Blood - Level 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology of DIC?

A

o Widespread activation of coagulation pathways
 From release of procoagulants, formation of intravascular thrombi (fibrin)
 Depletion of platelets and coagulation factors
• Then increased risk of bleeding

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2
Q

Causes of DIC?

A
o	Malignancy – leukaemia
o	Sepsis
o	Trauma
o	Obstetric events – placental abruption, eclampsia, HELLP
o	Incompatible blood transfusion
o	Transplant rejection
o	Pancreatitis
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3
Q

Signs of DIC?

A

o Bruising
o Bleeding from at least 3 unrelated sites
o Renal failure – oliguria
o Hypotension
o ARDS
o In chronic/subacute – thrombotic events may dominate - VTE

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4
Q

Bloods in DIC?

A

o FBC – low platelets
o Clotting – raised PT and APTT, low fibrinogen
o Raised D-dimer

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5
Q

Blood films in DIC?

A

o Broken RBCs (fragments, paucity of platelets, schistocytes)

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6
Q

What is DIC scoring system?

A

o Measures platelets, D-dimer, PT, fibrinogen
 5 or more – overt DIC – repeat daily
 <5 – non-overt DIC – repeat net 1-2 days

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7
Q

Management of DIC - if low risk of bleeding?

A

o Treat cause

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8
Q

Management of DIC - if high risk of bleeding?

A

o Treat underlying cause
o Replace platelets
o FFP
 2nd line - Cryoprecipitate to replace fibrinogen
o Activated Protein C – severe sepsis and multi-organ failure

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9
Q

Management of DIC - if dominant thrombotic signs?

A

o Unfractionated Heparin may be used – controversial

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10
Q

Complications of DIC?

A

o Haemorrhage
o Acute renal failure
o Gangrene and loss of digits

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11
Q

Definition of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Inherited (autosomal recessive) blood disorder in which red blood cells develop abnormally
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12
Q

PAthology of sickle cell disease?

A

o Mutation in 17th nucleotide of Beta-globin gene changed from thymine to adenine and glutamic acid replaced by valine at position 6 in beta globin chain
o Abnormal beta-globin chain that causes it to polymerize when deoxygenated, which distorts the erythrocyte into a sickle shape
o Deformed erythrocytes form clusters which block blood vessels – damage large and small vessels, sequestered in liver and spleen and cause anaemia, intense pain and infections

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13
Q

What is sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait?

A
  • Sickle cell disease
    o Inherit HbS haemoglobin and gene for abnormal haemoglobin variant from other parent (homozygous HbSS, HbSC)
  • Sickle cell trait
    o Inherit HbS haemoglobin and normal HbA haemoglobin (HbAS)
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14
Q

Epidemiology of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Most common haemoglobinopathies
  • 1 in every 2000 live births in England, and it is now the most common genetic condition at birth
  • Highest prevalence of sickle cell disease is among Black African and Black Caribbean people
  • Mortality rate 3% in childhood
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15
Q

Inheritance of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Genetic, autosomal recessive – can be carrier or homogenous
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16
Q

Symptoms of sickle cell disease?

A

Moderate anaemia, pallor, lethargy, growth restriction with jaundice

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17
Q

Acute crises symptoms of sickle cell disease?

A

Increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms (pneumococci, haemophilus influenzae, OSTEOMYELITIS due to Salmonella )
Acute painful Crisis
- Precipitated by cold, dehydration, excessive exercise/stress, hypoxia or infection
- Pain affecting many organs
- Dactylitis with swelling in hands/feet
- Commonest in limbs and spine
Acute chest syndrome
o Severe hypoxia, need ventilation and transfusion
Avascular necrosis
Acute anaemic crises
Priapism
Acute renal impairment
Acute stroke, hemiparesis, speech problems, seizures
Splenomegaly

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18
Q

Investigations in sickle cell disease?

A
Blood Tests
o	FBC, reticulocyte count
-
Blood film
o	Sickling of red cells

Hb electrophoresis (HPLC)= definitive test

Baseline tests
- U&E, LFT, lung function tests

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19
Q

When to admit acute crisis in sickle cell disease?

A
  • Admission if clinical features of sickle cell crisis and raised temperature
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20
Q

Management of acute crisis in sickle cell disease?

A

Analgesia within 30 minutes of presentation and monitor
 Bolus morphine if severe pain
• Weak opioid if moderate pain

Offer laxative, anti-emetic and antipruritic

Regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in addition

Monitor BP, HR, O2, RR, temperature regularly

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21
Q

Management of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?

A

o Oxygen
o CPAP
o IV antibiotics

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22
Q

Management of priapism in acute crisis of sickle cell disease?

