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Sem 2 > Blood and vessels > Flashcards

Blood and vessels Flashcards

1
Q

5 functions of blood

A

transport (waste, nutrients, oxygen), temperature regulation, immunity, communication, defense

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2
Q

plasma contents (7)

A

water, nutrients, electrolytes, proteins (albumin, globulins, fibrinogen), nitrogenous wastes, hormones, gases

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3
Q

what does differential blood count do

A

show percentage of WBC type in blood sample

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4
Q

normal differential blood count neutrophil

A

40-60%

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5
Q

normal differential blood count lymphocyte

A

20-40%

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6
Q

normal differential blood count monocyte

A

2-8%

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7
Q

normal differential blood count eosinophil

A

1-4%

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8
Q

normal differential blood count basophil

A

0.5-1%

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9
Q

normal differential blood count band (young neutrophil)

A

0-3%

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10
Q

neutrophil levels raised in (5)

A

bacterial infection, inflammation, haemorrhage, infarction, trauma/surgery/burns

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11
Q

neutrophil levels decreased in

A

viral infection

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12
Q

lymphocyte levels raised in (5)

A

viral infections, glandular fever, TB, syphilis, whooping cough

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13
Q

lymphocyte levels decreased in (3)

A

AIDS, steroid therapy, post chemo/radiotherapy

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14
Q

eosinophil levels raised in (3)

A

asthma, allergy, parasitic infection

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15
Q

monocyte levels raised in (2)

A

acute chronic infections (e.g. TB), malignant disease

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16
Q

basophil levels raised in (6)

A

viral infection, malignancy, haemolysis, post-splenectomy, urticaria, hypothyroidism

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17
Q

histology of platelet (2)

A

very small, blood clotting

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18
Q

histology of monocyte (2)

A

macrophage, B shaped nucleus

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19
Q

lymphocyte histology (3)

A

similar to monocyte, circular nucleus, darker staining

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20
Q

neutrophil histology (2)

A

big nucleus, multilobed nucleus

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21
Q

basophil histology (4)

A

2 nuclear lobes, not easily distinguishable, granular, lighter staining

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22
Q

eosinophil histology (4)

A

2 nuclear lobes, easily distinguishable, granular, darker staining

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23
Q

neutrophils wander in

A

connective tissues

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24
Q

2 methods of neutrophil bacteria killing

A

phagocytosis and digestion, bactericidal chemical cloud

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25
Q

neutrophil enzymes catalyse which reaction

A

respiratory burst

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26
Q

in presence of bacteria, neutrophil lysosomes migrate to cell surface and

A

degranulate

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27
Q

respiratory burst (neutrophil) - neutrophil rapidly absorbs

A

oxygen

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28
Q

respiratory burst (neutrophil) - oxygen reduced to

A

superoxide anions

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29
Q

respiratory burst (neutrophil) - superoxide anions react with hydrogen to produce

A

hydrogen peroxide

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30
Q

respiratory burst (neutrophil) - chloride ions in tissue fluid form

A

hypochlorite

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31
Q

respiratory burst (neutrophil) - 3 highly toxic chemicals produced

A

hypochlorite, hydrogen peroxide, superoxide anions

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32
Q

eosinophils most numerous in

A

mucous membranes

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33
Q

eosinophils concentrated at sites of (3)

A

allergy, imflammation, parasitic infection

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34
Q

eosinophils help kill parasites (e.g. tape worms) by producing (2 chemicals, 1 other)

A

superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, toxic chemicals (e.g. neurotoxin)

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35
Q

eosinophils promote action of which 2 cells

A

basophils and mast cells

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36
Q

eosinophils secrete enzymes that degrade and limit the action of

A

histamine (and other inflammatory chemicals)

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37
Q

basophils secrete chemicals that aid the mobility and action of

A

other leukocytes

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38
Q

basophils secrete (3)

A

leukotrienes, histamine, heparin

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39
Q

function of leukotrienes

A

activate and attract neutrophils and eosinophils

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40
Q

functions of histamine (3)

A

vasodilator, increases blood flow, speeds delivery of leukocytes to area

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41
Q

function of heparin

A

anticoagulant

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42
Q

5% of circulating blood lymphocytes are (2)

