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Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What is the process called by which new blood cells are formed?

A

hematopoiesis

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2
Q

What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?

A

120 days

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3
Q

What is the lifespan of a circulating platelet?

A

7-10 days

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4
Q

What percentage of blood is RBCs?

A

45%

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5
Q

What percentage of blood is plasma?

A

55%

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6
Q

What percentage of blood is white blood cells and platelets?

A

Less than 1%

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7
Q

what else can a hemocytoblast be called?

A

hematopoietic stem cell

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8
Q

What stem cells can a hemocytoblast form?

A

lymphoid stem cell and myeloid stem cell

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9
Q

What do erythrocytes lack that many other cells have?

A

mitochondria and a nucleus

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10
Q

List possible end products from a myeloid progenitor cell

A

Platelets, erythrocytes, macrophages, granulocytes

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11
Q

What are the three granulocytes?

A

neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil

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12
Q

What cell comes between the myeloid progenitor cell and the devlopment of a neutrophil?

A

myeloblast

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13
Q

What type precursor cell to erythrocytes has no nucleus and enters the circulation before later maturing into an erythrocyte?

A

reticulocyte

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14
Q

What large bone marrow cell that comes from myeloid progenitor cells is responsible for the production of platelets?

A

Megakaryocyte

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15
Q

What do monocytes develop into, allowing them to enter peripheral tissues?

A

Macrophages

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16
Q

What comprises the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, ossicles of the middle ear, hyoid bone, rib cage, sternum, vertebral column

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17
Q

What can common lymphoid progenitor cells develop into?

A

T cells, B cells and natural killer cells

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18
Q

Where does the production of red blood cells begin in utero?

A

yolk sac

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19
Q

In the fetus where are the predominant sites of hematopoiesis?

A

Second trimester- liver

From 7 months- bone marrow

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20
Q

Describe how the distribution of red marrow changes with age after birth.

A

In the first 4 years- almost all marrow cavities contain red marrow
In adults- red marrow is limited to the axial skeleton and long bones

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21
Q

What is red marrow replaced with as we age

A

yellow marrow (fat)

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22
Q

what does EPO stand for?

A

erythropoeitin

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23
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

The kidney

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24
Q

What is the most abundant leucocyte?

A

neutrophil

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25
Q

How many alpha and beta chains does adult haemoglobin contain?

A

2 alpha, 2 beta

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26
Q

What type of ring is present in the haem group?

A

porphyrin ring

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27
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

The thymus

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28
Q

What is a T cell referred to when it has not yet encountered its specific antigen?

A

naive T cell

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29
Q

What do naive T cells with CD8 become?

A

cytotoxic T cells

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30
Q

What do naive T cells with CD4 become?

A

T helper cells

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31
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells release?

A

Cytotoxic granules

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32
Q

Gives examples of T helper cell subtypes

A

Th1 cells, Th2 cells, Th17 cells and regulatory T cells

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33
Q

What do T helper cells release?

A

cytokines

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34
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

The bone marrow

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35
Q

What do plasma cells produce?

A

antibodies

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36
Q

What types of memory cells are there?

A

Memory T cells and memory B cells

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37
Q

Do all B cells require T cells to produce antibodies?

A

Most but not all. Ones that do not require the presence of T cells are called T-independent B cells

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38
Q

Where can you find the macrophages that break down old and damaged erythrocytes?

A

Spleen, Liver, Bone marrow

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39
Q

What is haemoglobin first broken down into by macrophages?

A

heme and globin

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40
Q

What is globin broken down into?

A

amino acids

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41
Q

What drives erythropoeisis?

A

hypoxia

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42
Q

Where is intrinsic factor produced?

A

the stomach

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43
Q

What type of cells produce intrinsic factor?

A

parietal cells

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44
Q

What does intrinsic factor bind to?

A

B12

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45
Q

In what part of the GI tract is the intrinsic factor bound to B12 absorbed?

A

The ileum

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46
Q

What does B12 bind to in the circulation?

A

transcobalamin I and II

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47
Q

Fe2+ leaves the enterocyte via what transporter?

A

ferroportin

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48
Q

On, leaving the enterocyte and entering the circulation, what is Fe2+ converted into?

