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Board Preparation Flashcards

1
Q

M4 Specs

A 
5.56 mm
Holds 30 round magazine + 1 round in chamber
7.5 lbs with loaded
-Gas operated
-Air cooled
-Magazine fed
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2
Q

P226 Specs

A 
9mm
Semi-Automatic
15 round magazine + 1 round in chamber
Mechanically Locked
Recoil operated
Magazine Fed
Single/Double Action
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3
Q

M2HB

A

.

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4
Q

Wire Entanglement Types

A

.

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5
Q

Boat Security Tactics

A

.

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6
Q

463L

A

Air Force Pallet

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7
Q

TPFDD

A

.

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8
Q

TUCHA DATA

A

.

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9
Q

JOPES

A

.

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10
Q

AT/FP Attack Types

A

.

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11
Q

3 Types of Training

A

.

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12
Q

9 Line

A

.

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13
Q

Line of Sight

A

.

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14
Q

Sat Comms

A

.

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15
Q

MBITR

A

.

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16
Q

117G

A

.

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17
Q

148

A

.

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18
Q

Small Craft Boat Types

A

.

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19
Q

CASREP

A

.

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20
Q

LOGREQ

A

.

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21
Q

SITREP

A

.

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22
Q

Minimize

A

.

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23
Q

Medal of Honor Recipients

A

.

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24
Q

MOH #1

A

.

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25
Q

MOH#2

A

.

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26
Q

MOH#3

A

.

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27
Q

MOH saved MOH

A

story

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28
Q

Delivery Platforms

A

.

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29
Q

10 Classes of Supply

A

.

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30
Q

What is ORM?

A

Operational Risk Management

ORM is a decision making tool – used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission.

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31
Q

What are the five steps in applying ORM?

A 
1-	Identify hazards
2-	Assess the hazards
3-	Make risk decisions
4-	Implement controls
5-	Supervise
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32
Q

What are the 3 type of ORM controls?

A

1- engineering controls
2- administrative controls
3- PPE

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33
Q

Which ORM controls are least effective and why?

A

PPE is the least effective because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occurring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap does occur.

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34
Q

How often do Safety councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall safety program?

A

Quarterly

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35
Q

Who does the Safety Council members consist of?

A

1- Chairperson (CO/XO)
2- Unit Safety Officer (recorder)
3- Safety Reps from each dept

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36
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command?

A

CO

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37
Q

Who is responsible for advising the CO on matters pertaining to safety, manages the command safety program, investigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards?

A

Safety Officer

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38
Q

When should you use hearing protection?

A

When constant noise exceeds 84 dBA, or peak noise exceeds 140 dBA

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39
Q

When should you where double hearing protection?

A

When noise is greater then 104DBA

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40
Q

What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular substance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill handling procedures?

A

MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)

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41
Q

Who is authorized to perform lockout/tagout procedures?

A

Only qualified personnel in writing are authorized

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42
Q

What type of extinguisher do you use for a Class B fire?

A

(Fuel fire)
CO2
Dry Chemical

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43
Q

What is an EDVR?

A

Enlisted Distribution Verification Report

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44
Q

What is a Naval Message and what are the three categories?

A

A formal and secure form of correspondence that has the ability to be tracked

1 – Routine
2 – Priority
3 – Flash

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45
Q

What is a page 2?

A

NAVPERS 1070/602 – dependency application/record of emergency data

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46
Q

What is a page 4?

A

NAVPERS 1070/604 – used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator, etc..

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47
Q

What is a page 13?

A

NAVPERS 1070/613 Administrative Remarks, serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.

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48
Q

What is an OPREP used for?

A

The OPREP is used by Navy Forces to report significant events and incidents to Senior Leadership

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49
Q

Under the LOAC, what is a Combatant?

A

All persons in uniform, carrying a weapon or participating in any way in a military operations or activities

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50
Q

Under LOAC what is a Non-combatant?

A

Civilians, medical personnel, and chaplains

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51
Q

Who initiated Americas first sea-based offensive against the British?

A

General George Washington

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52
Q

The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?

A

Bureau of yards and docks

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53
Q

Battle of the Coral Sea

A

In May 4-6 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle.

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54
Q

Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea. What were they later renamed?

A

EOD Units (Explosive Ordnance Disposal)

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55
Q

Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False

A

False

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56
Q

Who is appointed by the POTUS as the head of the Dept of the Navy?

A

Secretary of the Navy, Honorable Ray Maybus

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57
Q

N-4 Dept head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate?

