AMDs and Antifungals Flashcards

1
Q

what is the MoA of Penicillins

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

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2
Q

what are the main adverse effects of penicillins (3)

A

1) decrease seizure threshold
2) can cause fatal colitis in hindgut fermenters if given orally
3) hypersensitivities (not given topically)

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3
Q

what are the main PK features of penicillins (3)

A

1) penicillin G is not acid stable
2) amoxicillin has an oral bioavailability of 90%
3) excreted intact in the urine

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4
Q

how should we be treating penicillins

A

1) Penicillin G and amoxicillin
2) Potentiated penicillins

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5
Q

what is the general spectrum of Penicillin G

A

G+ aerobes, anaerobes

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6
Q

what is the general spectrum of amoxicillin

A

G+ aerobes, anaerobes, some G- aerobes

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7
Q

all penicillins end in

A

“cillin”

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8
Q

do penicillins have a long or short half life

A

short (<2h)

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9
Q

what is the Vd (high or low) of penicillins and why

A

low; they distribute to extracellular fluids well (not brain or prostate) but have poor penetration of cells

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10
Q

if an animal is hypersensitive to penicillins they are also likely reactive to

A

cephalosporins

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11
Q

what is the MoA of cephalosporins

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

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12
Q

what are the major adverse effects of cephalosporins

A

hypersensitivity; colitis in hindgut fermenters if given orally; reduce seizure threshold

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13
Q

how should we use cephalosporins

A

first line: 1st gen
second line: 3rd gen

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14
Q

what are the major PK features of cephalosporins

A
  • most are not acid-stable
  • some 3rd gen (cefotaxime) enter CNS readily
  • not destroyed by penicillinases (may be destroyed by β-lactamases)
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15
Q

what is the general spectrum of first generation cephalosporins

A

same as amoxicillin: G+ aerobes, anaerobes, some G- aerobes

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16
Q

what is the issue with cefovecin (Convenia)

A

it is a third generation cephalosporin given as a single SQ injection with a 2-week half-life that essentially guarantees inappropriate duration of therapy

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17
Q

what is a convenient (hint) AMD we should avoid using unless the patient is really aggressive or long duration of therapy needed

A

Cefovecin (Convenia)

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18
Q

what are the main uses of aminoglycosides

A

1) topical infections (ex. staph)
2) serious G- aerobic systemic infections

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19
Q

what is the MoA of aminoglycosides

A

inhibits protein synthesis; bactericidal

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20
Q

what are the major adverse effects of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

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21
Q

what are the major PK features of aminoglycosides

A

highly ionized so no oral or topical absorption; food residues are over 1y if given parenterally

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22
Q

how should we give aminoglycosides

A

1st line: topical administration
2nd line: systemic administration

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23
Q

what is the general spectrum of aminoglycosides

A

G- aerobes; mycoplasma; staph

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24
Q

what is the MoA of tetracyclines

A

inhibit protein synthesis (bacteriostatic)

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25
Q

what are the major adverse effects of tetracyclines (4)

A
  • nephrotoxicity if dehydrated
  • esophageal ulcers in cats
  • tissue irritation
  • incorporates into growing long bones and teeth
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26
Q

what are the major PK features of tetracyclines

A

lipid soluble useful against intracellular pathogens

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27
Q

how do we use tetracyclines

A

first line, especially important for atypical bacteria (mycoplasma, rickettsia, anaplasma, chlamydia…)

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28
Q

what is a highly lipid soluble tetracycline

A

doxycycline

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29
Q

what is the general spectrum of tetracycline in small animals? large animals?

A

small animals: atypical bacteria
large animals: atypical bacteria plus some G+ and G- aerobes and anaerobes

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30
Q

if giving tetracyclines what is an important feeding consideration

A

divalent cations in food (ex. calcium) will markedly decrease oral absorption

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31
Q

what tetracycline has the best oral availability

A

doxycycline

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32
Q

why is it a problem that tetracyclines will bind to multivalent cations (ex. calcium)

A

1) inhibits oral absorption if taken with calcium-containing foods
2) incorporates into growing long bones and teeth which creates food residues

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33
Q

what is the MoA of sulphonamides

A

inhibit folic acid synthesis

34
Q

what are the main adverse effects of sulphonamides (3)

A
  • nephrotoxicity in dehydrated patients
  • hypersensitivity
  • lacrimotoxicity in dogs
35
Q

how should we use sulphonamides

A

first line!

36
Q

what are the main PK features of sulphonamides

A

inactive in the presence of pus; distributes to all tissues

37
Q

what is the general spectrum of sulphonamides for small animals and for large animals

A

small animals: UTIs, atypical bacteria
large animals: fairly broad spectrum

38
Q

what does TMS stand for and what is it

A

trimethoprim sulfonamide; it is sulphonamide combined with a diaminopyrimidine inhibitor (trimethoprim) to help restore its effectiveness

39
Q

sulfonamides alone are ____________ whereas trimethoprim sulfonamides are _____________

A

bacteristatic; bactericidcal

40
Q

what is the MoA of macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis

41
Q

what are the main adverse effects of macrolides

A
  • oral erythromycin causes nausea and vomiting
  • tissue irritation
  • potentially fatal colitis if given orally to hindgut fermenters
42
Q

how do we give macrolides

A

first line: erythromycin
second line: newer macrolides

43
Q

what are some key PK features for macrolides

A

erythromycin: inhibits P450 and stimulates motilin
enters cells
concentrates in lungs
newer macrolides have long half lives

