Blood - Level 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Definitions of anaemia? Men, children, women, pregnant women and postpartum?

A

o In children aged 12–14 years — Hb concentration less than 120 g/L.
o In men (aged over 15 years) — Hb concentration less than 130 g/L.
o In women (aged over 15 years) — Hb concentration less than 120 g/L.
o In women who are pregnant — Hb concentration less than 110 g/L.
 An Hb level of 110 g/L or more appears adequate in the first trimester, a level of 105 g/L appears adequate in the second and third trimesters.
o Postpartum — Hb concentration less than 100 g/L.

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2
Q

Definition of macrocytosis?

A
  • Macrocytosis (MCV >100)

o Usually occurs due to problems with synthesis of RBCs

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3
Q

Physiology, absorption of folate?

Deficiency due to?

A

o Found in green vegetables and offal
o Absorbed in SI and stores last 4 months
o Deficiency by Diet, malabsorption, Leukaemia, heart failure, hepatitis, dialysis, drugs (alcohol, anticonvulsants, methotrexate, sulfasalazine, trimethoprim)

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4
Q

Physiology, absorption of vitamin B12?

Deficiency of B12 due to?

A

o Animal products provide only dietary source
o B12 binds to intrinsic factor secreted by gastric parietal cells and absorbed in terminal ileum
o Transported as transcobalamin and stored in liver with around 2-5 years supply
o Deficiency due to pernicious anaemia, surgery (ileal resection, gastrectomy), HIV, vegans, metformin, PPI, H2RA

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5
Q

Definition of pernicious anaemia?

Epidemiology?

Associated with?

A

o Autoimmune atrophic gastritis leading to achlorhydria and lack of gastric IF
o Usually >40 and women
o Associated with – myxoedema, thyrotoxicosis, Hashimoto’s, Addison’s, vitiligo
o Risk of gastric cancer

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6
Q

Causes of megaloblastic macrocytosis?

A

 B12 deficiency
 Folate deficiency
 Cytotoxic drugs

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7
Q

Causes of non-megaloblastic macrocytosis?

A
	Alcohol
	Reticulocytosis 
	Liver disease
	Hypothyroidism
	Pregnancy
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8
Q

Other causes of megaloblastic macrocytosis?

A

Myelodysplasia, myeloma, aplastic anaemia

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9
Q

Symptoms of anaemia?

A

o Asymptomatic
o Symptoms - SOBOE, fatigue, palpitations, exacerbation of angina, pale
o Signs – pallor, bounding pulse, systolic pulmonary flow murmur

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10
Q

Symptoms of vitamin B12 and folate deficiency?

A
o	Cognitive changes
o	SOB
o	Headache
o	Anorexia
o	Palpitations
o	Tachypnoea
o	Visual disturbance
o	Weakness, lethargy
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11
Q

Signs of B12 and folate deficiency?

A
o	Anorexia
o	Angina
o	Angular stomatitis
o	Glossitis
o	Liver enlargement
o	Mild jaundice
o	Tachycardia
o	Weight loss
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12
Q

Bloods done in macrocytic anaemia?

A

o FBC (Low Hb, high MCV (>100))

o Serum B12 (<200ng/L) - If cobalamin levels low – check serum anti-IF antibodies

o Serum Folate (<3mcg/L) - If folate levels low & malabsorption history – Check anti-endomysial & anti-transglutaminase antibodies

o Other investigations to identify cause:
 LFTs, GGT, TFTs

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13
Q

Blood film findings in macrocytic anaemia?

A

B12 and folate deficiency
• Hypersegmented polymorphs (neutrophil)
o >5% of neutrophils with 5 or more lobes, or 1 or more neutrophils with 6 or more lobes
• Oval macrocytes

Target cells if liver disease

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14
Q

What tests to perform to find cause of macrocytic anaemia?

A

o If low folate – assess dietary folic acid and check antiendomysial or anti-TTG antibodies for coeliac

o If low cobalamin – anti-IF antibodies for pernicious anaemia

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15
Q

When to refer to haematologist in macrocytic anaemia?

