Blood Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what are the goals of normal hemostasis

A

1) prevent prolonged hemorrhage
2) prevent spontaneous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 stages of hemostasis

A

1) vasospasm (vasoconstriction)
2) platelet response
3) coagulation
4) fibrinolysis (clot dissolution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are some prothrombogenic factors

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • platelet activators
  • procoagulants
  • fibrinolytic inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are some antithrombogenic factors

A
  • vasodilators
  • platelet inhibitors
  • anticoagulants
  • fibrinolytic activators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens during vasospasm (stage 1 of hemostasis)

A
  • immediate vasoconstriction mediated by myogenic properties of the vessel wall (recoil)
  • release of sympathetics and local factors such as thromboxane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what happens during the platelet response

A

platelets adhere to exposed collagen in the damaged endothelium and to each other; the platelet plug then releases factors to recruit more platelets, promote vasoconstriction and initiate coagulation (TXA2, 5-HT and ADP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what happens during the coagulation phase (phase 3) of hemostasis

A

sequential conversion of inactive proteins into active proteases, resulting in conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin and formation of a net -> clot proper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the main initiator of coagulation

A

tissue factor -> factor VIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what happens during fibrinolysis

A

dissolution of the clot proper (thrombus) by proteolytic actions of plasmin

occurs once wound has healed to restore blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can cause excessive bleeding

A
  • platelet deficiency (thrombocytopenia, VWD)
  • clotting factor deficiency (single factor such as hemophilia or multiple factors such as vitamin K deficiency)
  • fibrinolytic hyperactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hemophilia can involve what clotting factors

A

VIII and IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the 2 forms of vitamin K and which is used pharmacologically

A

Vitamin K1: phytonadione (food)
Vitamin K2: menaquinone (intestinal bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the MoA of vitamin K1

A

post-translationally modifies coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is vitamin K1 absorbed

A

fat soluble -> uses bile salts for intestinal absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the routes for vitamin K1 administration and which is recommended?

A

IV, IM, SQ

SQ recommended as safest. IM causes hematoma formation and IV associated with anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the uses of vitamin K1

A

1) vitamin K1 deficiency (rodenticide toxicity, sweet clover poisnoning aka dicumoral toxicity)

2) warfarin overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the MoA of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

A

transiently increases Von Willebrand activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the uses of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

A
  • treatment of mild von Willebrand disease
  • transiently reduces capillary bleeding during surgery (prophylactic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the routes of administration of desmopressin acetate

A

nasal and injectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the caveat for using desmopressin acetate during surgery

A

lasts 2hrs, repeated doses have a reduced effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the MoA of protamine sulphate

A

binds to and neutralizes heparin; better against high molecular (unfractioned) heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the uses of protamine sulphate

A

heparin overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is protamine sulphate given

A

IV slowly; accurate dose needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why are accurate doses of protamine sulphate needed

A

too much causes anticoagulant effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

plasmin lyses fibrin and fibrinogen by attaching to fibrin on __________

A

lysine binding sites

26
Q

what is the MoA of aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

A

binds to the lysine binding site on fibrin and competitively inhibits plasmin

27
Q

what are the uses of aminocaproic acid

A

to stop bleeding from fibrinolysis; as an adjunct therapy for hemophiliacs

28
Q

a red thrombus is _______ rich and contains a large number of ______, it is _________ in origin

a white thrombus is _______ rich and contains a large number of _________; it is __________ in origin

A

fibrin; RBCs; venous

platelet; platelets; arterial

29
Q

pathogenesis of thrombosis requires (3)

A
  • local vessel injury
  • changes in blood flow (stasis or turbulence)
  • altered blood coagulability
30
Q

what are the 3 drug classes of anticoagulants

A

1) systemic anticoagulants
2) antithrombotic drugs
3) fibrinolytic drugs

31
Q

what is the MoA of heparin

A

binds to ATIII and forms a heparin-ATIII complex that inhibits activated Xa and IIa

32
Q

what is the composition of heparin

A

mix of sulphated mucopolysaccharides isolated from mast cells

33
Q

what are the uses of heparin

A

as an acute anticoagulant to initially treat thrombosis and thromboembolic disease

34
Q

what is the caveat of heparin

A

only prevents new clot formation

35
Q

what are some adverse effects of heparin and how can we mitigate this

A
  • bleeding
  • monitor aPTT
  • can give protamine sulphate if overdose
36
Q

what is Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

A

low molecular weight heparin

37
Q

what are the advantages of Enoxaparin over regular unfractioned heparin

A
  • less bleeding tendency
  • less risk of thrombocytopenia
  • improved pharmacokinetics: can give SQ, increased half life
38
Q

how does Enoxaparin differ from heparin

A

Enoxaparin only inhibits Xa but not thrombin (IIa) making it less “effective” but safer

39
Q

what is a disadvantage of Enoxaparin over heparin

A

protamine sulphate is not as effective at reversing an overdose of Enoxaparin vs heparin

40
Q

what is the MoA of warfarin

A

inhibits Vitamin K factors II, VII, IX, X and stops clotting after existing factors are used

41
Q

what are the uses of warfarin

A

in the past has been given as a chronic preventative anticoagulant and is commonly given as a first dose with heparin (works later)

42
Q

what are adverse effects of warfarin

A

1) bleeding (combat with Vitamin K1)

2) crosses the placenta so cannot give to pregnant animals

43
Q

how do we monitor warfarin therapy

A

international normalized ratio (INR) which is the patients PT/mean normal PT for the lab

want to see 2.0-3.0

44
Q

what is the MoA of rivaroxaban

A

selective Xa inhibitor

45
Q

how does rivaroxaban differ from enoxaparin

A

rivaroxaban does not interact with ATIII, unlike enoxaparin

rivaroxaban can be given orally

46
Q

what is a main advantage of rivaroxaban

A

no monitoring required with a fixed dosage unlike with using heparins or warfarin

47
Q

what is the main use of rivaroxaban at the moment

A

dogs with IMHA

48
Q

what is the MoA of aspirin

A

inhibits COX-1 selectively (at low doses), preventing TXA2 production in platelets and therefore reducing platelet aggregation

49
Q

what are the uses of aspirin

A

prevents thrombus formation and re-thrombus formation

50
Q

what are some side-effects of aspirin

A
  • bleeding
  • gastric ulceration
  • renal damage
51
Q

what is the MoA of clopidogrel

A

Irreversibly inhibits the binding of ADP to its receptors (P2Y12 or P2YADP), resulting in impaired platelet aggregation

52
Q

what is a consideration regarding the pharmacokinetics of clopidogrel

A

it is a prodrug and must be activated by P450 metabolism in the liver

53
Q

what are the main uses of clopidogrel

A

for thromboembolic concerns in dogs with IMHA and cats with HCM

54
Q

what is the MoA of t-PA

A

binds fibrin and preferentially activates clot-bound plasminogen

55
Q

what are the uses of t-PA

A

thromboembolic therapy for canine pulmonary thromboembolism and feline saddle thrombus

given as a CRI due to short half-life

56
Q

what are adverse effects of t-PA

A

bleeding tendencies and reperfusion injury

57
Q

what is the MoA of erythropoietin

A

stimulates proliferation-differentiation of RBC precursors and release of reticulocytes

58
Q

what are the uses of EPO

A
  • anemia of CKD
  • anemia of cancer
59
Q

if you give EPO you should expect to see therapeutic results in

60
Q

what are adverse effects of EPO

A

hypertension, seizures, therapeutic failure