A

natural killer cells and stem cells

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43
Q

80% of circulating blood lymphocytes are

A

T cells

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44
Q

15% of circulating blood lymphocytes are

A

B cells

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45
Q

monocytes are in

A

blood

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46
Q

monocytes in connective tissues are known as

A

macrophages

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47
Q

erythrocyte function (2)

A

oxygen delivery, carbon dioxide transportation

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48
Q

erythrocyte shape

A

discoidal

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49
Q

erythrocytes doesn’t have (2)

A

nucleus, organelles

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50
Q

erythrocyte method of ATP production

A

anaerobic fermentation

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51
Q

2 cytoskeletal proteins in erythrocytes

A

spectrin, actin

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52
Q

percentage of erythrocyte that is Hb

A

33%

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53
Q

Hb has which 4 globins

A

2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains

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54
Q

each Hb chain has

A

haem group

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55
Q

what does haem group do

A

binds oxygen to ferrous ion

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56
Q

percentage of carbon dioxide transported by Hb

A

5%

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57
Q

adult form of haemoglobin

A

HbA

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58
Q

foetal form of haemoglobin

A

HbF

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59
Q

HbF has two what chains instead of beta chains

A

gamma chains

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60
Q

do gamma or beta chains have higher oxygen affinity

A

gamma

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61
Q

tests for Hb (2)

A

haematocrit, finger prick test

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62
Q

percentage of HbA which is HbA2

A

2.5%

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63
Q

HbA2 has what instead of beta chains

A

delta chains

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64
Q

percentage of HbA which is HbAO

A

92-94%

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65
Q

percentage fo HbA which is HbA1

A

6-8%

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66
Q

HbA1 beta chain has additional what

A

glucose group

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67
Q

erythropoiesis takes how long

A

~3-5 days

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68
Q

four major developments in erythropoiesis

A

reduction in cell size, increase in cell number, synthesis of Hb, loss of nucleus and organelles

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69
Q

in erythropoiesis, pluripotent stem cell develops into

A

erythrocyte colony-forming unit

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70
Q

erythrocyte colony-forming unit has receptors for

A

erythropoietin

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71
Q

function of erythropoietin

A

stimulates erythrocyte colony-forming unit to transform into erythroblast (normoblast)

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72
Q

erythrocyte- colony-forming unit transforms into

A

erythroblast (normoblast)

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73
Q

erythroblasts (normoblasts) multiply and synthesise

A

Hb

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74
Q

once Hb synthesised, nucleus shrivels and

A

is discharged from cell

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75
Q

once nucleus is discharged from normoblast with Hb, cell known as

A

reticulocyte

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76
Q

reitculocyte enters

A

circulating blood

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77
Q

once in blood, cells from erythropoiesis are known as

A

mature erythrocytes

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78
Q

multipotent stem cells in red bone marrow are known as

A

haemocytoblasts

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79
Q

sites of haemopoiesis as embryo (5)

A

yolk sac (first 8 weeks of development) then to liver, spleen, thymus and bone marrow

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80
Q

sites of haemopoiesis as child (2)

A

liver and spleen

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81
Q

site of haemopoiesis as adult

A

red bone marrow

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82
Q

red bone marrow is found in which bones (2)

A

flat and long bones

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83
Q

myeloid stem cells develop into (2)

A

RBCs and several classes of WBCs

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84
Q

lymphoid stem cells develop into

A

lymphocytes

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85
Q

after reticulocytes enter blood stream, how long does it take for complete maturation into mature RBCs

A

24 hours

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86
Q

erythrocyte life span

A

100-120 days

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87
Q

after 120 days, what erythrocyte damage is detected by phagocytes

A

plasma membrane rupture / other damage

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88
Q

types of agglutinogens (2)