44
Q

in an animal with allergies what is better to give over penicillin

A

erythromycin

45
Q

macrolides are especially important for ________ disease

A

respiratory

46
Q

what AMD is fatal to swine and fatal in general if given IV

A

tilmicosin (a newer macrolide)

47
Q

what is the MoA of fluoroquinolones

A

inhibit DNA synthesis (DNA gyrases and topioisomerases)

48
Q

what are the main adverse effects of fluoroquinolones

A
  • retinal damage in cats with enrofloxacin
  • decreased seizure threshold
  • cartilage damage
49
Q

how do we use fluoroquinolones

A

second line

50
Q

what are the main PK features of fluoroquinolones

A
  • concentrates in lungs
  • most have a long half-life (not enrofloxacin)
  • oral absorption 100%
51
Q

what is the general spectrum of fluoroquinolones

A

similar to aminoglycosides….
staph, G- aerobes, atypicals

52
Q

what is the general spectrum of macrolides (old vs new)

A

old (erythromycin): some G- aerobes and some atypical; all G+ aerobes and anaerobes

new: all G- aerobes; some G+ aerobes, anaerobes and atypical

53
Q

what drugs should we avoid using if at all possible (3)

A

fluoroquinolones, potentiated penicillins, 3rd gen cephalosporins

54
Q

what are the 5 main types of antifungals and give an example

A
  • polyenes (amphotericin B)
  • azoles (itraconazole)
  • pneumocandins and echinocandins (caspofungin)
  • pyrimidines
  • drugs used for dermatophytosis (terbinafine)
55
Q

what is the toxicity and relative spectrum of polyenes? are they fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

broad spectrum
high systemic toxicity
fungicidal

56
Q

what is the toxicity and relative spectrum of azoles? are they fungistatic or fungicidal?

A

very low toxicity
broad spectrum
fungistatic

57
Q

are pneumocandins/echinocandins high or low toxicity?

A

low toxicity

58
Q

what is the newest class of antifungal drugs

A

pneumocandins/echinocandins

59
Q

what is the cell target for:
a) pneumocandins
b) azoles
c) polyenes

A

a) pneumocandins: cell wall
b) azoles: plasma membrane
c) polyenes: plasma membrane

60
Q

how do the cell targets of antibacterials differ from antifungals

A

antibacterials are commonly protein synthesis or cell wall synthesis whereas antifungals are very commonly plasma membrane

61
Q

what allows us to target the plasma membrane of fungi (what is different about the plasma membrane compared to animals cells)

A

they contain ergosterol instead of cholesterol

62
Q

what are the two “formulations” of amphotericin B (a polyene) and what is the therapeutic difference

A

1) bile salts: will be eliminated in the kidneys and can cause kidney damage
2) lipid: will be eliminated in the reticuloendothelial system and can be used to target infections there

63
Q

what is the absorption and distribution of amphotericin B

A

poor oral; given IV; distributes in extracellular fluid but poor CNS penetration

64
Q

what is the half life of amphotericin B

A

LONG (26h in dogs)

65
Q

what is the spectrum of amphotericin B and what is its main use(s)? how do we usually give it? how does use differ in large animals?

A

broad (not against dermatophytes); due to toxicity it is usually used topically or for life-threatening systemic mycoses; we usually give one dose of this followed by doses of azoles; not used in food animals and rarely used in equine

66
Q

what is the main adverse effect of amphotericin B

A

dose-dependent nephrotoxicity (worse with bile salt formulations, better with lipid formulations)

67
Q

how should we go about administering amphotericin B

A

slow (4-6h) in dextrose-containing IV fluid, may be good to give NaCl fluids before administration to lessen renal toxicity

68
Q

what antifungal can you not give a pregnant dog

A

azoles (teratogenic)

69
Q

what is the bioavailability of azoles

A

good oral bioavailability

70
Q

what are the two “types” of azoles and an example? how do we use them?

A

1) imidazoles (ex. ketoconazole)
2) triazoles (ex. itraconazole)

Triazoles better for systemic use but both good for topical use so we use imidazoles first

71
Q

what is the MoA of azoles and an important consideration due to this MoA

A

inhibits fungal P450 enzymes involved in ergosterol formation

it also inhibits some mammalians P450 enzymes making it inhibit the metabolism of other drugs given

72
Q

why do we generally not use imidazoles systemically anymore

A

endocrine effects common with systemic therapy because they inhibit mammalian sterol synthesis

73
Q

what drug is no longer used as an antifungal but is used to treat hyperadrenocorticism

A

ketoconazole (an imidazole azole)

74
Q

what are the topical imidazole azoles

A

miconazole (otic and dermal)
clotrimazole (otic)
enilconazole (dermal)

75
Q

what is caspofungin and what is it important for

A

echinocandin; useful against Candida spp.

76
Q

what 2 classes/types of antifungals can be used synergistically against dermatophytes

A

terbinafine and azoles

77
Q

what are the two ways to administer terbinafine

A

oral or topical

78
Q

what is the best way to treat severe cases of dermatophytosis

A

oral and topical combinations of azoles and terbinafine in a clipped animal

79
Q

is therapy long/short for itraconazole and why

A

long; it enters into newly forming keratin

80
Q

what are the main adverse effects of itraconazole

A
  • GI upset, nausea, vomiting
  • skin problems
  • inhibits some P450 enzymes