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The Final Histo Exam > Blood/Hemopoiesis > Flashcards

Blood/Hemopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

What is plasma comprised of?

A

Water, Protein, and Solutes

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2
Q

Who are the major proteins of the blood?

A

Fibrinogen, Albumin, and Globulins

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3
Q

Approx. how many erythrocytes are in the peripheral blood?

A

25 trillion

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4
Q

Red cells comprise __% of total blood volume.

A

45

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5
Q

Describe the structure of RBCs.

A

Biconcave, 7-8 micrometer, no nucleus/organelles.

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6
Q

How do RBCs stain?

A

Eosinophilic

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7
Q

The biggest component of RBC mass is…

A

Hemoglobin

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8
Q

Lifespan of an RBC?

A

120 days

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9
Q

Three places you’re most prone to find destroyed RBCs?

A

Spleen, Liver, and Bone Marrow

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10
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

New RBC from the marrow that is still finishing hemoglobin synth and maturation

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11
Q

What causes sickle cell anemia?

A

A genetic alteration in the hemoglobin B chain (Val–> Glutamic Acid) that causes sickling og RBCs.

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12
Q

What molecular structures are influenced in sickle cell?

A

Hb denatures and clusters band3, ankyrin, and spectrin

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13
Q

What happens to deformed cells in sickle cell anemia?

A

They are trapped in splenic sinuses and removed by macrophages or they adhere to capillary endothelial cells, occluding vessels.

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14
Q

Tell me about a person with sickle cell anemia’s spleen.

A

It is enlarged.

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15
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

A defect of the RBC membrane causing spheroidal, less deformable cells.

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16
Q

Who are the molecular players messed up in spherocytosis?

A

Spectrin, ankyrin, and actin

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17
Q

The majority of spherocytosis patients will have a ______ deficiency.

A

Spectrin

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18
Q

What will be missing in a spherocytosis blood smear?

A

A central pale zone of the RBC

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19
Q

How will the modified structure of RBCs in spherocytosis influence cell destruction? Symptoms this will cause?

A

Cells will be stuck in splenic cords and by destroyed by splenic macrophages. This will cause anemia and splenomegaly.

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20
Q

Where do platelets come from? How big are they?

A

They are 2-5 um fragments of megakaryocytes

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21
Q

Megakaryocytes have _________ derived from the plasma membrane and continuous with the extracellular space.

A

Platelet Demarcartion Channels

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22
Q

Why have platelets in the first place?

A

Blood clotting, clot retraction, and clot dissolution.

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23
Q

Platelets contain what types of granules?

A

Alpha and Dense Core Granules.

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24
Q

Describe alpha granules.

A

Lysosomal in character

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25
Q

Describe dense core granules.

A

Contain serotonin, ADP, ATP, and Calcium

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26
Q

What old “friend” from biochemistry is also going to come form platelets.

A

Thromboxane A2 derived via CO metabolism.

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27
Q

How does platelet cell shape alter upon activation?

A

Discoid Shape –> Flattened with extensive cell membrane ruffling.

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28
Q

What causes the changes in platelet shape upon adhesion?

A

Rearrangement of cytoskeleton – microtubule redistribution and rapid polymerization of actin into microfilaments

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29
Q

Describe the structure of a neutrophil.

A

Granulocytic, 3-5 lobed nucleus, 9-12 um diameter

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30
Q

Neutrophils contain what types of granules?

A

Specific granules and azurophilic granules.

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31
Q

What do neutrophil specific granules hold?

A

Alkaline phosphatase and phagocytins

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32
Q

What do neutrophil azurophilic granules hold?

A

Myeloperoxidase and lysosomal enzymes

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33
Q

Which cell is the first to appear in inflammation?

A

Neutrophil

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34
Q

What is another name for an immature neutrophil?

A

Stab/band cell

35
Q

Describe the unique structural component of an immature neutrophil.

A

Horseshoe nucleus

36
Q

Describe the appearance of basophils.

A

Contains large basophilic granules, 10-12 um, low # in blood

37
Q

What do basophilic granules include?

A

hydrolytic enzymes, histamine, heparan sulfate proteoglycan, slow reacting substance, eosinophil chemotactic factor

38
Q

Describe the basophil nucleus.

A

Lobed, but hard to see in a smear

39
Q

What immunoglobulin will basophils bind?

A

IgE

40
Q

Describe the structure of an eosinophil?

A

Large eosinophilic granules, 12-15 um in diameter.

41
Q

What do eosinophil granules contain?

A

Arylsulfatase, histaminase, acid phosphotase, ribonuclease, and peroxidase.

42
Q

What does histaminase do?

A

Decreases the severity of allergic reactions.

43
Q

Describe an eosinophil nucleus.

A

Bilobed

44
Q

During what events would you anticipate an increase in eosinophil activity?

A

Allergic reactions and parasitic infections

45
Q

Describe the structure of a monocyte.

A

Agranular phagocytic leukocyte. Kidney shaped nucleus. Has lysosomes.

46
Q

What happens when a monocyte leaves the blood for the tissue?

A

The monocyte will differentiate into other cells in the monocyte/macrophage lineage (ex. macrophage, osteoclast, giant cell)

47
Q

Why have monocytes at all?