A

A or B

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89
Q

Blood group A has which antigens on RBCs

A

A antigens

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90
Q

Blood group A has which antibodies in plasma

A

anti-B

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91
Q

Blood group B has which antigens on RBCs

A

B antigens

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92
Q

Blood group B has which antibodies in plasma

A

anti-A

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93
Q

Blood group O has which antigens on RBCs

A

no antigens

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94
Q

Blood group O has which antibodies in plasma

A

A and B antigens

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95
Q

Blood group AB has which antigens on RBCs

A

A and B antigens

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96
Q

Blood group AB has which antibodies in plasma

A

no antibodies

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97
Q

A and B are

A

codominant

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98
Q

O is

A

recessive

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99
Q

Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are usually what type of antibody

A

IgM

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100
Q

O individuals can also produce which type of ABO antibodies

A

IgG

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101
Q

Rh+ is

A

dominant

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102
Q

Rh- is

A

recessive

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103
Q

Rh gene is one gene (RHD) located where

A

chromosome 1

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104
Q

precursor to ABO blood group antigens are

A

H antigens

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105
Q

Absence of H antigen is similar to which blood group

A

O

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106
Q

Gene for H antigen where

A

chromosome 19

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107
Q

ABO locus is where

A

chromosome 9

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108
Q

macrophages of where (3) play role in recycling RBC components

A

liver, spleen, bone marrow

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109
Q

during haemolysis, Hb breaks down and alpha and beta chains are filtered by

A

kidneys

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110
Q

breakdown of Hb, haem group is stripped of iron and converted to

A

biliverdin

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111
Q

breakdown of Hb, haem group is stripped of iron and converted to biliverdin which is then converted to

A

bilirubin

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112
Q

bilirubin is released into blood stream and binds to

A

albumin

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113
Q

bilirubin and albumin transported to liver and excreted as

A

bile

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114
Q

Haemoglobinuria definition

A

urine red/brown due to excess RBC breakdown

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115
Q

Haematuria definition

A

intact RBCs in urine

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116
Q

Haematuria occurs after (2)

A

kidney damage or damage to vessel along urinary tract

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117
Q

jaundice definition

A

bile duct blocked/liver unable to absorb bilirubin -> bilirubin diffuses into peripheral tissues –> yellow colour

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118
Q

location of spleen

A

left hypochondriac region, inferior to diaphragm, posterolateral to stomach.

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119
Q

spleen protected by which ribs

A

10-12

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120
Q

spleen indentations

A

gastric area and renal area

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121
Q

spleen of hilum penetrated by (3)

A

splenic artery, splenic vein, lymphatic vessels

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122
Q

parenchyma of spleen has two types of tissue

A

red pulp, white pulp

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123
Q

red pulp contains

A

sinuses gorged with concentrated erythrocytes

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124
Q

white pulp contains

A

lymphocytes and macrophages aggregated with sleeves along small branches of splenic artery

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125
Q

consequence of splenectomy

A

more vulnerable to infection

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126
Q

innervation of spleen

A

splenic plexus

127
Q

spleen has what type of circulation

A

open

128
Q

open circulation meaning

A

blood squeezes through walls of sheathed capillaries into sinuses

129
Q

sinus of spleen drain into

A

larger sinuses

130
Q

larger sinuses of spleen drain into

A

splenic vein

131
Q

splenic vein drains into

A

hepatic portal vein

132
Q

splenic artery branches

A

repeatedly through parenchyma

133
Q

larger arteries of spleen surrounded by

A

fibrocollagenous sheath

134
Q

fibrocollagenous sheath of spleen disappears in

A

smaller branches

135
Q

smaller branches of spleen form

A

smaller arterties

136
Q

smaller arteries of spleen give off

A

number of short branches at right angles

137
Q

short branches given off by smaller arteries are known as

A

penicilliary arteries

138
Q

penicilliary arteries end in

A

sheathed capillaries

139
Q

sheathed capillaries of spleen have

A

blind-ending

140
Q

yellow bone marrow develops

A

adipose tissue

141
Q

5 mechanisms of venous return to the heart

A

pressure gradient, gravity, skeletal muscle pump, thoracic (respiratory pump), cardiac suction

142
Q

venous pressure gradient favours blood flow in which direction?

A

back towards heart

143
Q

pressure gradient and venous return increase when (2)

A

blood volume increases and general widespread vasoconstriction

144
Q

Skeletal muscle pump –> in limbs, veins are … and … by muscles

A

surrounded and massaged

145
Q

Skeletal muscle pump - contracting muscles squeeze blood out of compressed part of vein - what ensures blood flow in only one direction?

