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Medical Technology Laws and Bioethics > Blood Donation Law > Flashcards

Blood Donation Law Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

World Blood Donor Day is celebrated every ____ of each year.

A

June 14

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2
Q

____ in accordance with RA 7719, aims to create public consciousness on the importance of blood donations.

A

National Voluntary Blood Services Program (NVBSP)

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3
Q

RA 7719

A

National Blood Services Act of 1994

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4
Q

National Blood Services Act of 1994

A

RA 7719

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5
Q

It is an act promulgating voluntary blood donation, providing for an adequate supply of safe blood, regulating blood banks, and providing penalties for violation thereof.

A

RA 7719: National Blood Services Act of 1994

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6
Q

RA 7719 was approved on _____.

A

May 5, 1994

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7
Q

RA 7719 was approved by ____.

A

Pres. Fidel V. Ramos

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8
Q

Section 1 of RA 7719

A

Title

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9
Q

Section 2 of RA 7719

A

Declaration of Policies

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10
Q

Section 3 of RA 7719

A

Definition of Terms

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11
Q

____ refers to the human blood, processed or unprocessed and includes blood components, its products and derivatives.

A

Blood or Blood Products

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12
Q

____ is a laboratory or institution with the capability to recruit and screen blood donors, collect, process, store, transport and issue blood for transfusion and provide information and/or education on blood transfusion transmissible diseases.

A

Blood Bank/Center

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13
Q

____ a blood bank that exists for profit.

A

Commercial Blood Bank

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14
Q

____ is a blood bank which is located within the premises of a hospital, and which can perform compatibility testing of blood.

A

Hospital-based Blood Bank

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15
Q

____ an institution or facility duly authorized by the Department of Health to recruit and screen donors and collect blood.

A

Blood Collection Unit

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16
Q

____ are diseases which may be transmitted as a result of blood transfusion, including AIDS, Hepatitis B, Malaria, and Syphilis.

A

Blood Transfusion Transmissible Diseases

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17
Q

____ is the Secretary of Health or any other person to whom the Secretary delegates the responsibility of carrying out the provisions of this Act.

A

Secretary of Health

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18
Q

____ is an individual in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors who is ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community.

A

Walking Blood Donor

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19
Q

Section 4 of RA 7719

A

Promotion of Voluntary Blood Donation

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20
Q

Public Education is organized and sustained nationwide public education campaign by the _______.

A
  • Department
  • Philippine National Red Cross (PNRC)
  • Philippine Blood Coordinating Council (PBCC)
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21
Q

Organizations that promote professional education

A
  • DOH
  • PBCC
  • PSHBT
  • PMA
  • PAMET
  • PNA
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22
Q

Section 5 of RA 7719

A

National Voluntary Blood Services Program (NVBSP)

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23
Q

National Voluntary Blood Services Program (NVBSP) is organized through the help of ______.

A

Philippine National Red Cross (PNRC) and Philippine Blood Coordinating Council (PBCC)

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24
Q

____ is a program to meet an evolutionary manner, needs for blood transfusion in all region of the country.

A

National Voluntary Blood Services Program (NVBSP)

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25
Q

Funds for NVBSP shall be provided by the ____ through institutions.

A

government

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26
Q

Institutions funding the NVBSP

A
  • Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office (PCSO)
  • Philippine Amusement and Gaming Corporation (PAGCOR)
  • Duty Free Shop
  • Others
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27
Q

PCSO fund for NVBSP

A

25 million

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28
Q

PAGCOR fund for NVBSP

A

25 million

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29
Q

Duty Free fund for NVBSP

A

20 million

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30
Q

Section 6 of RA 7719

A

Upgrading of Services and Facilities

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31
Q

____ shall establish the guidelines for the rational use of blood and blood products.

A

DOH with PSHBT and PSP

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32
Q

Section 7 of RA 7719

A

Phase-Out of Commercial Blood Banks

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33
Q

All commercial blood banks shall be phased-out over a period of ______ after effectivity of this act.

A

2 years

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34
Q

Processing fee for whole blood

A

1.5k

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35
Q

Processing fee for packed red cells

A

1.1k

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36
Q

Processing fee for fresh frozen plasma

A

700

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37
Q

Processing fee for cryoprecipitate

A

700

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38
Q

Processing fee for cryosupernate

A

700

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39
Q

Section 8 of RA 7719

A

Non-Profit Operation

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40
Q

Section 9 of RA 7719

A

Regulation of Blood Services

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41
Q

Section 10 of RA 7719

A

Importation of Blood Bank, Equipment, Blood Bags and Reagents

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42
Q

Section 11 of RA 7719

A

Rules and Regulation

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43
Q

Section 12 of RA 7719

A

Penalties

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44
Q

Rules and regulations shall be promulgated ____ from the approval thereof.

A

60 days

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45
Q

Section 13 of RA 7719

A

Penalties

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46
Q

What is the penalty for a blood bank/center collecting charges and fees greater than the maximum prescribed by the DOH?

A
  • Revocation or suspension of license
  • Imprisonment: 1 month - 6 months
  • Fine: 5,000 - 50,000
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47
Q

What is the penalty for a person who shall establish and operate a blood bank without any license to operate or who fails to comply with the standards prescribed by the DOH?

A
  • Imprisonment: 12 years and 1 day - 20 years
  • Fine: 50,000 - 500,000
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48
Q

What is the penalty for dispensing, transfusing, and failing to dispose within 48 hours blood which have been proven contaminated with blood transfusion transmissible diseases?