A

o Hydration
o Analgesia
o Aspiration and irrigation of corpora cavernosa with adrenaline if prolonged

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23
Q

Management at home if person well with mild pain and no increased temperature - what management measures?

A

o Avoid other triggers such as cold weather and excessive physical activity.
o Use distraction techniques, such as games, computers, and television
o Increase fluid intake (150% IV or oral)
o Prescribe paracetamol and/or ibuprofen (avoid ibuprofen if the person has renal impairment or significant proteinuria). Add codeine phosphate if these are not effective
o Urgent assessment in hospital if not controlled by these measures

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24
Q

When to screen for sickle cell disease?

A
  • All newborn infant – Guthrie test
  • Pregnant women -in high prevalence areas and low prevalence areas if high risk in Family Origins Questionnaire (FOQ)
  • High-risk groups undergoing anaesthesia
  • Women investigated for infertility
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25
Q

What vaccine to offer children with sickle cell disease?

A

 Up to date with all immunisations
 Pneumococcal vaccine at 2 and then every 5 years
 Annual influenza vaccine
 HepB vaccine at 12, 13 and 18 months
 Men ACWY if travelling to high risk area

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26
Q

What vaccine to offer adults with sickle cell disease?

A

 PPV every5 years
 HepB on 0, 1 and 6 month schedule
 Men ACWY if travelling to high risk area

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27
Q

When to offer antibiotics and folic acid in sickle cell disease?

A
  • Antibiotics
    o By 3 months of age:
     Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin)
  • Oral folic acid to all 400mcg OD (5mg if pregnant/conceiving)
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28
Q

Chronic management of pain in sickle cell disease?

A

o Determine cause
o Refer to orthopaedic surgeon if persistent for MRI
o Regular medium/long-acting opiates and PRN for breakthrough
o NSAIDs
o CBT

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29
Q

Other chronic management in sickle cell disease?

A
  • Smoking Cessation
  • Yearly ophthalmology review and paediatric review
    o If pulmonary hypertension – annual Echo
  • Managing minor priaprism:
    o Empty bladder before sleep, jogging, warm baths, analgesia
    o If >3 hours – hospital admission
  • Nocturnal Enuresis
    o General advice
     Ensure easy access to toilet, empty bladder just before sleep, reward system
    o Oral/Nasal desmopressin for short-term
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30
Q

Advice to give people with sickle cell traits?

A
  • Very rarely have symptoms
  • Avoid high altitudes, such as travelling in an unpressurized aircraft
  • Inform anaesthetist of sickle cell carriers
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31
Q

Secondary care management in sickle cell disease?

A
  • Hydroxycarbamide in patients with severe disease

- Blood transfusion

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32
Q

Follow up in sickle cell disease?

A

Every 3 months for 1st 2 years then every 6 months til 5 then annually

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33
Q

Complications of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Chronic pain
  • Chronic anaemia
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Epilepsy
  • Short stature and delayed puberty
  • Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
  • Cardiac enlargement and heart failure
  • Renal dysfunction
  • Pigment Gallstones
  • In pregnancy:
    o Miscarriage, premature labour, pre-eclampsia, stillbirth, IUGR, death
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34
Q

Prognosis of sickle cell disease?

A
  • Depends on degree of sickle cell disease
    o 90% of people survive past 20
  • Stem cell transplant only potentially curative treatment
    o Given if <17 with sickle brain disease which does nto response to hydroxycarbamide or severe sickle cell disease complications which does not respond to hydroxycarbamide
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35
Q

Description of haemophilia A & B?

A
  • X-linked recessive blood disorder
  • Haemophilia A = Factor VIII deficiency (most common)
  • Haemophilia B = Factor IX deficiency
  • Usually carrier females and affected males
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36
Q

Inheritance of haemophilia A & B?

A
  • Most common inherited coagulation disorder
    o Haemophilia A – 1 in 5000 live male births
    o Haemophilia B - 1 in 30000 live male births
  • Males affected more common
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37
Q

Symptoms of haemophilia A & B?

A
  • Most present towards end of first year of life

- Can present in neonatal period with intracranial haemorrhage, bleeding post-circumcision, oozing heel prick

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38
Q

Grading of haemophilia A & B?

A

o Severe: Spontaneous joint/muscle bleeds, arthropathy/arthritis, haematomas
o Moderate: Bleed after minor trauma
o Mild: Bleed after surgery

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39
Q

Investigations of haemophilia A & B?

A
  • FBC
  • Blood film
  • Clotting tests
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40
Q

What clotting tests performed in haemophilia A & B?

