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Histology Sem 3 > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

4 elements of blood

A

RBC, WBC, platelets, plasma

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2
Q

Volume of blood which is composed of cells relative to the total volume

A

Hematocrit

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3
Q

When hematocrit is low

A

<30% Anemia

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4
Q

When hematocrit is high

A

> 60% Polycythemia

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5
Q

Most common plasma protein

A

Albumin

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6
Q

Types of globulins

A

Gamma (immuno), alpha and beta (non-immune)

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7
Q

Inactive form of thrombin

A

Prothrombin

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8
Q

Plasma protein that in a cascade of blood clotting reactions is transformed into fibrin

A

Fibrinogen

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9
Q

Formed elements of human blood

A

Blood cells and platelets

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10
Q

Fills erythrocytes

A

Hemoglobin

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11
Q

Peripheral membrane protein that forms a meshwork of fibers on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane

A

Spectrin

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12
Q

Provides binding between spectrin filaments and integral membrane proteins

A

Ankyrin

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13
Q

Mutation of spectrin

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

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14
Q

Characterized by the presence of red blood cells of different size in the peripheral blood

A

Anisocytosis

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15
Q

When RBCs are irregularly shaped

A

Poikilocytosis

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16
Q

Parts of hemoglobin HbA

A

2 alpha and 2 beta

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17
Q

Hemoglobin HbA2

A

2 alpha and 2 delta

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18
Q

Hemoglobin HbF

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma

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19
Q

What vitamin is necessary for incoporation of iron into the RBC?

A

B12

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20
Q

Cause of sickle cell anemia

A

Point mutation in beta globin chain of hemoglobin A

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21
Q

Universal blood recipients

A

AB

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22
Q

When Rh+ of newborn reacts with Rh- mom resulting in IgG crossing the placenta

A

Erthroblastosis fetalis

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23
Q

What do you give Rh (-) moms with Rh (+) babies?

A

RhoGAM

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24
Q

Condition with more than 12,000 WBC per mm3
per mm3 is called what?

A

Leukocytosis

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25
Q

Condition with less than 5,000 WBC is called what?

A

Leukopenia

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26
Q

2 Major categories of WBCs

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

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27
Q

3 types of granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

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28
Q

Classic characteristic of granulocytes

A

nuclues divided into lobes, hence why they are names polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

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29
Q

2 major types of granules in granulocytes

A

Azurophilic and specific granules

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30
Q

Staining of asurophilic granules

A

purple

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31
Q

Staining of specific granules

A

dark blue (basophilic
granules), orange (eosinophilic granules), or do not stain at all (neutrophilic
granules)

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32
Q

Which WBCs can divide and which cannot?

A

Granulocytes are non-dividing, agranulocytes can divide

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33
Q

2 Types of agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

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34
Q

Most common WBC in the peripheral blood

A

Neutrophil

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35
Q

Appearance of neutrophils

A

Fairly large cells with mulilobed nuclei (have Barr body in females that looks like a drumstick)

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36
Q

3 types of granules in neutrophils

A

Neutrophilic bactericidal proteins, asurophilic (lysosomes), tertiary (gelatinase and glycoproteins)

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37
Q

What diseases is neutropenia associated with?

A

autoimmune dieases and acquired immune deficiency syndrome

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38
Q

What is formed when endothelial cell cyotkines trigger neutrophils to adhere to the walls?

A

Marginating pool

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39
Q

After adhering to the endothelial wall, what happens to neutrophils?

A

Migrate into the tissue thru the endothelium of the postcapillary venules to become tissue neutrophils

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40
Q

What type of immunity are neutrophils associated with?

A

Cell-mediated immunity via phagocytosis of bacteria

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41
Q

What does the binding of chemotatic agents to the plasma membrane of a neutrophil cause?

A

The release of tertiary and neutrophilic granules

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42
Q

What interleukin do neutrophils produce and what does it do?