A

o Urgent – neurological symptoms, pregnant, malignancy suspected

o Routine – cause of B12 or folate deficiency uncertain following investigations

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16
Q

When to refer to gastroenterologist in macrocytic anaemia?

A

o Suspected malabsorption, pernicious anaemia with GI symptoms, gastric cancer suspected, coeliac disease

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17
Q

Management of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Treat cause

Dietary Advice - Food rich in B12 – eggs, fortified food (breakfast cereals, breads), meat, milk, dairy, salmon, cod

Hydroxocobalamin (B12) 1mg IM 3x a week for 2 weeks (if neurological symptoms - alternate days until no improvement)
 If not diet related – hydroxocobalamin 1mg IM every 3 months for life
 If diet – either oral cyanocobalamin 50-150mcg daily between meals or twice-yearly IM 1mg injection

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18
Q

Management of folate deficiency?

A

Assess underlying cause – poor diet, malabsorption

Dietary Advice - Foods rich in folate – asparagus, broccoli, brown rice, brussel sprouts, chickpeas, peas

Folic acid 5mg/day PO for 4 months (never without B12 unless known normal – worsens SACDC)

In pregnancy
 Prophylactic 400mcg/day given from conception until 12 weeks recommended to all
 5g/day up to 12 weeks – previous/FHx NTD, anti-epileptic meds, DM, SCC, thalassaemia, BMI>30
• SCC, thalassaemia – take throughout pregnancy

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19
Q

Monitoring in macrocytic anaemia?

A

o Within 7-10 days commencing treatment – FBC, reticulocyte count
o 8 weeks – FBC, reticulocyte count, iron and folate levels
o Completion of folic acid treatment – FBC, reticulocyte count
o Cobalamin levels 1-2 months after treatment if no symptom response

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20
Q

Complications of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Paraesthesia, ataxia, progressive symmetrical neuropathy, numbness, memory lapses

Neural tube defects

Sterility

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
 Insidious onset of peripheral neuropathy – symmetrical posterior dorsal column loss causing vibration and proprioception and LMN signs & symmetrical corticospinal tract loss causing motor and UMN signs
 Triad – extensor plantars, absent knee jerk, absent ankle jerk

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21
Q

Complications of folate deficiency?

A

o Prematurity
o CVD and colorectal cancers
o Neural tube defects
o Sterility

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22
Q

Acquired causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A
Immune-mediated and Coomb’s test positive
	Drug-induced
	Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
	Paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria
	Acute transfusion reaction
	Haemolytic disease of newborn
Coombs Negative Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Infection
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
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23
Q

Hereditary causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

o Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
o Pyruvate kinase deficiency
o Hereditary Spherocytosis
o Hereditary elliptocytosis, ovalocytosis – refer to haematology
o Sickle cell disease
o Thalassaemia

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24
Q

Definition of drug-induced haemolytic anaemia?

A

• Formation of RBC autoantibodies from binding to RBC membranes (penicillin) or production of immune complexes (quinine)

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25
Q

Description, classification and management of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

• Autoantibodies causing extravascular haemolysis and spherocytosis
• Classified:
• Warm – IgG-mediated, bind at body temperature, Rx = steroids/immunosuppressants
• Cold – IgM-mediated, bind at low temperature (<4o), often with Raynaud’s or acrocyanosis,
o Rx = keep warm
o May be caused by CLL, lymphoma, drugs, SLE, infection (EBV, mycoplasma)

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26
Q

Description of paroxysmal cold haemoglobulinuria?

A
  • With viruses/syphilis, caused by Donath-Landsteiner antibodies sticking to RBCs in cold
  • Self-limiting complement-mediated haemolysis on rewarming
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27
Q

Description of Rhesus haemolytic disorder?

A

o Usually identified antenatally when woman Rh negative and baby Rh positive
o Presents with anaemia, hydrops, hepatosplenomegaly with rapidly developing jaundice
o Usually anti-D blood group

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28
Q

Description of ABO incompatibility haemolytic disorder?