A

False

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58
Q

N-1 Dept head is responsible for administration of the unit’s supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met?

A

False

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59
Q

Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?

A

Provide oversight and command and control of ATFP and expeditionary-type forces within the Navy

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60
Q

Which command list below is not a core NCW Force?

a) Naval Coastal Warfare Groups (NCWGRU)
b) Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Units (MIUWU)
c) Inshore Boat Units (IBU)
d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
e) United States Coast Guard (USCG) Port Security Units (PSU)

A

d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)

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61
Q

Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are.

A

Port Security Unit

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62
Q

Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as

A

Embarked Security Team

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63
Q

What three Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft we commonly use?

A

C-130 Hercules, C-5 Galaxy and C-17 Globemaster III.

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64
Q

What is the primary mission of a C-130?

A

Intra-theater tactical airlift.

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65
Q

What is the primary mission of a C-5?

A

Inter-theater strategic airlift of outsized cargo.

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66
Q

What is the primary mission of a C-17?

A

Inter-theater tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delivery or air-land method.

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67
Q

What organic aircraft replaced the C-141?

A

C-17 Globemaster III.

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68
Q

What is the typical use of a C-130?

A

Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines.

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69
Q

What does MPF stands for?

A

Maritime Prepositioning Forces.

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70
Q

True or False. Hazardous cargo needs to have a Shipper’s Declaration for
Dangerous Goods Form completed?

A

True

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71
Q

True or False. Military Sealift Command (MSC) are tasked with providing strategic, common-user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy those forces on a global basis.

72
Q

What does APF stands for?

A

Afloat Pre-positioning Force

73
Q

Currently how many ships do APF have?

A

Over 30 ships

74
Q

APF are separated into what two mission categories?

A

Maritime Pre-positioning ships and Afloat Pre-positioning Ships.

75
Q

Are prowords to be substituted for text?

76
Q

Name a method of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable.

A

Arm and hand signals, Whistle signals, and Special Signals

77
Q

What is the nature and purpose of command and control?

A

To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation in his/her battlespace

78
Q

Who drives the command and control process?

A

The Commander

79
Q

Who has final responsibility and accountability for success of the mission?

A

The Commander

80
Q

What are the three forms of intelligence?

A

1- Strategic
2- Operational
3- Tactical

81
Q

What is the cornerstone of naval intelligence?

A

To support the operating Forces (at sea, from sea and ashore)

82
Q

Name the key attributes of naval intelligence.

A

Timeliness, objectivity, usability, availability, thoroughness, accuracy, relevance

83
Q

What does the acronym COMSEC stand for?

A

Communications Security

84
Q

What is COMSEC?

A

The Navy’s system for providing safeguards on telecommunications via encryption

85
Q

What is meant by the term TPI?

A

Two person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals

86
Q

What are the three types of clearances?

A

1- Confidential
2- Secret
3- Top Secret

87
Q

Name the frequency of HF, VHF and UHF

A

HF: 3MHZ – 30MHZ
VHF: 30MHZ – 300MHZ
UHF: 300MHZ – 3GHZ

88
Q

What is meant by the term beadwindow?

A

It is used to alert the operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit

89
Q

What is meant by the term minimize?

A

To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffice so that vital messages connected with the situation at hand will not be delayed. (Similar to silence the net)

90
Q

Name the factors that effect the range of radio equipment.

A

Weather, Terrain, Antenna power, Location of the radio

91
Q

What are the Five Basic Phases to an Expeditionary Camp layout?

A 
Phase I 	- Planning
Phase II 	- Site survey/Security
Phase III	- Camp Establishment
Phase IV	- Camp Maintenance
Phase V	- Camp Breakdown
92
Q

Planning phase has what four types of camps?

A

1- Base
2- Expeditionary
3- Unit
4- Logistics Hub

93
Q

True or False. Site Survey preparations are future site by aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol.

94
Q

List the facilities or structures in Phase III Camp Establishments?

A

Billeting, Food Service, Showers/Heads, Field Armory, BAS, Laundry, Administrative services, MWR, Ministry

95
Q

Who maintains the tactical equipment in Camp

A

Seabee Mechanics and L-3 Mechanics

96
Q

Phase IV Maintenance is normally run by who?

A

Seabees and contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond)

97
Q

True or False. Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR

98
Q

What are the basic duties of First Aid Station?

A

Emergency response team, Minor Surgeries, Patient Monitoring, Medical Evacuation, Pharmacy and Administration

99
Q

What is an integral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system?