A

valves

146
Q

thoracic (respiratory) pump aids flow of venous blood from… to …

A

from abdominal to thoracic cavity

147
Q

cardiac suction happens during

A

ventricular systole

148
Q

during ventricular systole, chordae tendinae of AV valves pull cusps, expanding atrial space. This creates

A

suction which draws blood from venae cavae and pulmonary veins

149
Q

define circulatory shock

A

cardiac output insufficient to meet body’s metabolic needs

150
Q

two types of circulatory shock

A

cardiogenic shock, low venous return shock

151
Q

cardiogenic shock caused by

A

inadequate pumping of heart

152
Q

3 main types of low venous return shock

A

hypovolemic shock, obstructed venous return shock, venous pooling (vascular) shock

153
Q

definition of low venous return shock

A

cardiac output low because too little blood returning to heart

154
Q

most common type of low venous return shock

A

hypovolemic shock

155
Q

definition hypovolemic shock

A

loss of blood volume due to trauma, haemorrhage, bleeding ulcers, burns, dehydration

156
Q

definition of obstructed venous return shock

A

when blockage e.g. tumour, aneurysm blocks vein so blood flow is impeded on return to heart

157
Q

definition of venous pooling (vascular) shock

A

normal total blood volume but too much blood accumulating in limbs

158
Q

septic shock definition

A

bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability

159
Q

compensated shock definition

A

body trying to compensate for blood loss

160
Q

decompensated shock definition

A

body’s mechanisms unable to continue compensating for blood loss

161
Q

in compensated shock, hypotension triggers which reflex

A

baroreflex

162
Q

in compensated shock, baroreflex triggers production of…

A

angiotensin II

163
Q

angiotensin II from baroreflex triggers..

A

vasoconstriction

164
Q

in compensated shock, falling or fainting means gravity restores blood flow to

A

brain

165
Q

in decompensated shock, myocardial ischaemia and infarction lead to weakened heart and

A

cardiac output further reduced

166
Q

in decompensated shock, poor circulation leads to

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation, congested vessels and therefore reduced venous return

167
Q

in decompensated shock, ischaemia and acidosis of brainstem lead suppression of … which leads to loss of vasomotor tone > vasodilation > drop in BP > cardiac output reduced

A

vasomotor and cardiac centres

168
Q

internal bleeding definition

A

damage to artery or vein allows blood to collect in surrounding environment

169
Q

causes of internal bleeding (7)

A

blunt trauma (compression of internal organs), deceleration trauma (shift of organs upon deceleration), fractures (bone marrow = site of blood production), pregnancy, medication, spontaneous, alcohol abuse

170
Q

usual treatment of internal bleeding

A

surgery to repair site of damage and rectify cause

171
Q

short term cardiovascular response to low blood volume and haemorrhage

A

elevate BP

172
Q

long term cardiovascular response to low blood volume and haemorrhage

A

restoration of blood volume

173
Q

elevation of BP can be achieved by …. and …. reflexes increased cardiac output and causing peripheral vasoconstriction > increases heart rate

A

carotid and aortic reflexes

174
Q

elevation of BP can be achieved by stress and anxiety which stimulate …. nervous system headquarters in hypothalamus

A

sympathetic

175
Q

elevation of BP, stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system headquarters triggers further increase in vasomotor tone > constricts arterioles > raises BP. Vasoconstriction mobilises …. which improves ….

A

venous reserve … venous return

176
Q

elevation of BP, sympathetic activation stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete … and …. which increases cardiac output and extends peripheral vasoconstriction

A

adrenaline and noradrenaline

177
Q

elevation of BP, sympathetic activation stimulates posterior pituitary to release …. and stimulates production of …. which enhances vasoconstriction

A

ADH …. angiotensin II

178
Q

long term cardiovascular response to low blood volume and haemorrhage include

A

decline in capillary BP (recall of fluid from interstitial spaces) , aldosterone and ADH promote fluid retention and reabsorption at kidneys, thirst increases and digestive tract absorbs additional water, erythropoietin stimulates RBC production

179
Q

3 signs of shock:

A

low BP, low body temperature, rapid pulse (often weak and thready)

180
Q

treatment of shock in hospital (7)

A

IV (blood or blood products), medication to increase BP and CO, heart monitoring, Swan-Ganz catheterisation, stopping bleeding, blood transfusion or alternatives

181
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter is what type of catheter?