A

o Now more common than Rhesus incompatibility
o Most ABO antibodies are IgM and do not cross placenta, but some blood group O women have IgG anti-A-haemolysin which haemolyses red blood cells of a group A infant
o Occasionally group B infants affected by anti-B haemolysins
o Can cause jaundice – peaks 12-72 hours
o Anaemia is less severe and no hepatosplenomegaly
o Coombs test positive

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29
Q

Causes of Coombs negative autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

 Autoimmune hepatitis, hepatitis B&C, post vaccinations, drugs (piperacillin, rituximab)

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30
Q

Description of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?

A

 Disruption in RBC circulation, causing intravascular haemolysis and schistocytes
 Causes include HUS, TTP, DIC, pre-eclampsia, eclampsia
 Treat underlying disease, transfusion or plasma exchange may be needed

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31
Q

Description of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

 Stem cell disorder with haemolysis (especially at night – haemoglobinuria), marrow failure + thrombophilia
 Diagnosed – urinary haemosiderin, Harris test positive
 Management – anticoagulation, eculizumab

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32
Q

Description, symptoms and management of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency?

A
	From Mediterranean, Middle-East and Far East
	Males mostly, develop severe jaundice
	Symptoms
•	Most asymptomatic, but get oxidative crisis due to low glutathione production precipitated by drugs (primaquine, sulphonamides, aspirin) or broad beans
•	In crisis – rapid anaemia and jaundice
	Film – bite and blister cells
	Diagnosis – Enzyme assay
	Management – Avoid precipitants, transfuse if severe 
	Drugs need to be avoided
•	Henna
•	Sulfonamides
•	Aspirin
•	Primaquine
•	Broad beans
33
Q

Description of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

 Autosomal recessive low ATP production causes lower RBC survival
 Homozygotes – neonatal jaundice, haemolysis and splenomegaly
 Diagnosis – enzyme assay
 Management – Often none, splenectomy may help

34
Q

Description of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

 Autosomal dominant inheritance with FHx in 75%
 Early, severe jaundice in newborn infants
 May cause anaemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, aplastic crisis and gallstones
 Diagnosed on blood film
 Treatment with folic acid, splenectomy if symptomatic

35
Q

Symptoms and signs of haemolytic anaemia?

A
Anaemia – if longstanding may be asymptomatic but acute crisis causes:
o	Pallor
o	Tachycardia
o	SOB
o	Dizziness
o	Angina
o	Weakness
Jaundice
Gallstones
Dark urine (haemoglobinuria)
Splenomegaly
36
Q

Investigations to perform in haemolytic anaemia? What are the findings?

A
  1. Bloods - FBC (Low Hb, platelets normal usually), reticulocytes, LFTs (bilirubin), LDH, Haptoglobin
  2. Coombs Test - Detects immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
  3. Urinary urobilinogen
  4. Thick and thin blood films
     Hypochromic microcytic cells (thalassaemia)
     Sickle cells (SCD)
     Schistocytes (microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia)
     Abnormal cells in blood cancers
     Spherocytes (hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)
     Heinz bodies, bite cells (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)
37
Q

Further tests to perform in haemolytic anaemia?

A

o Direct antiglobulin test (Coomb’s test) – identifies autoimmune cause as red cells coated with antibody or complement
o RBC lifespan – chromium labelling
o Hb electrophoresis
o Enzyme assays

38
Q

How to approach haemolytic anaemia?

A
Increased red cell breakdown?:
	Anaemia with normal or high MCV
	High bilirubin (unconjugated from haem breakdown – pre-hepatic jaundice)
	High urinary urobilinogen
	High serum LDH (released from RBCs)

Increased red cell production?:
 High reticulocytes causing high MCV (large immature RBCs)
 Polychromasia

Extra or intra-vascular?
 Extravascular – splenomegaly
 Intravascular
• Raised free plasma haemoglobin
• Methaemalbuminaemia (haem combines with albumin)
• Low plasma haptoglobin
• Haemoglobinuria – red-brown urine with no RBCs
• Haemosiderinuria – free Hb filtered by glomeruli (sloughed tubular cells by Prussian staining)

What is the cause?

39
Q

Management of haemolytic anaemias?