A
Prothrombin Time (PT)
	Tests extrinsic system and expressed as INR, for abnormalities in Factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 10
	Prolonged by warfarin, vitK deficiency, liver disease, DIC

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
 Tests intrinsic system, for abnormalities in Factor 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
 Prolonged by heparin, haemophilia, DIC and liver disease

Thrombin Time
 Prolonged by heparin, DIC, dysfibrinogenaemia

D-Dimers
 Fibrin degradation product, released during fibrinolysis
 Occurs in DIC, DVT/PE but also malignancy and infection

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41
Q

Other tests to perform in haemophilia A&B?

A
  • Factor 8 & 9 assays

o Diagnose by increased APTT and decreased FVIII/IX assay

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42
Q

Criteria for severity in haemophilia A&B?

A

o Mild – Factor levels of >0.05 but <0.40 IU/mL
o Moderate – Factor 0.01-0.05 IU/mL
o Severe – Factor <0.01 IU/mL

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43
Q

Management of Haemophilia A&B - prophylaxis, minor bleeds, major bleeds?

A
  • Prophylaxis
    o Infusions of Factor VIII/IX to prevent bleeding
  • Minor bleeds
    o Pressure and elevation
    o Desmopressin raises Factor VIII
  • Major bleeds
    o Resuscitation
    o Discuss need FFP and platelets with haematologist
    o Recombinant Factor VIII/IX concentrate IVI
     Home treatment can be taught
     To 50% of normal (life-threatening bleeds need levels of 100%)
  • Avoid IM injections, NSAIDs and aspirin
  • MDT approach , specialised physio to strengthen muscles and limit damage, psychosocial support and self-help groups
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44
Q

Complications of haemophilia?

A
  • Inhibitors (antibodies to Factor VIII/IX)
    o Reduce or inhibit effect of treatment
  • Transfusion transmitted infections
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45
Q

Physiology of haemoglobin?

A
  • Most haemoglobin have two α chains and two other identical types
  • HbA, the most common form of adult haemoglobin, has two α and two β chains
  • Fetal haemoglobin (HbF) has two α and two γ components
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46
Q

Description of thalassaemia?

A
  • Autosomal recessive condition characterised by decreased or absence of synthesis of one of the two polypeptide chains (α or β)
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47
Q

Types of thalassaemia?

A

o α-thalassaemia: reduced rate of α-chain synthesis.
 Two alpha-genes on c16

o β-thalassaemia: reduced rate of β-chain synthesis
 Due to lack of β-chain synthesis there is ↑ γ-chain synthesis beyond neonatal period ⇒ to more HbF and more HbA2 due to ↑ α-chain synthesis
 Disease severity determined by levels of residual HbA and HbF
 One B-globin gene on c11

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48
Q

Effects of thalassaemia?

A
  • This precipitates in the RBC membrane bringing cell death within the bone marrow (ineffective erythropoiesis) and premature removal of red cells by spleen
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49
Q

Epidemiology of thalassaemia?

A
  • β-thalassaemia
    o Most common in Mediterranean and Middle east
  • A-thalassaemia
    o South-east Asian origin
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50
Q

Types of B-thalassaemia?

A

o β-thalassaemia major
 Most severe, HbA (α2β2) cannot be produced

o β-thalassaemia intermedia
 Milder, mutation allows small amount of HbA and large amount of HbF to be produced

o β-thalassaemia trait
 Heterozygotes usually asymptomatic, anaemia mild and red cells hypochromic and microcytic
 Normal ferritin which distinguishes from iron deficiency anaemia

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51
Q

Types of A-thalassaemia?

A

o A-thalassaemia major (Barts hydrops fetalis)
 Caused by deletion of all 4 A-globin chains so no HbA
 Presents in mid-trimester with fetal hydrops (oedema and ascites) which is usually fatal
 Need monthly transfusion intrauterine and after birth, usually fatal after birth

o A-thalassaemia HbH disease
 Only 3 a-globin chains genes deleted
 Mild-moderate anaemia but may need transfusions regularly

o A-thalassaemia trait
 Deletion of 1 or 2 a-globin chains
 Usually asymptomatic or mild anaemia – red cells microcytic, hypochromic

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52
Q

Symptoms of B-thalassaemia?

A

o Severe anaemia (hypochromic, microcytic cells) (transfusion dependent from 3-6 months), jaundice
o Failure to thrive
o Hepatosplenomegaly, bone marrow expansion, maxillary overgrowth
o Osteopenia, frontal bossing, skull x-ray shows ‘hair on end’ sign

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53
Q

Symptoms of A-thalassaemia?

A

o Major needs often transfusions and fatal in utero
o HbH
 Moderate anaemia and features of haemolysis
 Hepatosplenomegaly, leg ulcers, jaundice
o Alpha-thalassaemia trait
 Mild anaemia and low RBC

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54
Q

Investigations in thalassaemia?

