

A

750–950 rounds/min

130
Q

What weapon is a gas-operated, belt-fed, machine gun that fires from the open bolt position?

A

M240G

131
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range of the M240G?

A

3,375 m

132
Q

What is the MAX EFFECTIVE range for the M240G on point targets?

A

800 m

133
Q

What size ammunition does the M240G use?

A

7.62 mm

134
Q

What form is identified as a valid U.S. Government Constitution Equipment Operator’s License?

A

11260/2

135
Q

What form is identified as an Accidental Identification Card?

A

DD Form 518

136
Q

Which form is identified as a valid U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator’s Identification Card that covers the size and type of vehicle requested?

A

OF/346

137
Q

What form is identified as a Motor Vehicle Accident Report?

A

SF 91

138
Q

What class is assigned for CESE full time assignment of a specific nonstandard vehicle to an individual billet?

A

Class A

139
Q

What class is assigned for CESE authorized in writing by the local commander to an organizational unit of a command or a tenant command on a recurring/regular or continuous basis for official business?

A

Class B

140
Q

Who are the first line of defense against equipment wear, failure and damage to vehicles?

A

Operators

141
Q

Which phase in the terrorist attack methodology seeks to detect routines, procedures, and site-specific security measures?

A

Detailed Surveillance

142
Q

What type of assessment helps planners determine which assets are critical to a unit’s mission and which are most vulnerable?

A

Criticality and vulnerability

143
Q

What are some common tactics terrorists use to exploit a target’s weaknesses and vulnerabilities once they are known?

A
  • Assassinations
  • Arsons
  • Bombings
  • Hostage taking
  • kidnappings
  • Hijacking/Skyjacking
  • Sabotage
  • Seizure of important buildings or assets
  • Information warfare
  • Raids or attacks on facilities
  • Employment of weapons of mass destruction (WMD)
144
Q

What type of assessment contributes to the installation’s ability to deter and employ countermeasures both pre-incident and post-incident?

A

Planning and response

145
Q

What three components of an asset or area are assessed to determine it’s vulerability?

A
  • Construction
  • Accessibility
  • Recognizability
146
Q

What are the phases of terrorist attack methodology?

A
  • Target Options
  • Selective Surveilance
  • Target Selection
  • Detailed Surveilance
  • Training and Preparation
  • The Attack
147
Q

What is the determination of position by advancing a previous position for courses and distances?

A

Dead reckoning

148
Q

What is the term for a line or anything else running from the side of the boat?

A

Athwartships

149
Q

On a vessel, what white light is place over the fore and aft center line of the vessel showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 225 degrees, and so fixed to show 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on either side of the vessel?

A

Masthead Light

150
Q

What is the average height of all high-tide water levels measured over a 19 year period?

A

Mean High Water

151
Q

What is best described as the development of a low-pressure area on the forward face of the blade and a high-pressure area on the after face of the blades, forcing it in a stream toward the stern?

A

Propeller Action

152
Q

This is the period that occurs while the current is changing direction and has no horizontal momentum.

A

Slack Water

153
Q

What usually occurs when the propeller rotates at a very high speed ans a partial vacuum forms air bubbles at the tips of the propeller blades?

A

Cavitations

154
Q

What yellow light has the same characteristics as the “stern light”?

A

Towing Light

155
Q

On a vessel, what white light is placed as near the stern as possible, showing an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 135 degrees and so fixed as to show the light 67.5 degrees from the right aft on each side of the vessel?

A

Stern Light

156
Q

What light shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of 360 degrees?

A

All-Around Light

157
Q

This is a condition in which visibility isi restricted by fog, mist, falling snow, heavy rainstorms, sandstorms, or any other similar causes?

A

Restricted Visibility

158
Q

What is the duration of a “short blast”?

A

about 1 second

159
Q

What is the duration of a “prolonged blast”?

A

four to six seconds

160
Q

What rule covers short blasts and prolonged blasts?

A

Rule 32

161
Q

What boat is a high speed, high bouyancy, extreme weather craft with the primary mission of insertion and extraction of personnel from enemy occupied beaches?

A

RHIB

Rigid-Hull Inflatable Boat

162
Q

What boat has a primary mission of insertion and extraction into a low-medium threat environment and a secondary mission limited to Coastal Patrol and Inderdiction?

A

MK V Special Operations Craft (SOC)

163
Q

This boat is designated as a high speed boat with ample weapons and equipment capacity. It’s primary mission is insertion and extraction into a low-medium threat environment in a riverine area.