A

IL-1 induces fever

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43
Q

Morphology of eosinophils

A

Bilobed nucleus with numerous granules

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44
Q

Types of eosinophilic granules

A

Cytotoxins, neurotoxins, histaminase

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45
Q

Role of cytotoxins

A

Designed to destroy protozoan and helminthic parasites. (Includes major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, and eosinophil peroxidase)

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46
Q

Role of neurotoxin

A

Designed to cause dysfunction in the parasite’s nervous system

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47
Q

When are eosinophils commonly found in the peripheral blood?

A

Parasitic infections and allergic reactions

48
Q

Rarest WBC

A

Basophil

49
Q

Morphology of basophils

A

Smallest granulocyte, lobed nucleus, basophilic granules with histamine and heparin

50
Q

Major function of basophils

A

Produce histamines

51
Q

When are basophils most commonly found in the peripheral blood?

A

Chronic granulocytic leukemia and chicken pox

52
Q

Most common agranulocyte

A

Lymphocytes

53
Q

3 main types of lymphocytes?

A

T cells, B cells, Natural Killer Cells

54
Q

Most common type of lymphocyte

A

T cell

55
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

Thymus

56
Q

How are T cells characterized?

A

T cell receptor and CD3

57
Q

What do T cells produce?

A

Cytokines to direct and recruit other cells of the immune system

58
Q

3 Types of T cells

A

T helpers, Regulatory T cells, Cytotoxic T Cells

59
Q

Characteristics of T helper cells

A

CD4+, cytokines activate/stimulated B cell proliferation/differentiation, promotes cell mediated immunity, activates macrophages/T cells/mast cells

60
Q

Characteristics of Regulatory T cells

A

CD4+, cytokines inhibit functions of other leukocytes, inhibit autoimmunity

61
Q

Characteristics of Cytotoxic T cells

A

CD8+, activated by helper Ts, destroy cells carrying antigen (cell mediated immunity)

62
Q

Cell responsible for transplant rejections

A

Cytotoxic T cells

63
Q

Main function of B cells

A

Produce antobodies (Ig) aka humoral immunity

64
Q

Characteristics of B cells

A

surface immunoglobin

65
Q

Activation of B cells

A

1 exposure triggers primary immune response, small B cells go thru maturation and get programmed into large lymphocytes, divide into plasma cells to produce antibodies

66
Q

Large lymphocytes programmed during their development to kill certain virus-infected calls and some types of tumor cells

A

Natural Killer cells

67
Q

Blood cancer that involves undifferentiated precursor cells

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

68
Q

Blood cancer that involves partially differetiated cells

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

69
Q

Characteristics of monocytes

A

Large cells, kidney-shaped nucleus, cytoplams with many lysosomes and mitochondria

70
Q

Anucleate particles that are abundant in human blood

A

Platelets

71
Q

2 main parts of platelets

A

Peripheral zone (hyalomere) and Central zone (granulomere)

72
Q

Components of hyalomere of platelets

A

Cytoskeletal elements

73
Q

Components of granulomere of platelets

A

Lysosomes, alpha granules, dense granules

74
Q

Contents of alpha granules

A

Adhesion proteins, clotting factors (vWF and fibrogen)

75
Q

Contents of dense granules

A

Factors involved in platelet adhesion (serotonin and ADP)

76
Q

What happens when collagen in exposed in a damaged blood vessel?

A

Platelets adhere to collagen

77
Q

Released by platelets to promote adhesion and vasoconstriction

A

Thromboxane, serotonin, ADP

78
Q

Causes the clot to contract

A

Actin and myosin filaments of the platelet cytoskeleton

79
Q

Released by adhered platelets’ alpha granules

A

Platelet thromboplastic factor (coagulation factor)

80
Q

What is platelet thromboplastic factor’s role?