A
o	FBC (microcytic, hypochromic anaemia), MCV (reduced)
o	Blood film
o	Iron (raised)
o	Hb electrophoresis - HbA2, HbF
o	Prenatal diagnosis offered
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55
Q

Imaging in thalassaemia?

A

o Skull XR – hair on end appearance, maxillary overgrowth, frontal bossing
o MRI used to monitor complications

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56
Q

Screening of thalassaemia?

A

o Pre-conceptual testing for haemoglobinopathies in at-risk groups
 Family origin questionnaire

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57
Q

Management of thalassaemia?

A

o Promote fitness and healthy diet, folate supplements
o Regular blood transfusions to keep Hb >90
o Iron chelators (SC desferrioxamine/desferasirox)
o Splenectomy if hypersplenism persists and preferably >5 years old
o Bone marrow transplant only cure (reserved for HLA identical siblings)

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58
Q

Management during pregnancy in thalassaemia?

A

o Discontinue iron chelators 3 months before conception
o Folic Acid 5mg
o Serial biometry scans every 4 weeks from 24w-gestation

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59
Q

Complications of thalassaemia?

A
  • Regular blood transfusions causes iron overload
    o Cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, diabetes, infertility
    o Need iron chelators
  • Hypogonadism
  • DM
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypoparathyroidism
60
Q

Description of thrombophilia?

A
  • Inherited or acquired coagulopathy predisposing to thrombosis, usually venous (DVT/PE)
61
Q

What is the most common thrombophilia?

A
  • Factor 5 Leiden most common heritable thrombophilia in Caucasians
62
Q

Inherited causes of thrombophilia?

A

 Activated Protein C(APC) resistance/Factor V Leiden
• Associated with single point mutation in Factor V, so clotting factor not broken down by activated protein C
• Risk of DVT/Pe 5x more in heterozygous &; 50x in homozygous

 Prothrombin gene mutation
• Causes high prothrombin levels and increased thrombosis due to down-regulated fibrinolysis by thrombin-activated fibrinolysis inhibitor

 Protein C & S deficiency
• These Vitamin-K dependent factors act to cleave and neutralise Factors 5 & 8

 Antithrombin Deficiency
• Co-factor of heparin and inhibits thrombin

63
Q

Acquired causes of thrombophilia?

A

3rd gen progesterones

Antiphospholipid syndrome
• Serum antiphospholipids found (lupus anticoagulant + anticardiolipin antibody)

Polycythaemia

64
Q

Risk factors for thrombosis?

A

o Arterial
 Smoking, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, DM

o Venous
 Surgery, trauma, immobility, pregnancy, OCP, age, obesity, varicose veins, HF, malignancy, IBD, nephrotic syndrome, PNH

65
Q

Symptoms and signs of thrombophilia?

A
  • Strong FHx of VTE
  • Spontaneous VTE
  • VTE at young age
  • Unusual site of VTE
  • Recurrent VTE
  • Recurrent miscarriage
66
Q

Indications for thrombophilia screening?

A

 <40 with spontaneous VTE
 Patient <60 with Hx of VTE and FHx of VTE/thrombophilia
 Patients <60 with unusual site VTE (sagittal sinus, axillary, mesenteric, subclavian)
 Hx of recurrent miscarriage
 Skin necrosis following warfarin
 Arterial thrombosis (TIA, MI, CVA) <40

67
Q

When to offer thrombophilia testing after VTE?

A
  • For antiphospholipid antibodies if unprovoked DVT/PE planned to stop anticoagulation
  • For hereditary thrombophilia if unprovoked DVT/PE and 1st degree relative with DVT/PR if planned to stop anticoagulation
68
Q

Thrombophilia screening tests include?

A

 FBC, film, clotting screen
 Activated protein C resistance
• If APC positive – Factor V leiden mutation and prothrombin
 Protein C, S
 Antithrombin
 Lupus anticoagulant – antocardiolipin antibodies

69
Q

When to test thrombophilia screening tests?

A

 Well, not pregnant and not anticoagulated for 1 month

70
Q

Management in thrombophilia? What to give in APS in pregnancy?

A
  • Treat acute VTE as per DVT/PE management
  • If recurrent spontaneous VTEs - Lifelong warfarin with target 2-3
  • Minimise risk - Stop smoking, low BP, adequate hydration, lower cholesterol
  • Avoid oestrogen-containing OCP
  • In pregnancy – aspiring 75mg for antiphospholipid syndrome
71
Q

Definition of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Decreased numbers of platelets in blood
  • Reduces ability to clot and higher bleeding
  • Defined = <150x109/L
72
Q

Causes of thrombocytopenia?