A
  • General Measures
    o Folic Acid – if folate deficiency
    o Stop precipitating medications
  • Transfusion
    o Only when necessary
    o Use most compatible blood if transfusions
  • Iron
    o For severe intravascular haemolysis and iron deficient
  • Splenectomy
    o Recommended in hereditary spherocytosis and when other measures failed
40
Q

Definition of lymphoma?

A
  • Malignancy of lymphocytes which can be divided into Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
41
Q

Definition of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

o Group of lymphoproliferative malignancies

o A much greater predilection to disseminate to extranodal sites than in Hodgkin’s lymphoma

42
Q

Definition of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

o Malignant tumour of the lymphatic system that is characterised histologically by the presence of multinucleated giant cells (Reed-Sternberg cells)
o Mirror image nuclei in Reed-Sternburg cells

43
Q

Epidemiology of lymphoma?

A

NHL more common

HL - peak around adolescence

NHL - peak around 50-70

44
Q

Aetiology and risk factors of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

o Aetiology
 Classical HL (95%) – nodular sclerosis, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte rich/depleted
 Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NLPHL)

o Risk Factors
 EBV, HIV, immunosuppression, cigarette smoking

45
Q

Aetiology of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A
Mature (peripheral) B-cell neoplasms
•	Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (30-60%)
•	Mediastinal large B cell
•	Burkitt’s lymphoma
•	Follicular lymphoma (20-25%)
•	MALT lymphoma

Precursor T-cell neoplasms

Mature (peripheral) T-cell neoplasms
• Enteropathy-type T-cell lymphoma
• Peripheral T-cell lymphoma

46
Q

Risk factors of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A
	Chromosomal translocations
	EBV, HepC, Kaposi’s sarcoma
	Pesticides, herbicides, hair dye, chemo
	Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
	H.pylori
47
Q

Symptoms and signs of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

o Painless, large, firm lymphadenopathy
o May cause airway obstruction, SVC obstruction
o Several months
o Systemic B-symptoms
 Sweating, pruritus, night sweats, weight loss, fever

48
Q

Symptoms and signs of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

o Lymphadenopathy
o Skin - Sezary syndrome
o Other sites
 Gastric
 Small Bowel – diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss
 Bone
 CNS
 Lung
o Mediastinal mass with bone marrow infiltration
o Superior vena cava obstruction
o Systemic symptoms (less common than in Hodgkin’s lymphoma)
 Sweating, pruritus, night sweats, weight loss, fever
o Pancytopenia

49
Q

When to refer lymphoma in primary care?

A
  • Hodgkin’s Lymphoma referral in primary care:
    o 2-week cancer referral in adults with unexplained lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly
  • Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma referral from primary care:
    o 2-week cancer referral in adults with unexplained lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly
    o Specialist assessment within 48 hours for children if unexplained lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly
50
Q

Testing in lymphoma?

A
o	Bloods
	FBC, film, ESR, LFT, LDH, urate, Ca
o	Lymph node excision biopsy
o	FISH gene testing if histological high-grade lymphoma
o	CT scan, CXR
o	PET scan staging if:
	Stage 1 diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
	Stage 1/2 follicular lymphoma
	Stage 1/2 Burkitt lymphoma
51
Q

Staging system in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A
o	Ann Arbor system
	Stage 1: single site
	Stage 2: >1 site and on 1 side
	Stage 3: on both sides of diaphragm
	Stage 4: disseminated disease
	Each stage either A (no systemic symptoms other than pruritus) or B (weight loss >10% in 6m, fever >38, night sweats)
52
Q

Staging system in Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

o St. Jude System
 Stage 1: single site or nodal area (not abdomen or mediastinum)
 Stage 2: regional nodes, abdominal
 Stage 3: disease on both sides of diaphragm
 Stage 4: bone marrow or CNS disease

53
Q

Management in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

o Chemotherapy (ABVD) with radiotherapy (if high risk)
 Adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine
o PET scans monitor disease progression
o Pnuemococcal and influenza vaccine
o MenC and Hib vaccine
o Relapsed disease – high-dose chemo and stem cell transplantation

54
Q

Management in Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

o MDT management
o Low Grade
 Follicular, marginal zone, lymphocytic
 If symptomless – watch and wait
 Radiotherapy in local disease
o High grade
 Burkitt’s (characteristic jaw lymphadenopathy), lymphoblastic, diffuse large B-cell
 Chemotherapy (R-CHOP regimen) with radiotherapy
 Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine (oncovin) and prednisolone
 G-CSF helps neutropenia (filgrastim, lenograstim)
o Pnuemococcal and influenza vaccine
o MenC and Hib vaccine

55
Q

Survival rate of lymphoma?

