Block 6 Flashcards
Minimum safe altitude w/in 25NM
2800
Emergency safe alt w/in 100NM
4000
Airspace that consist of hazardous activities such as; small arms ranges, mortar firing, grenade ranges and UAS operations within ROZ1 over Cassidy MOUT site
R3701A
what are the time requirements for us of alert 371
always in use - continuous
How is the lateral separation applied reference UAS? vertical?
restrict UAS to an area west of the 48 grid line restrict UAS to 4000 MSL or above
who is the controlling agency for 3702a/b/c
arac - sfc to 10000 Memphis artcc above 10000 msl
Jefferson monument location
13NM 979
Who handles all situations requiring use of the jettison area and restricted area
ARAC
When 3701 is active, what is the overflight altitude
5100’ MSL 4100’ MSL
What is the procedures for the small arms active advisory
all departures, multiple radar/VFR pattern traffic will be advised that 3701 is active with small arms fire. This will be accomplished on initial contact while taxiing for departure and will be recorded on ATIS
Is any condition, action or set of circumstances that compromise the safety of army a/c, associated personnel, airfields, or equipment
Operational hazard
What are the ILS components for CAMPBELL airfield - glideslope
1183 approach end 23 500 NW 23 centerline 331.1 MHZ TCH 52
Consists of a/s of defined dimensions identified by an area or surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because their nature or wherein limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities involved
Special use a/s
Clarksville/outlaw died has a class ______ surface area _________ to the Ft campbell class D that contains what
E extension Instrument final approach courses
What is the departure turnout procedures
all FW a/c will be given a turn to the northwest or north off HOP 23. helicopters may be given a left to 090 off HOP 23 & 18. Tower shall ensure they remain clear of 3701 unless the a/c is on a PAR/ASR, the it is ARAC’s responsibility
IFR releases off 23 while MOAs are active are required to do what
A right turn to a 360 heading or more to expedite clearing the MOA protected a/s
What are the ILS components for CAMPBELL airfield - localizer
880 departure end runway 23, 111.9MZ I-FKP
Location - boundary for R3702
1000 yards from dep from 23
who is the controlling agency for alert area 371
commander, ft Campbell KY
TVA smokestacks
18.5 NM 1435
What is the coordination procedures for the Northwest quadrant
a cease fire of the NWQ will be initiated should an a/c advise that they will not be able to remain clear of the small arms impact area ARAC will notify tower that a cease fire is necessary and the Tower will be responsible for coordinating with range control to obtain a cease fire
a airspace established outside positive control area to separate/segregate certain non hazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted
MOA 1 2
What are the ILS components for CAMPBELL airfield - approach lights
ALSF-1/SSALR LOCATED at the approach end 23
Who is responsible for coordination w/ ARAC when the possibility of a spill-out appears imminent
Eagle
What are the ILS components for CAMPBELL airfield - outer marker
4.4 NM approach end 23 MZ (series of dashes
What is the procedure reference NWQ of small arms during IFR departures
cease fire of the NWQ for IFR departures to protect the missed approach segment of an IFR arrival. Do not cease fire if the IFR a/c is conducting practice approaches…obtain concurrence from the aircraft that can remain clear
Victor airways within the local flying area include
7 52 94 67 178
what are the time requirement for use of 3701A AND 3702ABC
by NOTAM 24 hour in advance
What are the five slow speed low altitude training routes
SR59 60 61 62 225
Hey routes within the local flying area include
6 45
Other localizers
I-CKV Located on 5 at outlaw field
MOA1
500 AGL up to and including 10000 MSL
Where is the jettison area located
north impact area, grid 350585 CAAF magnetic heading 270 @ 11.3NM From AIRBE NDB, magnetic bearing 258 @ 16.4NM
Operational hazards include
Inadequacies Deficiencies Or unsafe practices
Who is the controlling agency for 3701a
arac
What is the dimensions of alert 371
Area around CAAF within 20NM radius
During Raven UAS at Cassidy MOUT, what are the restrictions?