A

o Decreased platelet production:
 Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fanconi’s anaemia
 Viral – EBV, HIV, Malaria, TB, CMV, VZV
 Aplastic anaemia
 Drugs – heparin, digoxin, quinine, anti-epileptics, antipsychotics
 Alcohol
 Malignancy – metastases, leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma
 B12/Folate deficiency

o Decreased platelet survival:
 ITP/TTP/SLE/HUS/DIC
 Heparin-induced

o Dilutional thrombocytopenia:
 Large volume transfusion

73
Q

Symptoms and signs of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • Spontaneous cutaneous purpura
  • Mucousal bleeding
  • Nose bleeds
  • Menorrhagia
  • Post-partum haemorrhage
74
Q

Investigations of thrombocytopenia?

A
-	Blood
o	FBC and blood film, B12 and folate
	Repeat FBC with blood film if platelet low
o	Clotting
o	U&amp;E
o	LFT
o	If virus – viral serology
75
Q

Management of thrombocytopenia in primary care?

A

o Repeat with blood film

o If <20x109:
 Urgent same day assessment

o If <50x109:
 Urgent outpatient referral

o If 50-100x109:
 Refer if persists >4-6 weeks and unexplained

o If 100-150x109:
 Repeat monthly & refer if progressive

76
Q

When to give platelet transfusion in thrombocytopenia?

A

o Clinically significant bleeding and platelet count <30x109/L
o Higher platelet threshold if severe bleeding or critical sites (CNS, eyes)
o Prophylactic before surgery if <50x109/L

77
Q

Causes of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy?

A

o Causes: gestational, ITP, TTP, pre-eclampsia, HELLP, others in causes

78
Q

Definition of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • Most common acquired childhood bleeding disorder
  • Caused by destruction of circulating platelets by anti-platelet IgG autoantibodies
  • Reduced platelets associated with compensatory increase in megakaryocytes
79
Q

Epidemiology of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • Incidence 4 per 100,000 children per year

- Often presents between 2-10 years old

80
Q

Risk factors of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • May follow CMV, EBV, parvovirus, VZV or vaccination
81
Q

Symptoms and signs of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • Onset after 1-2 weeks of viral infection
  • Develop petechial, purpuric rash and bruising
  • Can cause epistaxis or mucosal bleeding but usually not significant in ITP
  • Intracranial bleeding occurs in 0.1-0.5%
82
Q

Investigations of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
-	Blood film
o	Isolated thrombocytopenia
-	Blood tests
o	FBC, U&amp;E, LFTs
-	Bone marrow examination needed:
o	Unusual signs (lymphadenopathy, abnormal cells on blood film)
o	Platelet count not rising
-	CT if headache or CNS signs
83
Q

Management of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
  • Gradual resolution over 3 months for 80%
  • Chronic form compatible with normal life but avoid contact sports
  • Oral prednisolone, IV anti-D or immunoglobulin but only if needed!
  • Admit if:
    o Unusual features (bleeding excessively)
    o Life threatening bleeding requires platelet transfusion
    o Romiplostim, Eltrombopag & Rituximab reduces need for splenectomy
    o Splenectomy for chronic ITP
84
Q

Physiology of cell development?

A
  • Bone marrow is responsible for haemopoiesis – usually in central skeleton (vertebrae, sternum, ribs, skull) and proximal long bones
  • Pluripotent Stem Cells develop depending on growth factors applied to them:
    o 1st differentiate into lymphoid or myeloid stem cells
     Lymphoid stem cells – develop into B, T or NK lymphocytes
     Myeloid stem cells -develop into erythrocytes, platelets, basophils, monocytes/macrophages, eosinophils and polymorphonuclear leukocytes
85
Q

Survival times of RBCs, platelets, neutrophils?

A

o Red cells – 120 days
o Platelets – 8 days
o Neutrophils - 1-2 days

86
Q

Definition of pancytopenia?

A

o Reduction in all major cell lines – red cells, white cells and platelets

87
Q

Inherited causes of pancytopenia?

A

 Fanconi’s anaemia

 Diamond-Blackfan anaemia

88
Q

Acquired causes of pancytopenia - reduced bone marrow production?

A
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Infiltration (acute leukaemia, myelodysplasia, myeloma, lymphoma, solid tumours, TB)
  • Chemotherapy
  • Ionising radiation
  • Megaloblastic anaemia
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
  • Myelofibrosis
  • SLE
  • Virus – CMV, EBV, HIV
89
Q

Acquired causes of pancytopenia - increased peripheral destruction?

A
  • Hypersplenism
  • Liver disease
  • Drugs - Steroids, NSAIDs, allopurinol, anti-thyroid medications, chloramphenicol, gold
90
Q

Symptoms and signs of pancytopenia?