A
  • 5-year survival rate >90% (NHL 70%)
56
Q

Definitions of myeloma?

A

Progressive malignant disease of plasma cells that normally produce immunoglobulin
o Proliferation of abnormal monoclonal immunoglobulins (M proteins) in the blood, referred to as paraproteinaemia
 Genetic changes in terminal differentiation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells (1/2 translocation of oncogene onto heavy chain of chromosome 14)
o Affects multiple organs and systems including bones, kidneys, blood and immune systems

57
Q

What does myeloma evolve from? What is smouldering myeloma?

A
  • Almost all patients evolve from asymptomatic pre-malignant stage called – monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
  • Smouldering myeloma – asymptomatic myeloma with no evidence of myeloma-related organ or tissue injury or event
58
Q

Epidemiology of myeloma?

A
  • Second most common haematological malignancy
  • 2% of cancer related deaths
  • Prevalence increasing
  • Classified according to which immunoglobulin produced - Most commonly IgG (other IgA, IgD, IgM)
59
Q

Risk factors of myeloma?

A

o Men
o Black people, Pacific islanders and Maori
o Increasing age
o FHx

60
Q

Incidental findings seen in myeloma?

A

o Normochromic, normocytic anaemia
o Renal Impairment
o Hypercalcaemia
o Raised ESR, plasma viscosity, serum protein or globulin

61
Q

Suspect multiple myeloma in adults>60 if symptoms?

A

o Unexplained bone pain (often lower back or thoracic)
 Osteolytic bone lesions
o Fatigue
o Hypercalcaemia (bone pain, abdominal pain, depression, confusion, muscle weakness, thirst, polyuria)
o Weight loss
o Hyperviscosity symptoms (headache, visual disturbances, cognitive impairment)
o SCC
o Fever
o Recurrent infections

62
Q

Signs of myeloma?

A

o Hepatomegaly
o Splenomegaly
o Lymphadenopathy

63
Q

When to perform tests in primary care when suspecting myeloma?

A

> 60 with persistent bone pain (particularly back) or unexplained fracture:
 FBC, Ca, ESR and plasma viscosity

If possible myeloma & >60 with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia/raised plasma viscosity and ESR
 Very urgent protein electrophoresis and Bence-Jones protein urine test (within 48 hours)

 Consider – peripheral blood film, U&E, X-rays of bone pain

If results of protein electrophoresis or urinary Bence Jones protein suggest myeloma - refer for 2 week appointment

  • Blood film Appearance (plasma cells and rouleux formation seen)
64
Q

Laboratory, diagnostic tests in secondary care of myeloma?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay

If serum electrophoresis abnormal – use serum immunofixation

Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy confirms diagnosis of myeloma

Morphology and flow cytometry determine plasma cell percentage and phenotype

65
Q

Diagnosis of myeloma, smouldering myeloma and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?

A

 Symptomatic myeloma
• Clonal plasma cells >10% on bone marrow biopsy, monoclonal protein in either serum or urine, end-organ damage (CRAB)

 Asymptomatic myeloma (smouldering)
• Serum paraprotein >30g/L, +/- clonal plasma cells >10% on bone marrow biopsy, no organ damage

 Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
• Serum paraprotein <30g/L, clonal plasma cell <10% on bone marrow biopsy and no organ damage

66
Q

Prognostic testing in myeloma?

A

Same sample for diagnostic and prognostic tests on bone marrow

FISH on CD-138-selected bone marrow plasma cells
• Identify t(4:14), t(14:16), 1q gain, del(1p) and del (17p)(TP53 deletion) – adverse risk abnormalities
• Consider t(14:20) and t(11:14) and hyperdiploidy

Immunophenotyping & immunohistochemistry on trephine biopsy
• Plasma cell phenotype

67
Q

Imaging tests in myeloma?