A

Fe3+

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49
Q

Once in the circulation after absorption from the diet, what does Fe3+ bind to?

A

transferrin

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50
Q

Describe the roles of eosinophils

A

Role in protection against parasites, roles in inflammation and allergic response

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51
Q

Describe the role of neutrophils

A

Phagocytic, release chemotaxins and cytokines

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52
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Movement in response to chemical stimulation

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53
Q

How do platelets bind to collagen?

A

GP1a

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54
Q

How do platelets bind to VWF?

A

GP1b

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55
Q

What is the word for when a platelet is activated and releases its contents?

A

Degranulate

56
Q

What percentage of blood plasma is water?

A

90%

57
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma without clotting factors

58
Q

Where is albumin produced?

A

The liver

59
Q

What forms the bridge between GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelets, binding them together?

A

fibrinogen

60
Q

What is primary haemostasis?

A

Formation of the primary platelet plug

61
Q

What is secondary haemostasis?

A

Coagulation cascades

62
Q

What are the 5 steps of haemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular spasm
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Coagulation
  4. Clot retraction and repair
  5. Fibrinolysis
63
Q

What is vascular spasm?

A

Endothelin- Damaged epithelial cells release endothelin-> endothelin causes contraction of smooth muscle -> vasoconstriction
Myogenic mechanism- direct injury to smooth muscle causes contraction
Nociceptors- stimulation causes contraction of smooth muscle

64
Q

What helps to keep platelets inactive normally?

A

Endothelial cells secrete nitric oxide and PGI2

65
Q

What substances that are released by activated platelets cause vasoconstriction?

A

Thromboxane A2 and serotonin

66
Q

What is the function of prothrombin activator?

A

Converts prothrombin into thrombin

67
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

Converts fibrinogen into fibrin

68
Q

Describe the changes in solubility in plasma between fibrinogen and fibrin

A

Fibrinogen- soluble in blood plasma

Fibrin- Insoluble in blood plasma

69
Q

What does the cross-linking of fibrin strands create?

A

The fibrin mesh

70
Q

Describe how the endothelial cells on either side of a section of damaged blood vessels get brought closer together?

A

Platelet contraction

71
Q

What converts plasminogen into plasmin?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator

72
Q

What does plasmin do?

A

Degrades fibrin mesh

73
Q

What is oedema?

A

Excessive accumulation of serous fluid in the intercellular spaces of tissue

74
Q

What type of antibody is capable of transplacental passage from mother to fetus?

A

IgG

75
Q

Give two examples of agranulocytes

A

Monocytes and Lymphocytes

76
Q

Put the granulocytes in order of most to least abundant

A

Neutophils, eosinophils, basophils

77
Q

Which is more abundant- lymphocytes or monoctyes?

A

Lynphocytes

78
Q

What is the most common white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

79
Q

Describe the nucleus of a neutrophil

A

Multi lobed

80
Q

What three types of cytoplasmic granule do neutrophils contain?

A

primary, secondary and tertiary granules

81
Q

Give an example of a primary granule found in a neutrophil

A

Lysosomes

82
Q

Describe the action of secondary granules in the neutrophil

A

secrete substances that mobalise inflammatory mediators

83
Q

In a parasitic infection which granulocyte would you expect to see an increase in number of ?

A

Eosinophils

84
Q

Describe the nucleus of an eosinophil

A

bi-lobed

85
Q

Describe the apppearance of the cytoplasmic granules of an eosinophil

A

Large red granules with crystalline inclusions

Lozange shaped granules with crystalline cores

86
Q

How do eosinophils effect mast cell secretion

A

Inhibit it

87
Q

What effect do eosinophils have on histamine?

A

Neutralise histamine- restrict inflammatory responses

88
Q

Describe the nucleus of basophils

A

bi-lobed

89
Q

What do the granules in basophils contain

A

histamine

90
Q

What do basophils release in response to allergens?

A

histamine

91
Q

What are basophils the circulating from of?

A

The tissue mast cell

92
Q

Can you tell different lymphocytes apart on H&E stained section?

A

Nope. They all look the same

93
Q

What is the main role of natural killer cells?

A

maily kill virus infected cells

94
Q

What is the tole of T suppressor cells?