A

Imprisonment for 10 years

49
Q

Section 14 of RA 7719

A

Separability Clause

50
Q

Section 15 of RA 7719

A

Repealing Clause

51
Q

RA 7719 shall supersede the ____.

A

RA 1517: Blood Bank Act

52
Q

Section 16 of RA 7719

A

Effectivity

53
Q

RA 7719 shall take effect after ____ following its publication in the Official Gazette or in ____ of general circulation.

A

15 days, 2 newspapers

54
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Age

A

17-65 years old

<16 - parents’ consent

55
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Weight

A

50 kg or 110 lbs

56
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Hemoglobin

A

≥ 12.5 g/dL

57
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Hematocrit

A

≥ 38%

58
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Temperature

A

Oral Temp - 37.5 C or 99.5 F

59
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Systolic Blood Pressure (AABB)

A

180 mmHg

60
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Systolic Blood Pressure (Philippines)

A

90-160 mmHg

61
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Diastolic Blood Pressure (AABB)

A

100 mmHg

62
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Diastolic Blood Pressure (Philippines)

A

60-100 mmHg

63
Q

Criteria for Donor Selection

Skin Lesions

A

Indefinite Deferral

64
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

High risk history of HIV/AIDS

A

Permanent or Indefinite

65
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Male who have sex with male since 1977

A

Permanent or Indefinite

66
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Intravenous drug abusers either past or present

A

Permanent or Indefinite

67
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Anyone who engaged in sex for money since 1977

A

Permanent or Indefinite

68
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Hemophiliacs

A

Permanent or Indefinite

69
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Confirmed positive test for HIV/AIDS

A

Permanent or Indefinite

70
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Symptoms of viral hepatitis after age 11

A

Permanent or Indefinite

71
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Donors implicated in a post-transfusion hepatitis

A

Permanent or Indefinite

72
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

AIDS case

A

Permanent or Indefinite

73
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Confirmed positive for Hepatitis C antibody (HCab)

A

Permanent or Indefinite

74
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Confirmed positive for Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus (HTLV)

A

Permanent or Indefinite

75
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Malignant solid tumors

A

Permanent or Indefinite

76
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Hematologic malignancies

A

Permanent or Indefinite

77
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Chemotherapeutic agents

A

Permanent or Indefinite

78
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Chronic cardiopulmonary, liver, or renal disease

A

Permanent or Indefinite

79
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Serious abnormal bleeiding tendencies

A

Permanent or Indefinite

80
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

People who have taken the drug Eretinate (Tegison) for the treatment of psoriasis (tetratogenic)

A

Permanent or Indefinite

81
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

History of babesiosis

A

Permanent or Indefinite

82
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

History of Chaga’s disease

A

Permanent or Indefinite

83
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Anyone who has ever received clotting factor concentrate

A

Permanent or Indefinite

84
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Recipient of pituitary derived growth hormone

A

Permanent or Indefinite

85
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Recipient of cornea/dura mater transplant

A

Permanent or Indefinite

86
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Anyone who have taken insulin from cows

A

Permanent or Indefinite

87
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Cold

A

Temporary

88
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Flu

A

Temporary

89
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Tuberculosis

A

Temporary

90
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Syphilis

A

Temporary

91
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Infections

A

Temporary

92
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Curable disease of the heart, lung, kidney, liver, and GIT

A

Temporary

93
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Treatment with antibiotics

A

Temporary

94
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Immigrant or refugee coming from an area considered endemic for Malaria

A

3 years

95
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After hepatitis B immune globulin
administration

A

1 year

96
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After therapeutic rabies vaccination

A

1 year

97
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Rape victims

A

1 year

98
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Health care workers with percutaneous
exposure to blood or body fluids

A

1 year

99
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Close contact to persons with viral
hepatitis in the last 12 months

A

1 year

100
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Tattoo/Piercings

A

1 year

101
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Sexual contact with a prostitute or other persons in high- risk group for HIV/AIDS

A

1 year

102
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Incarceration in jail for more than 72
consecutive hours

A

1 year

103
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Transfusion of blood components

A

1 year

104
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Transplant such as bone marrow or
organ/tissue, bone, or skin graft.

A

1 year

105
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Had accidental needle stick injury

A

1 year

106
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

History of syphilis or gonorrhea

A

1 year

107
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Leishmania risk (travel to Iraq in the last
3 years)

A

1 year

108
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Recovery with clinical diagnosis, or suspicion of West Nile Virus (WNV) infection

A

4 months or 120 days

109
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Typhoid infection

A

3 months

110
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Recent blood donation

A

2 months

12 weeks or 3 months

111
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Allogenic donation

A

56 days (2 months)

112
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Following a delivery of a baby

A

6 weeks (9 months)

113
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

German measles (rubella) vaccination

A

1 month

114
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After cessation of the drug isotretinoin
(Accutane) for acne treatment

A

1 month

115
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After cessation of the drug finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia.

A

1 month

116
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After vaccination with oral polio, measles (rubeola), mumps or yellow fever

A

2 weeks

117
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After immune reaction to smallpox
vaccination

A

2 weeks

118
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

Whole blood donation deferred after
hemapheresis

A

48 hours

119
Q

Identify the Duration of Deferral

After alcohol intake

A

12-24 hours

Medical Technology Laws and Bioethics (11 decks)

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