blood Flashcards

1
Q

3 steps in haemostasis

A

vasocontriction
platelet plug formation
clotting cascade

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2
Q

what happens after haemostasis

A

clot retraction & fibrinolysis

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3
Q

platelet plug- how is there growth

A

positive feedback system with TXA2, ADP 5-HT

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4
Q

platelet plug- how is the growth limited

A

negative feedback with anticoagulants - antagonise platelet plug

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5
Q

describe what happens during coagulation/clotting

A

After the platelets have aggregated and bound to Von Willibrand Factor, the next step in reducing blood loss is to convert the blood around the site of damage into a plug with a solid gel like consistency
Circulating soluble plasma proteins called fibrinogen
are converted to insoluble polymer strands of fibrin
which form a mesh, trapping blood cells and preventing blood loss.

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6
Q

true or flase: Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is the final step in a cascade of reactions which can either follow an intrinsic pathway

A

false: Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is the final step in a cascade of reactions which can either follow an intrinsic OR extrinsic pathway.

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7
Q

what are most active clotting factors

A

serine protease enzymes
(hydrolyse peptide bonds)

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8
Q

what does factor XIII do

A

a transglutaminase (links glutamine and lysine residues)
knits the fibrin strands together

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9
Q

why is calcium important for blood clotting

A

no calcium would mean no clotting, important for the intrinsic cascade pathway

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10
Q

what does EDTA do

A

it is a calcium chelator and it takes calcium out of blood plasma and inhibit clotting in ‘in vitro’ storage

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11
Q

what is the cascade caused by thrimbin

A

Fibrinogen fibrin monomers
* Polymerisation, H bonds, fibrin strands
* Factor XIIIa covalent cross linkage stabilisation
* Stable mesh surrounds platelet plug
* Clot retraction

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12
Q

what surrounds the platelet plug

A

stable mesh

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13
Q

Clot Stabilisation: what is the main roles of this

A

circulating soluble fibrinogen to stable insoluble fibrin mesh

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14
Q

what is clot retraction

A

actin and mysoin filaments in platelets
contract, drawing edges of wound together (thrombin stimulates release of intracellular Ca++)

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15
Q

what is the fibrolytic system also known as

A

thrombolytic system

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16
Q

fibrolytic system: role of this system

A

clot dissolution breakdown

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17
Q

Fibrolytic systems: what is the fibrin clots catalysed by

A

Catalysed by the enzyme plasmin. Digests fibrin present in clots

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18
Q

Fibrolytic System: where is plasmin from

A

converted from plasminogen, which circulates in an inactive form

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19
Q

Fibrolytic System: which molecules ciruclate in their inactive forms

A

fibrinogen, plasminogen

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20
Q

Fibrolytic System: what is t-PA inhibited by

A

Inhibited by Plasmin Activator Inhibitor (PAI-1) – platelets rich source

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21
Q

Fibrolytic System: how to increase activity of t-PA

A

Binding to fibrin increases the enzymatic activity of t-PA

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22
Q

Fibrolytic System: what does t-PA stand for

A

Tissue plasminogen activator

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23
Q

Fibrolytic System: where is t-PA release

A

released by endothelial cells, incorporated in clot during formation

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24
Q

Fibrolytic System: where is t-PA ‘s function

A

promotes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin leading to breakdown of fibrin, fibrinogen and Factors V and VIII

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25
Q

name 5 anti coagulation agents

A

prostacyclin, nitric oxide, heparin, thrombomodulin, tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)

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26
Q

what are the commonly used drugs affecting haemostasis

A

aspirin, warfarin

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27
Q

role of aspirin and warfarin

A

Both reduce clotting ability and therefore potentially lead to increased bleeding time

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28
Q

role of Prostacyclin

A

vasodilator, antagonises TXA2

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29
Q

role of Heparin

A

binds to and activates circulating plasma protein antithrombin. Neutralises clotting factors (IX-XII)

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30
Q

role of Nitric oxide (NO)

A

vasodilator, opposes platelet aggregation

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31
Q

role of Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI)

A

binds to and inhibits thromboplastin/Factor VII complex

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32
Q

role of thrombomodulin

A

binds thrombin to inhibit clotting.
Protein C + co-factor, protein S, inactivate clotting factors V and VIII and
promotes formation of plasmin from plasminogen (degrades clot)