A

pulmonary artery catheter

182
Q

3 uses of Swan-Ganz catheter

A

detect sepsis and heart failure, monitor effects of drugs and treatment

183
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter directly measures pressure in (3)

A

right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery

184
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter measures wedge pressure of

A

left atrium (filling pressure)

185
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter has what type of tip?

A

balloon

186
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter can distinguish between what two types of shock

A

hypovolemic and cardiogenic

187
Q

Preferred neck site of insertion of Swan-Ganz catheter (4 veins)

A

Right Internal Jugular > Left Subclavian > Right Subclavian > Left Internal Jugular

188
Q

Left subclavian vein for Swan-Ganz catheter does not require catheter to

A

pass course at acute angle to enter superior vena cava

189
Q

In addition to the neck, Swan-Ganz catheter can be inserted into (2)

A

wrist, leg (femorally)

190
Q

what kind of route is used for left heart catheterisation

A

arterial

191
Q

what kind of route is used for right heart catheterisation

A

venous

192
Q

fractures of lower limb should be considered potential cause of

A

hypovolemic shock

193
Q

splintage of fractures can reduce

A

blood loss

194
Q

later complications of fractures include (4)

A

fat embolism, DVT, PE, infection

195
Q

compartment syndrome definition

A

bleeding into closed fascial space

196
Q

compartment syndrome takes up to how many hours to develop

A

48

197
Q

compartment syndrome is common in significant ….. fractures although it is possible in …. fractures too

A

closed; open

198
Q

compartment syndrome symptoms (5)

A

pain despite analgesia, extreme pain when moving toes, pallor, pulselessness, paraesthesia

199
Q

treatment of compartment syndrome (3)

A

oxygen by mask, fluid into veins, fasciotomy

200
Q

possible complications of compartment syndrome (6)

A

permanent nerve damage, permanent muscle damage, permanent scarring, loss of limb, infection, kidney failure

201
Q

respiratory acidosis from

A

hypoventilation

202
Q

respiratory alkalosis from

A

hyperventilation

203
Q

respiratory acidosis is due to

A

imbalance of ventilation-perfusion rates - too much CO2 left in blood stream

204
Q

respiratory alkalosis is due to

A

imbalance of ventilation-perfusion rates - too much CO2 removed from body

205
Q

buffer definition

A

any mechanism that resists change in pH by converting strong acid/base into weak one

206
Q

metabolic acidosis can be from (2)

A

lactic acid production or base loss (e.g. diarrhoea)

207
Q

metabolic alkalosis is rare but can result from (2)

A

overuse of bicarbonates or from loss of stomach acid

208
Q

type 1 respiratory failure oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

A

low oxygen, normal or low carbon dioxide

209
Q

type 2 respiratory failure oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

A

low oxygen, high carbon dioxide

210
Q

bicarbonate buffer system is a solution of

A

carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions

211
Q

bicarbonate buffer system equation

A

CO2 + H2O H2Co3 HCO3- + H+

212
Q

phosphate buffer system equation

A

H2PO4- HPO4(2-) + H+

213
Q

phosphate buffer system is …. that bicarbonate buffer system

A

stronger

214
Q

phosphate buffer system is more important where? why?