A

Suppress T helper cells and therefore suppress the immune response

95
Q

What is the role of T cytotoxic cells?

A

Kill previously marked target cells

96
Q

Describe the nucleus of monocytes

A

Reniform

97
Q

What can monocytes differentiate into?

A 
tissue macrophages-everywhere
Kupffer cells-liver 
Osteoclasts-bone
Antigen presenting cells-everywhere
Alveolar macrophages-lung
98
Q

What blood types can someone who has type A blood donate to?

A

A and AB

99
Q

Which blood type has no antigens?

A

O-

100
Q

What type of antibodies will someone with type A blood have?

A

Anti-B antibodies

101
Q

Will someone with AB blood have any anti A or anti B antibodies?

A

No

102
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when the mother and baby have what blood types?

A

Mother- Rh-
Baby-Rh+
Antibodies produced by the mother can attack the baby’s red blood cells

103
Q

Who can someone who is Rh negative donate to?

A

Someone who is either Rh positive or negative

104
Q

Who can someone who is Rh+ donate to?

A

Someone who is also Rh positive but not anyone who is Rh negative

105
Q

What are the possible geneotypes for someone who has type A blood?

A

AA or AO

106
Q

When a platelet is activated describe how it changes shape

A

Surface area increases

107
Q

With regards to the GPIIb/IIIa receptors, what changes occur after the platelet is activated?

A

Number of GPIIb/IIa receptors increases

108
Q

What causes the increase in affinity for fibrinogen after a platelet is activated?

A

An increase in the number of GPIIb/IIa receptors

109
Q

What is firbinogen a precursor to?

A

Fibrin

110
Q

What is atherogenesis?

A

the formation of fatty deposits in the arteries

111
Q

Describe how a platelet can be activated

A

Thrombin- activates platelets( and cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin)
Thromboxane A2- activates platelets
Collagen- GP6 receptor binds to collagen, activating platelets
ADP

112
Q

What receptors do platelets have for collagen?

A

Glycoprotein VI

Glycoprotein Ia/IIa

113
Q

What does COX stand for?

A

Cyclooxygenase

114
Q

What is the role of COX-1 in platelets?

A

Converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandin H2 and then thromboxane A2

115
Q

Which cyclogenoxygenases are involved in prostacyclin production in endothelial cells?

A

COX-1 and COX-2

116
Q

What is are the precursors to prostayclins produced in the endothelial cells?

A

Arachidonic acid and prostaglandin H2 (Prostaglandin H2 comes after arachidonic acid)

117
Q

Describe the role of COX-1

A

Thromboxane A2 mediated platelet aggregation

118
Q

What does COX-2 mediate?

A

Prostacylin production

119
Q

What does prostacyclin inhibit?

A

Platelet aggregation

120
Q

What type of receptors are P2Y1 and P2Y12?

A

G-protein coupled receptors

121
Q

What binds to P2Y1 and P2Y12?

A

ADP

122
Q

Binding of ADP to P2Y1 receptors has what effect?

A

Initiates platelet activation

123
Q

Binding of ADP to P2Y12 receptors has what effect?

A

Amplification of platelet activation via reducing inhibition of activation

124
Q

What type of granules release ADP when a platelet is activated?

A

Dense granules

125
Q

What receptor does thrombin bind to?

A

PAR-1

126
Q

Describe the position of aminophospholipids in a resting platelet

A

Aminophospholipids are on the inner layer of plasma membrane

127
Q

What ion is released from inracellular stores when a platelet is activated?

A

CA++

128
Q

What does Ca++ activate in the platelet?

A

scramblase

129
Q

What does Ca++ inhibit in the platelet?

A

translocase

130
Q

How does the position of the aminophospholipids in the platelet change due an increase in Ca++?

A

Causes aminophospholipids to be on the outher layer of the membrane

131
Q

What enzyme forms on the surface of the platelet as a result of increased Ca++?

A

prothrombinase

132
Q

What is the other name for clotting factor X?

A

prothrombinase

133
Q

What is clotting factor II?

A

Thrombin

134
Q

What type of cell releases tissue plasminogen activator?

A

endothelial

135
Q

What is fibrin broken down by plasmin into?

A

fibrin degradation products

136
Q

What does P-selectin allow platelets to bind to?

A

white blood cells

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