A

Special Operations Craft - Riverine

(SOC-R)

164
Q

This boat is quick and maneuverable with a shallow draft and can operate in coastal environments as well as waterways that are located well inland?

A

Special Operations Craft - Riverine

SOC-R

165
Q

What boat is a lightly armed Boston Whaler-type craft with no armor?

A

Patrol Boat, Light

PBL

166
Q

What boat is used for clandestine surface insertion and extraction of lightly armed SOF?

A

Combat Rubber Raiding Craft (CRRC)

167
Q

This is a submersible underwater vehicle, designed to carry SEALs and their equipment in fully-flooded compartments?

A

SEAL Delivery Vehicle

SDV

168
Q

What is the max speed for the SDV?

A

18 kts

169
Q

This is a dry, submersible and strategic asset that is used for long range insertion of SEALs from a host platform, either surface ships or submarine, to a mission area with an added advantage of keeping SEALs dry and minimizing their exposure to cold and fatigue while in transit to their mission objective?

A

Advanced SEAL Delivery System

ASDS

170
Q

Who is responsible for standard equipment requirements and organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicle?

  • ammo
  • food
  • water
  • fuel
A

Vehicle Commander

171
Q

Who gains control of the steering wheel when conducting a downed-driver drill

A

Vehicle Commander

172
Q

Who issues the WRNO to ensure subordinate leaders have key information they need to maximize their preparation time in regards to convoy troop leading procedures?

A

Convoy Commander

173
Q

Who in a convoy is responsible for primary and alternate sectors of fire?

A

Crew served weapons operator

174
Q

Who receives the mission via a warning order (WARNO), an operations order (OPORD), fragmentary order (FRAGO), transportation movement request or verbal order for convoys?

A

Convoy Commander

175
Q

Which battle drill is used when a vehicle is inoperable or when the occupants are required to use the vehicle as cover?

A

Bailout

176
Q

Which convoy formation provides greater headlight coverage at night?

A

Staggered

177
Q

Who makes the call to dismount the vehicle?

A

Vehicle Commander / Driver

178
Q

What is the primary means of communication with movement control, air support, and within the convoy?

A

Radio

179
Q

What is the first step when reacting to a contact by Blow Through?

A

Speed Up

180
Q

Discuss SMEAC

A

5 Paragraph Order that specifies instruction to a unit

  • Situation
    • Orientation
    • Enemy Forces
    • Friendly Forces
    • Attachments/Detachments
  • Mission
  • Execution
  • Admin and Logistics
  • Command and Control
181
Q

What type of Unmanned Aircraft Systems supports small ground teams/elements in the field and are generally controlled by a single individual?

A

Man-portable UAS

182
Q

What type of intelligence is derived from information collected and provided by human sources?

A

HUMINT

183
Q

What type of intelligence is technical, geographic, and intelligence information derived through the interpretation or analysis of imagery and collateral materials?

A

IMINT

184
Q

What type of intelligence information is collected by potential intelligence that is available to the general public?

A

OSINT

185
Q

Discuss Blue Force Tracking (BFT) capabilities.

A

Identify and track U.S., Allied, or Coalition Forces for the purpose of giving the combatant commander enhanced battlespace situational awareness and for reducing friendly fire.

186
Q

What training plan shall indicate what training is to be conducted on specific days and who the instructor will be?

A

Monthly Training Plan

187
Q

What training plan provides the framework for developing the short range training plan?

A

Long Range Training Plan

188
Q

Name 2 participants of PB4T

A
  • XO
  • CMC
  • Training Officer
189
Q

Who must the High Risk Training Agents forward all training-related recordable and reportable training mishaps to?

A

Commander, Naval Safety Center

190
Q

How often must high risk training agents conduct a procedural walk-through?

A

Quarterly

191
Q

Who must the High Risk Training Agents forward a copy of the high risk training to?

A

Naval Safety Center

192
Q

ORM RAC Codes

A
  1. Critical
  2. Serious
  3. Moderate
  4. Minor
  5. Negligible
193
Q

This type of plan is required during high risk training evolutions.

A

Emergency Action Plan (EAP)

194
Q

What are the 3 basic features ofo effective unit training?

A
  • Compatibility
  • Evaluation and Instruction
  • Analysis and Improvement
195
Q
A

EXW (12 decks)

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