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33
Q

what does warfarin do

A

inhibits the action of vitamin K reductase, hence less conversion of
Vitamin K-2,3 epoxide to VITK-H2

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34
Q

true or false: warfarin takes into action quickly

A

false: takes long time to take effect

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35
Q

describe the fibrolytic system cascade

A

Dietary Vit.K –> Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase activates clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, vitamin –> Vit.K reductase reduces from K-2,3 epoxide to Vitamin K-H2

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36
Q

describe the difference between activations of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

A

intrinsic: activated by collagen and other activators and positive feedback of thrombin
extrinsic pathway: activated through exposure of tissue factor III and positive feedback of active X

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37
Q

describe the common pathway of the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

A

prothrombin - fibrinogen - fibrin- active XIII- cross linked fibrin
positive feedback of thrombin (IP) and active x (EP)

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38
Q

how much blood is there in a healthy 70 kg man, in a woman and new-born baby

A

Man: 5 litres of blood: 1L in lungs, 3L in systemic venous circulation, 1L in heart and arterial circulation
New born baby: 350ml
Less in women (approx. 7-8% body weight)

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39
Q

name the 6 functions of blood

A
  1. Carriage of physiologically active compounds (plasma)
  2. Clotting (platelets)
  3. Defence (white blood cells)
  4. Carriage of gas (red blood cells)
  5. Thermoregulation
  6. Maintenance of ECF pH
    CCCDTM
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40
Q

what is the composition of blood

A

Consists of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets

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41
Q

what is the composition of plasma

A

4% body weight and 95% water, Composition normally kept within strict limits.

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42
Q

what is Colloid Oncotic Pressure

A

is a form of osmotic pressure induced by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel’s plasma

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43
Q

true or false: plasma proteins can readily cross the capillary wall

A

false: Plasma proteins do not readily cross the capillary wall

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44
Q

how is net movement determined from interstitial space through capillary wall to vessel lumen with blood plasma/ plasma proteins

A

Net direction of movement is determined by balance between colloid oncotic pressure (favours
movement into capillary) and capillary hydrostatic pressure (blood pressure) which favours movement
out of capillary

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45
Q

what does the vessel lumen vs Interstitial space
contain

A

plasma proteins and blood plasma
Interstitial space: Interstitial fluid - Na+, H2O and glucose

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46
Q

what does the Interstitial fluid act as

A

Interstitial fluid acts as fluid reservoir (volume approx. 3-4 times greater than plasma)

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47
Q

what are the 3 plasma proteins

A

albumin, globulin (subdivided into a, ß, y globulins), fibrinogens and other clotting factors

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48
Q

function of plasma

A

circulates biological active molecules and compounds

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49
Q

innate vs adaptive immune system difference

A

INNATE
First to come into play – quick response
* Non-specific response
*no ‘memory’
ADAPTIVE
* Slower response
* Highly specific response
* Immunological memory

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50
Q
A
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51
Q

describe the difference between first and exposure time to pathogens in the adaptive immune response

A

The second exposure begins earlier than the 1st exposure

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52
Q

describe the difference between first and exposure time to pathogens in the innate immune response

A

the time is the same in both exposures

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53
Q

what is the first vs second line of defence in body

A

physical barrier is 1st
immune system is 2nd

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54
Q

describe the 2nd line of defence: the 2 types ?

A
  • Innate immune system
  • Adaptive immune system
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55
Q

describe the 1st line of defence

A

PHYSICAL BARRIERS
* Skin
* Respiratory tract (e.g. mucus, cilia)
* Digestive tract (e.g. stomach pH, intestinal
antimicrobial peptides)
* Reproductive tract (e.g. antimicrobial peptides)

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56
Q

Cells of the immune system: where do they come from?