terminate UAS flight if the pilot of a departing IFR a/c informs you that they are unable to remain clear of 3701 HOP TWR shall notify Eagle when a/c begin taxi for IFR departure from 23
What type of a/s is BNA
Class C
Who is responsible for immediate coordination with Memphis ARTCC sectors in the even of unexpected spill-out
ARAC
3702b
10000 up to FL220
3702C
FL220 to FL270
What enroute chart contains airways within Campbell local flying area
low altitude enroute chart L16
What is the NW boundary
24 25 26 A B 27
Controls the a/s above EVV approach excluding the shelf in the northwest corner of ARAC a/s is controlled by who
Indianapolis
3702 a
surface to 10000
What is the 385-90
Army aviation accident prevention program
Alert area 371
surface to 2000 feet msl
What is ARAC coordination requirements ref MOA useage
coordinate activation of MOA w/ the controlling agency coordinate inbounds w/ eagle coordinate w/ the appropriate Memphis ARTCC sector for spill-outs that enters Memphis Center a/s Issue all IFR departures off CAAF 23 right turns to a 360 heading or more to deconflict w/ MOA ops
Airspace that contains hazardous activities such as; ground or airborne missile firing, artillery and mortar firing, ground and airborne rocket firing, later targeting, laser guided munitions, container drops, bombing runs or like activities that are hazardous to non-participating military, general, business and commercial aviation
3702 A B C
All a/s above, east and west of the a/s delegates to ARAC IS CONTROLLED by who
Memphis ARTCC
What is the lateral separation and vertical separation required from 3701 and 3702
3 miles
Who is the controlling agency for MOA
arac
A/s adjacent to ARAC north and northeast boundary is controlled by who Extends up to and including what alt
EVV 10,000
What actions is taken if an IFR a/c cannot remain clear of the small arms impact area
refuse the request for practice instrument approaches
Where are air combat maneuvers, air intercepts, acrobatics, close air support training, air to ground maneuver training, air-refuel & bombing runs terminating in 3702 accomplished
MOA military operating area
MOA2
1500 AGL up to and including 10000 msl excluding the area below 2500 feet msl (cross creek national wildlife refuge airspace - 2000 AGL)
3701A altitudes
surface to 5000 msl
Which a/c require a cease fir of the affected a/s prior to transitioning
non-participating Air ambulance FAA Flight Check NORDO a/c VFR/IFR a/c
Who is responsible for notifying eagle radio of IFR inbounds or a/c remaining in the radar pattern to ensure separation is accomplished
ARAC
a/s adjacent to ARAC southeast boundary is controlled by who Extends up to what alt
Nashville approach 15,000
What are the ILS components for CAMPBELL airfield - DME
Located NW departure end 23 at the LOC shelter
When shall HOP TWR terminate CVR operations
Prior to any IFR arrival reaching the final approach fix inbound to CAAF Prior to the IFR reaching a point 5.5 from the airfield if conducting a contact approach Prior to SVFR arrival reaching a point 5.5NM from CAAF, CFR SHALL REMAIN TERMINATED until SVFR arrival has landed or visual separation can be applied Until IFR DEPARTURES as climbed through 1800 or IFR/SVFR has departed the lateral boundaries of the airport
When shall HOP TWR hold CVR operations
Aircraft inbound along the east corridor until approval from ARAC GREEN CVFR for 3702 and SAH when their are ops st SHOC
What squadron does the threat avoidance arrival and departures
375th airlift wing Scott’s AFB
What squadron performs Threat Avoidance arrival/departure training procedures at CAAF
375th operations group, 375th airlift wing, scott afb c-21 a/c
What information is the 375th c-21 required ref LOA
request type of approaches direction of flight altitude (if other than 5500’ MSL)
What is the general requirement of LOA between the 375th airwaing and CAAF
free a/s to 5000 AGL (5500’ msl) VMC on a VFR flight plan pilots are required to cancel IFR ARAC provides traffic advisories and separation IAW .65 workload permitting
What is the sequencing requirements per the LOA with the 375th airwing
all approaches to the active runway all approaches are initiated at approx. 250 KIAS w/ final approach airspeeds between 130-150 KIAS HOP TWR will resolve sequencing problems prior to the start of the maneuver once the slow down and descent maneuver has begun, standard sequencing will require maneuver to be aborted
What is the maneuver requirements per LOA with 375 AW
1 takeoff 5 VFR approaches
Describe tactical departure
(1) standing takeoff to a spiraling 30 degree bank turn to 5500’ (2) normally 150-170 KIAS and 3000-6000’ per minute climb
Describe tactical overhead
accomplished at 5500’ from a 5 mile initial at 250 KIAS at appox. 2.5 miles, the a/c will begin a slowdown maneuver at the approx. midpoint, the a/c will begin a 30 degree bank turn to downwind and a 3000’ per minute descent to base
Describe tactical base
VFR approach at 5500 from an approx. 8 mile base at 7, a/c will begin a slowdown maneuver at approx. 5 mile base, a/c will being a 3000’ per minute descent to runway
Describe tactical downwind
VFR approach at 5500 initiated from a 6 mile downing w/ approx. 1.5 mile displacement at 250 KIAS abeam the departure end of the landing runway, a/c will begin a 3000’ per minute descent to enter base turn to final
Describe tactical midfield
VFR approach at 5500 initiated from 4 miles perpendicular to the midpoint of the runway requiring midfield over flight (essential same as a high circle maneuver) over the midfield point of the runway, the a/c will begin a 3000 foot per minute descent to enter base turn to final
What is the initial point for overhead and tactical overhead IP for 23
aligned on initial over 109 (over Airbe NDB)
What is the initial point for overhead and tactical overhead IP for 5
just north of 270 radial and east of town of Lafayette
What is the initial point for the tactical base 23
3 miles nw of intersection of route 107 & I24 (HXW 315/11)
What is the initial point for the tactical base 5
3 miles nw of intersection of route 107 and I24 and paralleling 117 SW (HXW310/11)
What is the initial point for the tactical downwind 23
just north of 270 radial and east of town Lafayette
What is the initial point for the tactical downwind 5
large grain silos on route 109, 1 mile northwest of airbe NDB
What is the initial point for the tactical midfield 23
over route 117, 1 mile northwest of route 345
What is the initial point for the tactical midfield 5
outlaw field
What is the T/G climbout procedures per the LOA with 375 AW
climb to 5500 msl followed by pilot navigation to the IP for the type of approach requested using the standard terminology specified above
No sequencing of ______ ______ or aircraft arriving from the ________ ________ _______ area is required unless requested by _________ ________
northwest arrivals north test flight Campbell tower
What actions are taken if an arriving a/c states “negative radar service”
twr may sequence into pattern and advise ARAC of the a/c typ and reported alt
Campbell dispatch is responsible to notify who reference bomb threats/hijack?
airfield commander or airfield duty officer (after duty hours) EOD for bomb threats
Ref bomb threats / hijacking, who is responsible for providing emergency handling IAW .65
HOP TWR ARAC Eagle
What type of approach is proferred for hijacked/bomb threat a/c
straight in ILS PAR to 23
What is dispatch responsible for during a facility bomb threat
provide asst to the TWR and/or ARAC/Eagle by notifying emergency personnel and other facilities initiate NOTAMs should either or both fac receive a bomb threat