A
  • Anaemia
    o Tiredness, weakness, pallor, SOB, tachycardia
  • Neutropenia
    o Recurrent or severe infections
  • Thrombocytopenia
    o If <50x109/L – traumatic bleeds, purpura and easy bruising occur
    o If <20x109/L – spontaneous bleeding occurs
91
Q

Initial testing in pancytopenia?

A
FBC
	Normocytic, normochromic anaemia
	Low platelets
	Neutropenia
Blood Film
92
Q

Further testing in pancytopenia?

A
o	Other bloods:
	U&amp;Es
	LFTs
	CRP
	B12 and folate
	Viral Serology
	Autoimmune profile
o	Bone Marrow Biopsy
	Diagnostic information and staging test in lymphoproliferative disorders
	Take aspirate and trephine from posterior iliac crest
•	Cytogenics and immunophenotyping
93
Q

Imaging in pancytopenia?

A

o Abdominal US
o MRI
o PET scans

94
Q

Definitive treatment in pancytopenia?

A

o Bone marrow transplant

95
Q

Transfusions in pancytopenia - red cell transfusion?

A

 1U raises Hb by 10-15g/L

 Transfusion may drop the platelet count so may need to give platelets before/after

96
Q

Transfusions in pancytopenia - platelets?

A

 Platelets stored at room temperature and must be ABO compatible
 If marrow transplant or immunosuppressed then need irradiation to prevent GVHD
 Indications for platelets:
• Platelets <10x109/L
• Haemorrhage (DIC)
• Before invasive procedures (biopsy, LP) to increase platelets to >50x109/L
• 4U of platelets raises platelets by 40x109/L

97
Q

Transfusions in pancytopenia - neutropenia?

A

 Use neutropenic regimen if <0.5x109/L

98
Q

Definition of neutropenia?

A
-	Definition of <1.5x109/L 
o	Mild 1.5-1
o	Moderate 1-0.5
o	Severe <0.5
-	Neutrophils circulate and defend against bacterial infections
99
Q

Causes of neutropenia?

A

o Severe congenital neutropenia and cyclic neutropenia
o Viral infections – HIV, hepatitis, RSV, measles, parvovirus, EBV, CMV
o Bacterial infections – sepsis, typhoid, brucellosis, malaria, leishmania
o Drugs – post-chemo, cytotoxic agents, carbimazole, sulphonamides
o SLE, haemolytic anaemias
o Hypersplenism
o Bone marrow failure

100
Q

Symptoms of neutropenia?

A
  • Fever, malaise, infection or mouth sores
101
Q

Bloods done in neutropenia?

A
o	FBC
o	U&amp;E
o	LFT
o	CRP
o	Blood film
102
Q

What is MASCC score in neutropenia?

A
-	MASCC score (used to detect risk of septic complications)
o	21 and over = low risk
o	<21 = high risk
	Solid tumour or lymphoma with no previous fungal infection = 4
	Outpatient status at onset of fever = 3
	Age <60 = 2
	Burden of illness
•	Mild = 5
•	Moderate = 3
•	Severe = 0
	No hypotension (>90) = 5
	No COPD = 4
	No dehydration = 3
103
Q

Neutropenic regimen?

A

o Full barrier nursing, side room and hand washing
o Avoid IM injections
o Look for infection and take swabs
o Check – FBC, platelets, INR, U&E, LFT, LDH, CRP and cultures, CXR if indicated
o Wash perineum after defaecation, swab moist skin with chlorhexidine
o Oral hygiene and Candida prophylaxis
o TPR 4-hourly, high-calorie diet

104
Q

MAnagement in severe neutropenia?

A
  • Stop drug immediately (clozapine, antithyroid drugs (thionamides) and sulfasalazine
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis
  • Recombinant G-CSF (Filgrastim/Lenograstim)
    o Promote stem cell proliferation and shorten period of neutropenia
    o Only if very severe, not routinely prescribed
105
Q

Definition of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Patients having cancer treatment with neutrophil count <0.5x109/L with either:
    o Temperature >38O
    o Signs and symptoms of significant sepsis
  • Typically occurs between 7-14 days post chemotherapy
106
Q

Epidemiology of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Increasing incidence as cancer increases in incidence

- 60-70% fever during neutropenia treated as “fever of unknown origin”

107
Q

Risk factors of neutropenic sepsis?

A

o Inpatient chemo regimens
o Prior chemo and immunosuppression
o Abnormal LFTs
o Reduced eGFR

108
Q

Pathogens in neutropenic sepsis?