A

self renewing stem cells differentiate into –> bi-potential cells –> myeloid cells and lymphoid cells

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57
Q

Cells of the immune system: examples of the myeloid cells and which type of immune system to they belong to

A

Basophil, Mast cell, Eosinophil, Neutrophil, Dendritic cell, Monocyte, RBC, NK cell
Innate immune cells

58
Q

examples of the Cells of the immune system: lymphoid cells and which type of immune system to they belong to

A

T cell, B cell
Adaptive immune cells

59
Q

what does PAMPs stand for and what is its function

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
Cells of innate immune system recognize molecular patterns that are conserved in microbes
Examples: lipopolysaccharide, flagellin

60
Q

what does PRRs stand for, what is its function and provide an example

A

Pattern-Recognition Receptors
Immune cells recognize PAMPs using Pattern-Recognition Receptors (PRRs)
Example: Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

61
Q

cytokines functions

A

soluble mediators
the communication system that acts locally or at a distance
Regulate and co-ordinate the cells of innate and adaptive immunity ie drive immune responses
Powerful – need to be well-controlled

62
Q

how are cytokines produced

A

Produced by many different cell types in response to microbes, tissue damage or other antigens

63
Q

Innate Immunity: Phagocytic cells types

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages

64
Q

Innate Immunity: Neutrophils production site

A

bone marrow

65
Q

Innate Immunity: are Neutrophils fast or slow in response to infection

A

First to arrive to site of infection

66
Q

Innate Immunity: Neutrophils lifespan

67
Q

what is the most common WBCs and what are they also known as

A

Neutrophils, also known as Pus

68
Q

what is Pus made of

A

dead neutrophils and bacteria.

69
Q

Innate Immunity: Neutrophils – name 3 killing mechanisms

A

Phagocytosis:
Degranulation:
NETosis:

70
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

process of engulfing and killing pathogens (They can ingest between 10 and 20
bacteria at a time!)

71
Q

what is degranulation

A

Release of the content of the granules to the environment to kill microbes (but can also damage host tissues!)

72
Q

what is NETosis

A

the process of generation of Neutrophil Extracellular Traps (NETs) formed by DNA and histones, granular proteins, and cytoplasmic proteins

73
Q

Innate Immunity: what does macrophages mean

A

big eaters

74
Q

Innate Immunity: macrophages function

A

Functions: clearance of microbes but also
apoptotic cells and foreign particles

75
Q

Innate Immunity: Mast cells and Basophils function once activated

A

Degranulation: Release of store preformed mediators (e.g. histamine, proteases, cytokines)

76
Q

Innate Immunity: how are Mast cells and Basophils stored

A

M: Sentinels in tissues
B: circulate in blood

77
Q

Innate Immunity: Mast cells and Basophils mainly respond to

A

allergic reactions

78
Q

Innate Immunity: Mast cells and Basophils, what do they both contain within them

A

both contains many large cytoplasmic granules containing preformed mediators

79
Q

Innate Immunity: where are macrophages precursors formed and where are macrophages founded

A

Precursors formed in bone marrow
Macrophages are found in tissues

80
Q

Innate Immunity: what macrophages travel as

A

Circulate as monocytes (they remain in the
blood around 3 days) and migrate towards
tissues where they become macrophages

81
Q

Innate Immunity: Eosinophils function

A
  • Help combat parasitic infections – helminths with Granules contain many toxic enzymes
  • Involved in allergy and asthma as well
82
Q

Innate Immunity: Natural Killer (NK) cells (I) function

A

Cells containing granules which contain enzymes – apoptosis of target cell.
* Cells that kill a variety of tumour/virus infected cells.

83
Q

Innate Immunity: Natural Killer (NK) cells (I) half life and percentage within lymphocytes

A

10-15% lymphocytes.
* Half-life of about a week

84
Q

Innate Immunity: how do Natural Killer (NK) cells (II) kill or prevent killing

A

Activating receptor bind to target cell
Inhibitory receptor binds to MHC I

85
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - The complement system function

A

Enzyme cascade system comprising several
factors found in the plasma in an inactive form -
main components C1 to C9.

86
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - describe the complement system

A

Three pathways - activated by microbes (lectin
and alternative) or antibodies (classical).

87
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - where does the complement system activation

A

Activation of the complement happens on the
surface of target cells.

88
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - what does the complement system

A

Activation of the complement leads to the
cleavage of complement components into large
and small active fragments – they have different
functions within the immune response.

89
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - what does theC3a and C5a do within the complement system

A

C3a and C5a (the small fragments) activate immune cells and serve as chemoattractant – activate further the immune response

90
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - what does the C3b do within the complement system

A

Molecules such as C3b can act as tags which enhance phagocytosis (= opsonins)

91
Q

Innate Immunity: soluble factors (I) - what does the C5b do within the complement system

A

C5b can combine with other complement proteins (C6, C7, C8, C9) to make the membrane attack complex (MAC) – forms pores on the membrane of pathogens.