A

renal tubules; closer to optimum pH

215
Q

renal tubules secrete ……….. into tubular fluid where it binds to ………., ……….. and ……….. > excreted in urines

A

hydrogen ions; bicarbonate, ammonia, phosphate buffers

216
Q

hydrogen ions travel in form of ……. and ……

A

carbonic acid and water molecules

217
Q

in leukopoiesis, myeloblasts develop into

A

3 types of granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

218
Q

in leukopoiesis, monoblasts develop into

A

monocytes

219
Q

in leukopoiesis, monoblasts look identical to

A

myeloblasts

220
Q

in leukopoiesis, lymphoblasts develop into

A

all types of lymphocyte

221
Q

in leuokopoiesis, stem cells have receptors for specific ………. which respond to specific needs

A

colony stimulating factors

222
Q

tunica intima/interna =

A

endothelial lining and surrounding layer of connective tissue

223
Q

in arteries, tunica intima/interna has elastic fibres =

A

internal elastic membrane

224
Q

tunica media =

A

smooth muscle and loose connective tissue

225
Q

tunica media is bound to tunica interna and tunica externa by

A

collagen fibres

226
Q

in small artery, thickest layer is

A

tunica media

227
Q

tunica media separated from tunica externa by elastic fibres =

A

external elastic membrane

228
Q

tunica externa / adventitia =

A

connective tissue sheath

229
Q

in arteries, tunica externa/adventitia made of (2)

A

collagen and elastic fibres

230
Q

in veins, tunica externa/adventitia made of (2)

A

smooth muscle and elastic fibres

231
Q

thickest layer in veins is

A

tunica externa/adventitia

232
Q

elastic arteries are also known as

A

conducting arteries

233
Q

in elastic arteries, tunica media is mainly elastic not

A

muscle

234
Q

major branches of elastic arteries (2)

A

aorta, pulmonary trunk

235
Q

muscular arteries are also known as

A

distribution arteries

236
Q

muscular arteries distribute blood to (2)

A

skeletal muscles and organs

237
Q

superficial muscular arteries are important as

A

pressure points (pulses)

238
Q

arterioles have a poorly defined

A

tunica externa

239
Q

arterioles have varying degrees of

A

smooth muscle

240
Q

venules collect blood from

A

capillary beds

241
Q

smallest venules lack

A

tunica media

242
Q

in medium sized veins, tunica media is thin and lacks

A

muscle

243
Q

in medium sized veins, the thickest layer is the

A

tunica externa

244
Q

in medium sized veins, the tunica externa has

A

longitudinal bundles of elastic and collagen

245
Q

large veins have a thick tunica externa made of

A

elastic and collagen

246
Q

large veins have slender

A

tunica media

247
Q

examples of large veins (2)

A

venae cavae and tributaries

248
Q

valves are found in (2)

A

venules and medium sized veins

249
Q

capillaries are a ………………………… inside a …………

A

endothelial tube, thin basement membrane

250
Q

capillaries have absent (2)

A

tunica media, tunica externa

251
Q

continuous capillaries supply

A

most regions of body

252
Q

some continuous capillaries have …….. which restrict permeability

A

tight junctions

253
Q

fenestrated capillaries have ….. that penetrate endothelial lining which allows rapid exchange between ….. and ….

A

pores; plasma and interstitial fluid

254
Q

sinusoids resemble

A

fenestrated capillaries

255
Q

sinusoids are flattened and …….. shaped

A

irregularly

256
Q

in sinusoids, basement membrane is

A

thin/absent

257
Q

entrance to each capillary guarded by

A

precapillary sphincter

258
Q

precapillary sphincter controls

A

where blood flows within plexus

259
Q

if more than one artery supplies capillary bed they are known as

A

collaterals

260
Q

collaterals fuse before arterioles at

A

arterial anastomoses

261
Q

direct connections between arterioles and venules are known as

A

arteriovenous anastomoses

262
Q

creatinine = waste product of

A

muscle metabolism

263
Q

creatinine produced from

A

creatine

264
Q

creatinine is filtered out of blood by

A

kidneys

265
Q

high creatinine levels lead to reduced

A

kidney function

266
Q

hyperkalaemia can indicate

A

reduced kidney function

267
Q

hyperkalaemia is when plasma potassium what level

A

> 5.5mmol/L

268
Q

blood pressure equation

A

CO X peripheral resistance

269
Q

cardiac output definition

A

volume of blood expelled from heart/min

270
Q

equation for cardiac output

A

stroke volume X HR

271
Q

capillary hydrostatic pressure definition

A

force exerted by fluid pressing against capillary wall

272
Q

venous pressure definition

A

pressure within venous system

273
Q

total peripheral resistance is affected by (3)