A

Leach Field

100
Q

What form is filled out when a trouble call is submitted to the Trouble Desk?

A

Emergency/Service Authorization (ESA)

101
Q

What are the four priority work classifications?

A

1- Safety
2- Function
3- Preventive
4- Appearance

102
Q

State the reason for a priority work classification I (Safety)?

A

Work required primarily for Safety reasons

103
Q

What is potable water for?

A

Suitable for drinking, cooking and personnel use

104
Q

What are the three standard gear issue categories?

A

1- Fighting/Load carrying
2- Bivouac
3- Protective

105
Q

The standard 782 gear issue consists of what?

A
  • Pistol belt w/ two magazine pouches
  • Pack, usually medium size
  • H-harness or suspenders
106
Q

Name the three fighting positions.

A

1- Hasty
2- Improved one man
3- Improved two man

107
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position?

A

Two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing and shelling

108
Q

Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?

A

Natural cover

109
Q

What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?

A

Hit the deck

110
Q

What does “KOCOA” stand for?

A 
K – Key terrain
O – Observation and fields of fire
C – Concealment and Cover
O – Obstacles to movement
A – Avenues of Approach
111
Q

Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.

A

1- When a compass rose appears open the map, place the compass over the magnetic north line
2- Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned
3- For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line

112
Q

What does “BAMCIS” stand for?

A 
B – Begin planning
A – Arrange recon
M – Make recon
C – Complete the plan
I – Issue the order
S - Supervise
113
Q

What does “SMEAC” stand for?

A 
S – Situation
M – Mission
E – Execution
A – Admin and Logistics
C – Command and Signal
114
Q

What are the three sub-paragraphs of the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order?

A

1- Enemy forces
2- Friendly Forces
3- Attachments and detachments

115
Q

When is a “SALUTE” report used?

A

When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat

  • Situation
  • Activity
  • Location
  • Unit
  • Time
  • Equipment
116
Q

What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?

A

Information gathering

117
Q

What are three considerations when creating a fire plan?

A 
1-	Sectors or zones of fire
2-	Individual fighting positions
3-	Crew served weapons
4-	Rifleman positions
5-	Terrain features
6-	Fire team leader
118
Q

What are the two types of fire limits?

A

Lateral and Foward

119
Q

Name the four types of fire team formations.

A

1- Column
2- Wedge
3- Skirmishes (right and left)
4- Echelon (right and left)

120
Q

How many Articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?

121
Q

What are the four THREATCON levels.

A
  • Alpha
  • Bravo
  • Charlie
  • Delta
122
Q

Describe Challenge and Reply.

A

Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation

123
Q

What are three types of wire entanglements?

A

1- Tactical
2- Protective
3- Supplementary

124
Q

Is arrest or apprehension a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized?

125
Q

What are the three types of waterborne security zones?

A

1- Assessment
2- Warning
3- Threat

126
Q

List four things addressed by an effective ATFP plan.

A
  • Concept of Operations
  • Preplanned responses
  • Tactics
  • Crisis management procedures
  • Consequence management procedures
  • Baseline security posture
  • Measures to increase security posture
  • Reporting Procedures
  • Command and control procedures
127
Q

Name the five types of waterborne threats.

A 
1-	Small boats
2-	Deep Draft boats
3-	Subsurface 
4-	Swimmer
5-	Floating Mines
128
Q

What actions are taken when Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level three is attained?

A

Warning shots from crew serve weapons are fired across bow of contact of interest (COI)

129
Q

True or False: When engaging a hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain.

130
Q

What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne High Value Asset (HVA)?

A

500 meters

131
Q

Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location?

A
  • UN Restrictions
  • Geography
  • Threat Areas
  • Capabilities of US Security forces
  • Proximity of targets
132
Q

What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?

A

To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible

133
Q

What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone?

A

Two (minimum) / four (ideal)

134
Q

Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?

A

Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organiations

135
Q

What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)?

A

To ensure the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas

136
Q

Chemical Warfare is broken into what two categories?

A
  • Chemical agents

- Chemical compounds

137
Q

Biological Warfare is the use of what biological agents?

A
  • Pathogens

- Toxins

138
Q

Do we have any detection equipment for Biological Warfare?

139
Q

What are the signs or indictors for Biological Warfare?

A

Dead bodies, animals, and vegetation

140
Q

True or False. Radiological Warfare is when radiation (nuclear Bomb) is used as a weapon.

141
Q

What is MCU-2/P?

A

Chemical Gas Mask

142
Q

What does JSLIST stands for?