92
Q

what are the soluble factors of adaptive immunity

A

antibodies

93
Q

Innate Immunity: Dendritic cells unction

A

act as Antigen-presenting cell (APC)
* Recognizes and internalizes pathogen and processes it into peptides which it presents (antigen)
activating T cells of adaptive immune system

94
Q

Adaptive Immunity: T lymphocytes (T cells) function

A

T cells respond to antigen only when presented by an antigen-presenting cell (APC) allowing for antigen T cells differentiate to effector T cells

  • Dendritic cells (DC) and macrophages can be APC
95
Q

Adaptive Immunity: name the 2 types of Effector T lymphocytes (T cells)

A

Helper T cells (Th cells) and Cytotoxic T cells (CTL)

96
Q

function of Helper T cells

A

Alter immune responses by secreting cytokines
* Help other cells: e.g. help B cells to make antibody, activate macrophages, recruit other immune cells …
* Different subsets (Th1, Th2, Th17, Tfh) make different cytokines – fine tune the immune response

97
Q

function of Cytotoxic T cells

A

kill infected cells or tumour cells

98
Q

Adaptive Immunity: B lymphocytes (B cells) function

A

Cells that produce antibodies.
* B cells recognize a small part of an antigen called epitope using the B cell receptor (a membrane-bound antibody)
* This interaction with the epitope activates the B cell which then starts a maturation process.
* At the end of their maturation, some B cells will then become plasma cells (antibody factories) while others will become a memory B cell.

99
Q

Adaptive Immunity: how does B lymphocytes (B cells) produce antibodies function, describe process

A
  • B cells recognize a small part of an antigen called epitope using the B cell receptor (a membrane-bound antibody)
  • This interaction with the epitope activates the B cell which then starts a maturation process.
  • At the end of their maturation, some B cells will then become plasma cells (antibody factories) while others will become a memory B cell.
100
Q

describe the sections of the antibodies

A

Y” shape made up of 2 heavy (long) chains and 2 light (short) chains.
* Every antibody has 2 antigen binding sites that bind the same antigen
* Antibodies bind the antigen through one region (Fab) and interact with other immune cells and the complement through another portion (Fc)

101
Q

true or false: antibodies can kill pathogens

A

false- do not kill pathogens, they identify and
neutralise and/or tag

102
Q

name the 5 different classes of antibody

A

GAMED
* IgG – Good opsonizer, maternal antibody
* IgA – Protects mucosal surfaces, resistant to stomach acid
IgM –Good at activating complement and opsonization
* IgE – Defends against parasites, causes anaphylactic shock and allergies
* IgD – Enigmatic antibody

103
Q

What happens when the immune system does not
work properly? (I)

A

Severe infection, septic shock or anaphylactic shock

104
Q

what happens during Severe infection and septic shock

A

Severe infection with microbes in blood
* Innate immune cells respond and produce cytokines and other immune mediators
* Cytokine storm
* Can be fatal without rapid treatment

105
Q

what happens within anaphylactic shock

A

successive exposure to allergens allows for mediators release within MAST CELLS

106
Q

Hypoproteinaemia causes

A

prolonged starvation
liver disease
intestinal diseases
nephrosis (kidney disease)

107
Q

what is Hypoproteinaemia

A

Abnormally low levels of circulating plasma protein

108
Q

Hypoproteinaemia common characteristics

A

oedema (swelling) due to loss of oncotic pressure

109
Q

provide examples for RBC and WBC

A

RBC: Erythrocytes
WBC Neutrophil, Monocyte, Basophil, Eosinophil, Lymphocyte

110
Q

are platelets WBCs ?

A

no they are myeloid cells

111
Q

name all the myeloid cells

A

Erythrocytes, Neutrophil, Monocyte, Basophil, Eosinophil, Platelets

112
Q

describe the Erythrocytes (e.g. lifespan, composition, diameter )

A

red blood cells
Most abundant blood cell (4 - 6 x10^12/L)
120 day lifespan.
Highly flexible, biconcave, non-nucleated, diameter 7-8um

113
Q

what does erythrocytes contain

A

Densely packed with Haemoglobin – protein concerned with gas transport.