A
o	Bacteria
	Gram positive organisms (70%)
•	S.Aureus
•	Coagulase-negative staphylococcus
•	Alpha and Beta haemolytic streptococcus
	Gram negative organisms (30%)
•	E.coli
•	Klebsiella pneumoniae
•	Pseudomonas aeruginosa

o Fungi
 Candida, Aspergillus, PCP

109
Q

Signs of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Signs of sepsis in neutropenic patients:
    o Temperature >38o
    o HR > 90
    o RR > 20
    o New-onset confusion or drowsiness.
    o WBC counts greater than 12 x 109/L or less than 4.0 x 109/L
    o Blood glucose greater than 7.7 mmol/L (in a non-diabetic person)
    o Septic Shock
     Hypoperfusion, hypotension
    o Bacteremia
110
Q

History consistent with neutropenic sepsis?

A

o Chemo drugs & timing, line & access
o Previous episodes
o Localising symptoms – SOURCE?
o Allergies

111
Q

Investigations of neutropenic sepsis?

A

o Refer anyone that feels unwell and is neutropenic/anticancer treatment

o	BUFALO SEPSIS 6 WITHIN 1 HOUR
	Bloods
•	FBC, LFT, U&amp;E, CRP, lactate
•	Blood culture (x2 (Aerobes, anaerobes), Line &amp; 2 peripheral sets if no line)
	Urine analysis and culture
	Fluids
	Abx
	Oxygen
o	Other
	Swabs
	Sputum culture
	Stool analysis and culture
	CXR, if respiratory symptoms
112
Q

Management of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Broad spectrum IV antibiotics (as per local guidelines, Tazocin)
    o Given within 1 hour of admission to hospital in suspected cases
  • Assess Risk of Septic Complications
    o MASCC index
     Low risk (21 and over) – outpatient antibiotics – switch from IV to oral after 48 hours
     High risk (<21) – daily review of patient and reassessment of MASCC
    o Modified Alexander Rule for children
  • G-CSF (Filgrastim/Lenograstim)
    o Promote stem cell proliferation and shorten period of neutropenia
    o Only if very severe, not routinely prescribed
113
Q

Malignant indications for bone marrow replacement?

A
o	AML
o	CML
o	ALL
o	HL
o	NHL
o	Neuroblastoma
o	Ewing sarcoma
o	Multiple myeloma
o	Myelodysplastic syndromes
o	Gliomas
114
Q

Non-malignant indications for bone marrow replacement?

A
o	Thalassaemia
o	Sickle cell anaemia
o	Aplastic anaemia
o	Fanconi anaemia
o	Mucopolysaccharidosis
115
Q

Types of bone marrow replacement?

A
o	Autologous (patient’s own stem cells)
	Extraction from patient and storage of harvested cells in freezer
o	Allogenic (HLA-matched siblings or matched unrelated donor)
116
Q

Sites of bone marrow replacement?

A

o Bone Marrow – remove through large bone (pelvis) under GA/LA
o Peripheral blood stem cells – apheresis, SC of G-CSF
o Amniotic fluid
o Umbilical cord blood

117
Q

Physiology in cancer of bone marrow replacement?

A

o Destroy cancer cells and immune system by cyclophosphamide + total body irradiation before transplantation
o Repopulation of marrow

118
Q

Complications of bone marrow replacement?

A

o Graft-versus-host disease – new marrow attacking patient’s body
 Ciclosporin and methotrexate used
o Opportunistic infections
o Relapse

119
Q

Definition of leukaemia?

A
  • Cancer of the white blood cells

- Arises from malignant proliferation of myeloid, lymphoid, pre-B or T-cell lymphoid precursors

120
Q

Types of leukaemia?

A

o Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL),
o Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
o Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
o Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
 Acute characterised by rapid increase in number of immature blood cells
 Chronic characterised by build-up of relatively mature but still abnormal white blood cells
 Lymphoblastic/cytic are of lymphocytes, mainly B-cells
 Myeloid are marrow cells that go on to form red blood cells, platelets

121
Q

Epidemiology of leukaemias?

A
  • 25% of all malignancies
  • ALL accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias
  • Incidence highest in white children
  • ALL peak – 2-4 years
  • AML peak - around 60
  • CLL peak – around 50-70
  • CML peak - around 50
122
Q

Aetiology of leukaemia?