A

Converts inactive prothrombin into thrombin

81
Q

Role of fibrin

A

Forms a dense meshwork of fibers in the area where the blood vessel is damaged that acts as the skeleton for the clot

82
Q

Provides a sticky surface for clot assembly

A

Platelets

83
Q

Autoimmune disease that is caused by the deficiency pf platelets

A

Thrombocytopenia

84
Q

Signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia

A

Larger and more active platelets formed, spontaneous hemorrhages (beneath skin and mucous membranes), Tx with steriods

85
Q

Process of blood cell formation

A

Hemopoiesis

86
Q

Origin of blood cells

A

Mesodermal and arise from mesenchyme

87
Q

Precursor blood cell

A

Hemopoietic stem cell (aka pluripotential blood stem cell PPSC)

88
Q

2 Major progenitor cells from HSC

A

Common myeloid progenitor and common lymphoid progenitor

89
Q

What do common myeloid progenitors give rise to?

A

Megakeryocyte/Erythocyte progenitors (forms RBCs, magekaryocytes, and platelets) and Granulocyte/monocyte progenitors ((neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), mast
cells, and monocytes.

90
Q

What do common lymphoid progenitors give rise to?

A

T/B cells and NKC

91
Q

What stimulates hemopoiesis?

A

Colony-stimulating factors

92
Q

produced by macrophages, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts. It
stimulates the formation of granulocytes

A

Granulocyte CSF aka filgrastim

93
Q

produced by T-lymphocytes, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts. It stimulates the production of granulocytes and macrophages

A

Granulocyte + macrophage CSF aka sargramostim

94
Q

produced by macrophages, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts.
It stimulates the formation of macrophages

A

Macrophage CSF

95
Q

Produced by T cells to stimulate the production of all myeloid cells

A

Interleukin-3

96
Q

Produced in the kidney cells to stimulate RBC production

A

Eryhtropoietin aka epoetin

97
Q

Stimulates production and differentiation of megakaryocytes and increases platelet count.

A

Thrombopoietin (clinically used to improve clotting)

98
Q

Produced by the stromal cells in the bone marrow and stimulates the production of platelets similar to TPO

A

IL-11 aka oprelvekin

99
Q

4 major phases of prenatal hemopoeisis

A

Mesoblastic, hepatic, splenic, myeloid

100
Q

Phase that begins during the 2nd week of development. When blood islands are formed from the yolk sack mesenchyme

A

Mesoblastic phase

101
Q

Phase that begins during the 6th week of development. Nucleated erythrocytes are present during this stage and white blood cells start appearing by the 8th week

A

Hepatic phase

102
Q

Phase that begins during the 12th week of development and continues along with the hepatic stage

A

Splenic phase

103
Q

Phase that takes place in bone marrow, begins durign the 5th month and continues into postnatal stage

A

Myeloid phase

104
Q

6 Stages of erythropoiesis

A

Proerythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatophilic erythroblast, Orthochromatophilic erythroblast, Reticulocyte, mature erythrocyte

105
Q

Erythroblast phase with a deeply basophilic sytoplasm and hemoglobin form a distinctive lake

A

Basophilic erthroblast

106
Q

Erythroblast phase that exhibits mitotic activity

A

Polychromatophilic erythroblast

107
Q

Erythroblast phase with a smal, dense nucleus with a pinkish hempglobin

A

Orthochromatophilic erythroblast postmitotic cell

108
Q

What does the presense of reticulocytes in the peripheral blood indicate?

A

Increased levels of RBC production in the bone marrow

109
Q

5 stages of Granulopoiesis

A

Myeloblast, Promyelocyte, Myelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Band form, mature neutrophil

110
Q

Largest cell in the granulopoiesis lineage

A

Promyelocyte (contains azurophilic granules)

111
Q

Stage of granulopoiesis that contains specific granules and exhibits activity

A

Myelocyte

112
Q

Stage of granulopoiesis that does not exhibit mitotitic activity

A

Metamyelocyte

113
Q

Stage of granulopoiesis that has a horse-shaped nucleus

A

Band form

114
Q

Stages of monocytopoiesis

A

Monoblast, promonocyte, monocyte

115
Q

Stages of thrombopoiesis

A

Megakaryoblast, megakaryocyte

116
Q

Formed from the megakaryocyte

A

Platelet

Histology Sem 3 (7 decks)

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