114
Q

why does a colour change within the erythrocytes happen

A

Colour change
– oxyhaemoglobin (arterial)
- deoxyhaemoglobin (venous)

115
Q

Erythropoiesis (Red Blood Cell Formation): what is erythropoietin

A

Controls and accelerates Erythropoiesis, stimulating pluripotent stem cells –> erythroblast

116
Q

Erythropoiesis (Red Blood Cell Formation):where is the erythropoietin secreted from

A

Secretion - 85% kidney, 15% liver

117
Q

Erythropoiesis (Red Blood Cell Formation):what does a 2-3 delay mean

A

2-3 day delay = Renal disease

118
Q

Erythropoiesis (Red Blood Cell Formation):how is secretion enhanced

A

when oxygen delivery to kidneys is reduced, also known as hypoxia

119
Q

Erythropoiesis (Red Blood Cell Formation):what is hypoxia and how is it induced

A

less O2 delivered to kidney
haemorrhage/anaemia/cardiac dysfunction/ lung disease

120
Q

describe Leukocytes (how much per litre, involved in …)

A

white blood cells
nucleated, larger than RBC’s,
In total: approx. 1 x 1010 per litre
Involved in defence against pathogen

121
Q

WBC family tree: name the 2 types of WBCs

A

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes

122
Q

WBC family tree: name the 2 types of Agranulocytes

A

Monocytes and Lymphocytes

123
Q

WBC family tree: name the 2 types of Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils

124
Q

WBC family tree: name the 2 types of Lymphocytes

A

B cells and T cells (Helper and Killer )

125
Q

WBC family tree: Monocyte life cycle and percentage of circulating cells

A

5% circulating cells, after 72 hours migrate to connective tissue where they become macrophages and live for 3 months.

126
Q

WBC family tree: describe Neutrophils (abundance, half life, produce 100bn/day)

A

Most abundant 68%
Half life ~10hrs
Produce 100bn/day

127
Q

WBC family tree: percentage of circulating cells of lymphocytes and basophils

A

L: 25%
B: <1%, least abundant

128
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): what is it controlled by

A

Controlled by a cocktail of cytokines proteins/peptides released from one cell type which act on another).
Colony Stimulating Factors

129
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): name examples of cytokines within the cytokines cocktail

A

Colony Stimulating Factors e.g. Granulocyte CSF,
Interleukins

130
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): describe the process

A

Cytokines are released from mature white blood cells.
Stimulate both mitosis and maturation of leukocyte

131
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): what are the 2 types of differential stimulation in response to infection

A

bacterial - increase neutrophils
Viral - increases lymphocytes

132
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): what does differential stimulation in response to infection suggest about the cytokine cocktail

A

the cytokine cocktail is therefore dynamic, changing it’s composition in
response to infection to influence which white blood cell will be preferentially
stimulated to form.

133
Q

Leukopoiesis (white blood cell formation): what does Differential White Cell Count allow for

A

Differential White Cell Count allows you to differentiate between infection types.

134
Q

describe the Erythrocytes (e.g. lifespan, composition, diameter )

A

membrane bound cell fragments (from megakaryocytes).
Rarely nucleated, 2-4m diameter.
Life span 10 days. (140-400x10^9/L)

135
Q

Platelets: what is its formation controlled by

A

Formation governed by Thrombopoietin

136
Q

Platelet function

A

Adhere to damaged vessel walls and exposed connective tissue to mediate
blood clotting
DO NOT adhere to healthy intact endothelium

137
Q

What is a Haematocrit

A

refers to the percentage of the total blood volume that is composed of red blood cells (RBCs).

138
Q

what is the normal percentage range for Haematocrit

139
Q

what is centrifugation used for

A

separate whole blood into Plasma, WBCs + Platelets, RBCs (this order is the same density order after centrifugation)

140
Q

what is the viscosity of plasma compared to whole blood

A

plasma - 1.8 x thicker than water
Whole blood - x 3-4 thicker than water

141
Q

is viscosity an absolute value or not and why

A

no, Viscosity is not an absolute value as it depends on:
haematocrit - 50% increase in haematocrit (increases viscosity approx. 100%)
temperature - increase in temp decreases viscosity and vice versa(1oC changes viscosity by around 2%)
flow rate - decreased flow rate increases viscosity and vice versa.