Blood Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The correct name for RBCs =
The correct name for WBCs =

A

RBCs= Erythrocytes
WBCs = leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lifespan of an erythrocyte is __

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All blood cells are derived from:

A

Haematopoietic stem cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Myeloid stem cells matures into:

A

Erythrocytes, platelets, eosinophil, neutrophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is leukaemia

A

Cancer of the haematopoietic stem cell in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 classifications of leukaemia (in chronology of when they present)

A

Acute Lymphoblastic
Chronic Lymphoblastic
Chronic Myeloid
Acute Myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outline acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A
  • acute proliferation of a single type of lymphocyte (usually beta)
  • causes replacement of other cells in bone marrow
  • most common cancer in children (peaks ~2-4 yrs age)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Outline Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

chronic proliferation of lymphocytes (usually B)
Richter’s transformation = can transform into high-grade lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are ‘smudge cells’ and what do they suggest?

A

during preparation of blood film, the fragile WBC rupture to leave a smudge on the film
Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

A

3 phases:
Chronic (~5 years durations, often asympto)
Accelerated (abnormal blast cells)
Blast (even high proportions of blast cells, often fatal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outline Acute Myeloid leukaemia

A

Most common leukaemia in adults
Blood films will show Auer Rods (rods in the cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define pancytopenia

A

(pan = many, cyt = cell, penia = lack of)
A lack of all 3 cellular blood components,
Anaemia, Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are oral manifestations of leukaemia

A
  • New/rapidly changing gingival hyperplasia +/- bleeding, ulceration, petechial haemorrhages (pinprick red/brown macules on hard palate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is leukaemia diagnosed

A

Bone marrow biopsy
FBC (full blood count)
CT, MRI, PET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define lymphoma

A

Umbrella term encompassing a range of cancers derived from lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between lymphoma and leukaemia?

A

Leukaemia = develops in bone marrow
Lymphoma = develops in lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What outlines Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • Prescence of Reed-sternberg cells (multinucleated cells in lymph nodes)
  • preferentially in cervical lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk Factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • Family history
  • HIV/AIDs
  • EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tx for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Radiotherapy as often well localised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What differentiates Hodgkin’s vs non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Presence (Hodgkins) or absence (non-hodgkins, (85% of lymphomas) of Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical presentation of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma:

A
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • fever
  • night sweats
  • Cancer red flags (unexplained weight loss, loss of appetite, fatigue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

depends of grade of disease
combo of local radiotherapy and chemo (Rituximab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define Myeloma

A

Blood cancer arising from plasma cells (B lymphocytes that produce specific antibodies)
Same thing as multiple myeloma (it’ll always occur in more than one location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aetiology of Myeloma

A

DNA is damaged during development of plasma cells, causing abnormal replication, all producing the same antibody

25
Q

Problems associated with myeloma

A

normally issues come from the build-up of the excessive antibody (paraprotein)
- deposition into organs can cause kidney failure

26
Q

What are the key CRAB features of Myeloma?

A

C - calcium (hypercalcaemia)
R - Renal failure
A - anaemia
B - bone disease

27
Q

Dental impacts of myeloma

A

Hyperviscocity of blood - spontaneous bleeding
impaired renal function
MRONJ from medications

28
Q

What can happen after a bone marrow transplant?

A

Graft vs Host Disease

29
Q

Effects of leukaemia/myeloma on pt:

A
  • infections from lack of WBCs (longer lasting, more severe)
  • bleeding and bruising in skin from thrombocytopenia
  • medications
  • side effects of chemo
30
Q

Define Anaemia

A

reduction of haemoglobin in the blood

31
Q

what are the normal ranges of haemoglobin?