A

turbulence, blood viscosity, vascular resistance

274
Q

vascular resistance is affected by friction which is determined by

A

diameter and vessel length

275
Q

elastic rebound forces blood towards

A

capillaries

276
Q

mean arterial pressure equation

A

(1/3 pulse pressure) + diastolic pressure

277
Q

pulse pressure =

A

systolic - diastolic BP

278
Q

high BP means …. is 6X more likely

A

stroke

279
Q

high BP means … is 3X more likely

A

cardiac death

280
Q

high BP means …. is 2X more likely

A

peripheral arterial disease

281
Q

secondary hypertension =

A

cause of hypertension known

282
Q

primary hypertension =

A

cause of hypertension unknown

283
Q

9 risk factors of hypertension

A

age, family history, african/ caribbean origin, high salt intake, lack of exercise,overweight, smoking, lots of alcohol, stress

284
Q

4 stages of hypertension

A

stage 1, stage 2, sever, hypertensive emergency/malignant hypertension

285
Q

stage 1 hypertension =

A

BP = 140/90 + ambulatory 135/85

286
Q

Stage 2 hypertension =

A

BP = 160/100 + ambulatory 150/95

287
Q

sever hypertension =

A

systolic = 180+ / diastolic 110+

288
Q

hypertensive emergency/ malignant hypertension =

A

acute impairment of organs, can result in irreversibly damage to organ

289
Q

rebound hypertension =

A

when stop taking drugs to reduce BP - 30-50% genetic, 50% environmental

290
Q

hypertension can lead to fainting because there is an increase in adrenaline binding to … ……. ……… which causes dilation of skeletal muscle arteries and reduction in blood flow and pressure to the brain

A

beta2- adrenergic receptors

291
Q

global prevalence hypertension

A

40%

292
Q

hypertension more prevalent in younger men than women, but women catch up as get

A

older

293
Q

5% CO2 carried in blood as ….. as

A

dissolved

294
Q

90% CO2 transported as hydrated

A

carbonic acid

295
Q

chloride shift =

A

chloride into Hb and bicarbonate out via antiport (chloride-bicarbonate exchanger)

296
Q

oxygen utilisation coefficient usually

A

~22%

297
Q

4 factors affecting rate of oxygen unloading

A

ambient PO2, temperature, Bohr effect, bisphosphoglycerate

298
Q

temperature and oxygen unloading

A

higher temp > oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to right > increased oxygen unloading

299
Q

bohr effect and oxygen unloading

A

more carbon dioxide produced by tissues > increase in hydrogen ions > weakened Hb oxygen bond > increased oxygen unloading

300
Q

Haldane effect =

A

low levels of HbO2 > blood transports more carbon dioxide

301
Q

hypocapnia =

A

low blood PCO2

302
Q

hypercapnia =

A

high blood PCO2

303
Q

hypoxic drive due to long term

A

hypoxaemia

304
Q

hypoxic drive means respiration is driven by

A

low PO2

305
Q

hypoxia =

A

low oxygen reaching tissues

306
Q

hypoxic hypoxia =

A

lack of oxygen in blood flow to tissues

307
Q

hypoxic hypoxia usually due to

A

inadequate breathing

308
Q

anaemic hypoxia =

A

low Hb levels reduce oxygen carrying capacity of blood - many causes

309
Q

Stagnant (circulatory) hypoxia =

A

lack of blood flow to tissues

310
Q

Histiotoxic anaemia =

A

adequate oxygen inhaled and delivered to tissues, tissues just cannot utilise oxygen

311
Q

Metabolic hypoxia =

A

more demand for oxygen by tissues than normal - from raises metabolism e.g. sepsis

312
Q

5 symptoms of hypoxia

A

dizziness, dyspnoea, confusion, tachycardia, cyanosis

313
Q

6 causes of hypercapnia

A

hypoventilation, diminished consciousness, lung disease, rebreathing exhaled carbon dioxide, exposure to high carbon dioxide environment, initial effect of sleep apnoea > respiratory acidosis

314
Q

5 symptoms of hypercapnia

A

hand flaps, flushed skin, hyperventilation, dyspnoea, reduced neural activity

Sem 2 (11 decks)

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