A

o Offer to all people with plasma cell disorder suspected of myeloma
o Whole-body MRI (whole-body CT is MRI unsuitable, skeletal survey third-line)

Multiple well-defined lytic lesions – raindrop appearance

68
Q

General management of myeloma?

A

o Prompt psychological assessment and support when needed – Refer if needed
o Lifestyle measures to optimise bone and renal function
o How to identify MSCC
o Patient support groups

69
Q

Management of transplant eligible patients in myeloma?

A

 First line
• Induction – bortezomib +/- dexamethasone and thalidomide
• Stem Cell Transplant – First autologous SCT or Allogenic SCT (Letermovir if CMV positive)

 Second Line
• Daratumumab + Bortezomib + Dexamethasone (used for treating relapsed patients after 1 previous treatment)

 Subsequent Treatment (treating relapsed and refractory multiple myeloma)
• Daratumumab
• Ixazomib + lenalidomide + dexamethasone
• Pomalidomide + dexamethasone
• Lenalidomide + Dexamethasone

 Relapse
• Medical 2nd line treatment OR 2nd autologous stem cell transplantation

70
Q

Management of transplant ineligible patients in myeloma?

A

 First Line
• Induction – bortezomib +/- dexamethasone and thalidomide (OR lenalidomide + dexamethasone)

 Second Line (used for treating relapsed patients after 1 previous treatment)
• Lenalidomide + Dexamethasone
• Daratumumab + Bortezomib + Dexamethasone
• Carfilzomib + Dexamethasone

 Subsequent Treatments (treating relapsed and refractory multiple myeloma)
• Daratumumab
• Ixazomib + lenalidomide + dexamethasone
• Pomalidomide + dexamethasone
• Panobinostat + Bortezomib + Dexamethasone
• Lenalidomide + Dexamethasone

71
Q

Prevention of bone disease and infection in myeloma?

A

Bone Disease
 Zoledronic Acid (OR Disodium pamidronate OR Sodium Clodronate)
 Dental Assessment

Infection
	Seasonal Influenza Vaccine
	Consider:
•	Pneumococcal vaccine (<65)
•	IVIG if hypogammaglobulinemia and recurrent infections
•	Aciclovir
•	Screen for HepB, HepC, HIV
72
Q

Monitoring in smouldering myeloma, treated myeloma and disease progression?

A

o Smouldering Myeloma – every 3 months for 1st 5 years then decide

o Treated myeloma – at least every 3 months
 Includes: FBC, U&E, bone profile, serum Ig and protein electrophoresis, serum-free light chain assay

o Disease progression – Whole-body MRI (Spinal MRI)

73
Q

Complications of myeloma?

A

o Pathological bone fractures (osteolysis from proliferation of abnormal plasma cells)
o Spinal Cord Compression
o Renal Damage (obstruction of renal tubules by excess light chains)
o Impaired resistance to infection (leukopenia and abnormal immunoglobulins)
o Anaemia
o Bleeding disorders
o Hyperviscosity of blood

74
Q

Management of acute renal disease in myeloma?

A

 Start borezomib + dexamethasone immediately

75
Q

Management of fatigue in myeloma?

A

 Erythropoietin analogues if anaemic

76
Q

Management of non-spinal bone disease in myeloma?

A

 Zoledronic Acid (OR Disodium pamidronate OR Sodium Clodronate)
 Consider surgical stabilisation, radiotherapy

77
Q

Management of peripheral neuropathy in myeloma?

A

 If on bortezomib – switch to SC, reduce dose or move to weekly

78
Q

Management of spinal bone disease in myeloma?

A

 Zoledronic Acid (OR Disodium pamidronate OR Sodium Clodronate)
 Adjuncts – interventional pain management, bracing. Surgery, radiotherapy

79
Q

Prognosis of myeloma?

A
  • Usually incurable disease
  • Survival ranges from weeks to years
  • Most people respond to initial treatment and enter period of stability however, relapse is inevitable and usually occurs after 2-5 years