A

Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit technology

143
Q

Explain all the MOPP levels?

A 
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or to the ready
MOPP I – Overgarment
MOPP II – Over Boots
MOPPIII – Mask and Hood
MOPPIV – Close hood and gloves
144
Q

Explain all the MOPP levels?

A 
MOPP 0 – Everything within sight or to the ready
MOPP I – Overgarment
MOPP II – Over Boots
MOPPIII – Mask and Hood
MOPPIV – Close hood and gloves
145
Q

When the suit is removed from the package in uncontaminated area, how days and/or how many washes ever comes first.

A

45 days or 6 washes

146
Q

What are the three types of decontaminations?

A

1- Immediate
2- Operational
3- Thorough

147
Q

What color does the M-9 paper turn when it comes in contact with a liquid chemical agent?

A

Colors of RED

148
Q

What does NAAK stands for and what are the contents of the kit?

A

Nerve Agent Antidote Kit and Atropine/2-PAM Chloride injectors

149
Q

What is the color and markings on a NATO CBR marker signs for Biological?

A

Blue and red marking BIO

150
Q

What equipment reads the DT-60 personnel dosimeter?

A

Portable Equipment CP-95

151
Q

What are radiations measured in?

152
Q

What does the acronym COSAL stand for?

A

Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List

153
Q

What does the acronym COSBAL stand for?

A

Consolidated Shore-based Allowance List

154
Q

What does COSAL/COSBAL provide?

A

A list of every piece of equipment, part or item on ship or shore. The COSAL/COSBAL is a technical document because it provides the:

  • nomenclature
  • operating characteristics
  • technical manuals
  • specifications
  • parts lists
  • technical data for installed equipment and machinery
  • equipage and tools required to operate and maintain the ship and its equipment.
155
Q

What doe the acronym MOV stand for?

A

Material Obligation Validation (MOV) Program

156
Q

What are the two components of the operating target (OPTAR)?

A

1- Repairable

2- Consumable

157
Q

What does the acronym DRMO stand for?

A

Defense Reutilization Marketing Office

158
Q

What is DD Form 1348-6?

A

Standard MILSTRIP requisitioning form used when automated supply requisitioning is not available

159
Q

What is the alternate form of DD Form 1348-6?

A

DD Form 1250-2

160
Q

What does it mean for item to be Remain In Place (RIP)?

A

The current part stays in place until the new part arrives. Removing a RIP item could don a part or system completely

161
Q

What form is used to report lost, stolen, damaged or unserviceable items?

162
Q

What is an NSN?

A

National Stock Number. Used to identify a repairable or consumable item

163
Q

Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more is considered minor property?

164
Q

What is the unit cost of minor property?

A

Between $2500 and $100,000

165
Q

Is a printer, copier or television considered plant or minor property items?

A

Minor Property Items

166
Q

Discuss the Depot Level Repairables (DLR) program.

A

High priced parts that can be turned in for repair or refurbishment for another’s use.

167
Q

What does the acronym NRFI stand for?

A

Not Ready For Issue

168
Q

What form is used as a Requisition and Invoice/Shipping document?

A

DD Form 1149

169
Q

Max effective range and max range of M4

A

500m individual point targets
600m area target
3600m max range

170
Q

M4 rate of fire

A

Semi - 45 rpm
Auto - 90 rpm
Sustained rate of fire - 12-15 rpm

171
Q

M240 Machine Gun Specs

A 
7.62mm
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Link-Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire
172
Q

M240 rate of fires

A

Cyclic - 650-950 rounds per minute
Sustained - 100 rounds per minute
Rapid - 200 rounds per minute (2-3 second bursts)
-Change barrel every 2 minutes

173
Q

Max ranges of M240

A

Max effective point - 800m with M122A1 tripod
Max effective area - 1,800m with M122A1 tripod
Max range - 3,725m

174
Q

MK46 Machine Gun Specs

A 
5.56mm
Fire Team AW
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire
175
Q

MK46 rate of fire

A

Cyclic - 750 rounds per minute
Sustained - 85 rounds per minute (3-5 sec on /4-5 sec off)
Rapid - 100 rounds per minute (8-10 rnd burst / 2-3 seconds off)

176
Q

Max ranges of MK46

A

Max effective - 800m

Max range - 1,800m

177
Q

MK48 Machine Gun Specs

A 
7.62mm
Fire Team AW
Gas Operated
Air-Cooled
Belt Fed
Fully Automatic Fire

EXW (12 decks)

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