A

Males = 13.5 g/dL
Females = 11.5g/dL

32
Q

What is MCV (Mean Corpuscular volume)

A

describes size of erythrocytes, measures mean cellular volume

33
Q

Give 2 examples of what causes Macrocytic anaemia

A

Macrocytic - large RBCs
-B12 deficiency anaemia
- Folate deficiency anaemia

34
Q

Give an example of what causes microcytic anaemia

A

Iron-deficient anaemia (usually due to diet, chronic blood loss)

35
Q

Key causes of anaemia:

A
  • reduced production (chronic inflammation, leukaemia, marrow failure)
  • increased loss of RBCs (bleeding, haemorrhoids, trauma, peptic ulcer)
  • increased demand (pregnancy, malignancy)
36
Q

Signs and symptoms of anaemia:

A
  • pale conjunctiva
  • depapillation of tongue (smooth)
  • common oral ulcerations
37
Q

Tx of anaemia:

A

Treat the cause =
Folate deficiency - folate tablets
iron deficiency - iron tablets
B12 deficiency - B12 intramuscular injections

38
Q

Dental relevance of anaemia

A
  • lots of dental presentations
  • Reduced O2 carrying capacity (sedation/GA risk)
  • more prone to candidiasis
39
Q

What is thalassemia, and what are the two types?

A

Hereditary condition (autosomal recessive) affecting the globin protein chains of haemoglobin, RBCs break down more easily
2 types: Alpha is affects the alpha chains, Beta if affects the Beta chains

40
Q

What are some presentations of thalassemia?

A

Splenomegaly - spleen swells to collect all destroyed RBCs + act as seive

41
Q

Dental Relevance of thalassemia:

A
  • Chronic anaemia
  • Cirrhosis
  • iron deposition in all glands (inc. salivary) = xerostomia
  • GA and sedation risk from <O2 carrying
42
Q

Aetiology of Sickle Cell Anaemia

A

Mutation in the HBB (Beta-Haemoglobin Gene)
Autosomal Recessive - causes sickle shaped RBCs and Haemolytic anaemia (anaemia from excess haemolysis)

43
Q

Outline what happens during a sickling crisis:

A

Umbrella term for acute conditions:
- Painful > sickle shape clogs capillaries, causing distal ischaemia
- Sequestration > sickle cells pool in liver, spleen
- Aplastic > Bone marrow just gives up producing RBCs

44
Q

Outline the steps involved in Haemostasis:

A
  • Vascular spasm
  • platelet plug
  • blood coagulation
  • growth of fibrous tissue
45
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway of haemostasis?

A

exposure of sub-endothelium collagen in vessel wall

46
Q

What causes the extrinsic pathway of haemostasis?

A

cells releasing Tissue Factor after damage, foreign body

47
Q

What pathways does Warfarin Act on?

A

2, 7, 9 ,10

48
Q

Which pathways does Apixaban, Rivaroxaban and Edoxaban act on?

A

Activation of factor X -> Xa

49
Q

Outline clot breakdown

A

Thrombin catalyses plasminogen to plasmin, which causes fibrinolysis

50
Q

Describe the action of aspirin

A

Irreversibly binds to platelets, inactivates COX enzymes required for thromboxane (kickstarts platelet aggregation, inflammation)

51
Q

Describe action of clopidogrel

A

Binds to P2Y12 receptor, irreversibly presents ADP mediated aggreagation
Takes a long time to wear off
irreversible antiplatelet

52
Q

Frequency of platelet turnover

A

~ every 10 days

53
Q

Do you stop clopidogrel or aspirin for dental surgery?

A

No. (they bind irreversibly, stopping it the day before is going to do nothing anyway)

54
Q

Never give aspirin to ____

A

Children: link to Reye’s syndrome (high morbidity, multi-organ swelling)

55
Q

How is the INR calculated

A

Prothrombin time of pt / prothrombin time of a control group
prothrombin relates to factor 7 activity

56
Q

What is the half-life of warfarin?

A

around 48 hours

57
Q

Why do you not stop warfarin for dental care?

A

if you do, pts are at an increased risk of severe thromboembolic event (there’s a reason they’re on it in the first place)

58
Q

What can cause dangerous interactions with warfarin?

A

Antifungals, antibiotics, grapefruit juice, NSAIDs
Metronidazole, Erythromycin
Carbamazepine (decreases INR)

59
Q

What is tranexamic acid used for?

A

prevents blood clot from being broken down, promotes clotting in surgery in secondary/tertiary care centres (expensive)