A

They are important in the regulation of immune responses and inflammation.

48
Q

Describe lymphocyte structure.

A

6-18 um diameter (small, med, and large). Mononuclear. Round/Oval nucleus (though more reniform in large cells). Very little cytoplasm.

49
Q

Where do T cells develop?

A

Derived from bone marrow and mature in the thymus

50
Q

Where do B cells develop?

A

Derived from bone marrow lymphoid progenitor cells.

51
Q

Large granular lymphocytes (Null cells) may become…

A

Natural killer or killer cells

52
Q

How does the hematopoetic activity of bone marrow change over a lifetime?

A

In the fetus, it is actively hematopoetic and in adults it is less hematopoetic.

53
Q

What changes occur in the marrow as it becomes less hematopoetically active?

A

It changes from red marrow to fat-storing yellow marrow.

54
Q

Where can you still find red marrow in an adult?

A

Vertebrae, Sternum, Ribs, Skull, Pelvis, Femur

55
Q

Where is marrow typically harvested from?

A

Iliac Crest

56
Q

Describe embryonic hematopoiesis.

A

Begins in week 2 in the yolk sac. By the 6th week is occurs in the liver.

57
Q

What stimulates differentiation of bone marrow progenitor cells?

A

Colony Stimulating Factors (CSFs)

58
Q

Examples of CSFs?

A

IL-7 (Lymphoid), Granulocyte-Monocyte CSF, Monocyte CSF, Granulocyte CSF

59
Q

What hormone will stimulate the development of RBCs from CFU-E?

A

Erythropoetin

60
Q

In RBC differentiation, ribosome accumulation will cause….

A

Development of the basophilic erythroblast

61
Q

After the ribosomes have built up, what will they do?

A

They will trigger the production of hemoglobin, which will reduce basophilia, forming the POLYCHROMATOPHILIC ERYTHROBLAST.

62
Q

In RBC differentiation, as the hemoglobin concentration increases, eventually the cytoplasm will stain pink. What is the name of this cell type?

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast (normoblast)

63
Q

In RBC differentiation, eventually all of the Hb is going to cause…

A

nucleus condensation, involution. The nucleus is then expelled with the mitochondria and polyribosomes.

64
Q

When RBCs are destroyed, hemoglobin is degraded into…

A

Bilirubins and Iron

65
Q

What protein is responsible for serum iron transport?

A

Transferrin

66
Q

After RBC breakdown, where will transferrin probably be taking the iron?

A

Back to the marrow to make hemoglobin all over again.

67
Q

Just for the sake of understanding….tell me all of what the last several questions have taught us about how to make a RBC.

A
  1. EPO triggers differentiation
  2. Basophilic Erythroblast – Ribosomes Build Up
  3. Polychromatophilic erythroblast – Hemoglobin production begins
  4. Orthochromatic erythroblast – Hemoglobin concentration increases, causing a pink stain
  5. Hemoglobin accumulation causes nucleus condensation and involution.
  6. Expulsion of Nucleus, Mitochondria, and polyribosomes.
68
Q

What is the first recognizable granulocyte precursor?

A

Myeloblast (a large euchromatic nucleus with neveral nuclei and no granules)

69
Q

What does a myeloblast develop into? Describe the cell

A

Promyelocyte. Accumulation of azurophilic granules. Heterochromatin in nucleus and indentation of nucleus.

70
Q

Promyelocytes will differentiate as…

A

Neutrophilic, eosinophilic, or basophilic specific granules accumulate in the cytoplasm and the nucleus condenses/lobulates.

71
Q

What is a metamyelocyte?

A

A cell that has accumulated many specific granules but has yet to complete the process of nuclear condensation and lobulation.

72
Q

Where do monocytes come from?

A

CFU-S cells (like granulocytes)

73
Q

Where do lymphocytes come from?

A

Lymphoblasts (from CFU-Ly cells)

74
Q

Where do megakaryocytes come from?

A

Megakaryoblasts stimulated by thrombopoietin

75
Q

Where can megakaryocytes be found?

A

Bone marrow.

76
Q

Describe the appearance of a megakaryocyte.

A

100 um. Multilobulated. No division, just growth as the nucleus become polyploid (via endomitosis).

77
Q

What exactly do megakaryocytes do that we care so much about?

A

They release small cytoplasmic fragments (platelets) into the bloodstream.

78
Q

What causes megakaryocytes to fragment?

A

The cell plasma membrane fusing with the sER membrane

79
Q

How long do platelets stay in the bloodstream?

A

7-10 days

80
Q

What is acute lymphocytic leukemia?

A

Rapid growth of immature white blood cells. Common in kids

81
Q

What is Acute myelogenous leukemia?

A

Unregulated growth of white blood cells of the myeloid lineage. Common in adults.

82
Q

What is chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

A

B cell cancer mostly in adult men

83
Q

What is chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A

Unreg. myeloid cell growth. Myeloid cells (netro, eosino, baso) in marrow.

84
Q

What is a common cause of chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A

Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 (Philadelphia Chromosome)

The Final Histo Exam (5 decks)

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