A
o	Unknown mostly
o	Genetic components
	Down’s syndrome increased risk
	Philadelphia chromosome occurs in 15-30% - t(9:22) and is associated with poor prognosis (CML)
o	Environmental Factors
	Prenatal exposure to x-rays
	In utero infection
123
Q

Types of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A
o	B-cell ALL
	Early pre-B ALL – 10%
	Common ALL – 50%
	Pre-B ALL – 10%
	Mature B-cell ALL (Burkitt’s leukaemia) – 5%

o T-cell ALL
 Pre-T ALL – 5-10%
 Mature T-cell ALL 15%

124
Q

Associations of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

o Associated with del17p13 mutation

125
Q

Associations of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

 MDS – aplastic anaemia, myelofibrosis, PNH, PCV
 Down’s syndrome
 Chemotherapy

126
Q

Types of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
	AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities
	AML multilineage dysplasia
	AML therapy related
	AML other
	Acute leukaemia of ambiguous lineage
127
Q

Associations in chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

o 90% result from Philadelphia chromosome

128
Q

Symptoms of leukaemia?

A
  • Duration usually 2-4 weeks
  • Symptoms
    o Pancytopenia (pallor, infection, bleeding)
    o Fatigue
    o Anorexia
    o Prolonged or recurrent fever
    o Bone Pain
    o Headaches, nausea & vomiting
    o Failure to thrive
129
Q

Signs of leukaemia?

A

o Painless lumps in neck, axilla, groin – lymphadenopathy
o Anaemia - pallor
o Neutropenia – severe infection
o Thrombocytopenia – petechiae, purpura, bruising
o Hepatosplenomegaly
o Orchidomegaly

130
Q

When to refer in primary care for leukaemias?

A

o Immediate specialist assessment for children with unexplained petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly
o FBC within 48 hours if:
 Pallor
 Persistent fatigue
 Unexplained fever, recurrent infections, bruising, bleeding, petechiae
 Generalised lymphadenopathy
 Hepatosplenomegaly

131
Q

Investigations in leukaemias?

A
  • Bloods
    o FBC (increased WCC, normochromic normocytic anaemia, low platelets)
    o Increased urate and LDH
  • Blood film
    o Blast cells
    o Auer rods – AML diagnostic
  • Bone Marrow biopsy
    o Nucleated cells will be blasts
  • Chest X-ray
  • Cytogenic analysis
  • Risk Classification
    o Low, standard, high risk groups
    o Depends on clinical signs, biologic features of lymphoblasts and response to induction chemotherapy
132
Q

General management of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

 Blood/Platelet transfusion
 IV fluids
 Allopurinol (prevent tumour lysis syndrome)

133
Q

Chemotherapy management of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

 Induction Phase
• 3-drug induction over 4 weeks
• Intrathecal vincristine + prednisolone + daunorubicin + pegaspargase
• Remission in >95%

 Consolidation Phase
• Further chemotherapy over weeks
• Cranial irradiation if CNS signs

 Maintenance Phase
• For 2.5 years daily mercaptopurine, weekly methotrexate + vincristine & prednisolone monthly

 CNS prophylaxis
• Cranial irradiation + intrathecal methotrexate

 Stem cells transplant

134
Q

Prognosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

 Cure rates 70-90%

 Poorer prognosis – Adult, male, Philadelphia chromosome

135
Q

Definition of remission in ALL?

A

o Remission = no evidence of leukaemia in blood and normal/recovering blood count and <5% blast cells

136
Q

Management of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

o Fludarabine + cyclophosphamide + rituximab 1st line
o Venetoclax given
o Radiotherapy helps lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

137
Q

General management of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

 Blood/Platelet transfusion
 IV fluids
 Allopurinol (prevent tumour lysis syndrome)

138
Q

Definitive management of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

o Chemotherapy
 Daunorubicin + cytarabine

o Bone Marrow Transplant
 PSC extracted from BM or allogenic from HLA-matched siblings or unrelated donors
 Indicated during 1st remission in disease with poor prognosis
 Ciclosporin + methotrexate

139
Q

Prognosis of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

 Lower relapse rates of ~60% but mortality of 10%

140
Q

Management of chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

o Tyrosine Kinase inhibitor
 1st line - Imatinib/dasatinib/nilotinib
 2nd line – bosutinib, ponatinib and other 1st lines

o Stem cell transplantation

141
Q

Complications of leukaemias?

A
  • Neutropenic Sepsis
  • Hyperuricaemia
  • Poor growth
  • Cancer elsewhere
  • Relapses
142
Q

Description of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A
Thrombotic microangiopathy presenting with:
-	Microangiopathic haemolysis
-	Thrombocytopenia
-	Neurological abnormalities
-	Fever
-	Renal dysfunction
MEDICAL EMERGENCY
143
Q

Causes of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Deficiency of vWF cleaving protein, also known as ADAMTS1.

144
Q

Investigations of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Blood film - schistocytes

U&E - raised creatinine

LDH raised

Clotting raised

145
Q

Management of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

IV plasma exchange within 4-8 hours

FFP used until exchange possible

Steroids and rituximab used with IV plasma exchange