Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HOP_ARAC > Block 10 > Flashcards

Block 10 Flashcards

1
Q

remarks

A

RMK

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Specify the following regarding the route of flight

A

airway, route, course, heading, azimuth, arc or vector

the routing a pilot can expect if any part of the route beyond a short range clearance limit differs from that filed

“expect further clearance via (airways, routes, or fixes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

progress report

A

pr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When issuing a clearance to air force 1, how is it issued

A

do not specify the destination airport

“Destination as filed”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stereo flight plan

A

SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Departure fix/Coordination fix

A

FIX

06

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define departure procedures

A

specify direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown after takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What additional info is dispatch required to coordinate w/ HOP

A

VIP information on IFR flight plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if an a/c requests taxi too late of an EDCT time, what actions are taken

A

contact the ATCSCC through the appropriate TMU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cancellation of IFR flight plan to airports w/ an air/ground communication station

A

“(C/S) report cancellation of IFR on (frequency)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the down arrow in the route field indicate

A

destination point change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when call for release is in effect, release a/c so they are airborne within what window of time

A

2 minutes prior and end 1 minute after the assigned time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are clearances relayed

A

verbatim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can you issue an abbreviated departure clearance

A

when the route of flight filed with ATC has not been changed by the pilot, company, operations officer, input operator or in the stored flight plan program prior to departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

general information

A

gi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are altitudes indicated

A

hundreds of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

avoide using the term ________ except to actually clear and aircraft for what?

what are authorized terms

A

takeoff
clear or cancel a takeoff clearance

depart, departure or fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cancellation of IFR flight plan to airports w/out an air/ground communication station

A

(C/S) report cancellation of IFR this prequency or with flight service” or

(C/S) report cancellation of IFR this frequency or with (FSS servicing the area of the ATC facility)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four different fix inputs

A

2 or 3 character fix (IPL)
5 character fix or intersection (AIRBE)
Fix/Radial/Distance (IPL279/027)
latitude/longitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

flight plan readout

A

fr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Time

A

TIM

07

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A control must assign what to an a/c changing to VFR to IFR

A

beacon code to mode-c equipped a/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RCU

A

remote control unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can altitude be omitted

A

when the top altitude is published in the SID route description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FSM

A

Flight schedule monitor - who you contact to verify EDCT times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dispatch shall notify _______ and _____ of _____ IFR flight plans by what? what information is included?

A 
tower and ARAC of local
C/S
Type
Departure point and destination
ETD
RAL
Route of flight
ETE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

remove strip

A

RS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Time inputs

A

E - estimated
P - proposed
D - actual departure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Beacon

A

BCN

04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The facility delivery a clearance void time to a pilot must issue what

A

time check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

flight plan

A

fp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you respond to a pilot’s cancellation of his/her IFR flight plan

A

(C/S) IFR cancellation received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, what is issued

A

the NAVAID name followed by the type if known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ARTS NAS cancellation

A

RX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During FDIO outages, what is the required IFR flight plan coordination’s

A

Dispatch shall notify tower of all IFR flight plans by landline to include
C/S
type of a/c and # of a/c in formation flights
destination if departure

36
Q

What do you put between 2 consecutive fixes or route elements (like)

A

..

37
Q

What do you put between unlike fixes or route elements

A

.

38
Q

ABV

A

operating above altitude

39
Q

what additional info is required when issuing a hold for release

A

include departure delay information

40
Q

enter weather

A

wx

41
Q

Strip request

A

SR

42
Q

test device

A

td

43
Q

When the clearance limit is an airport, what word must follow the airport name

A

airport

44
Q

weather report

A

wr

45
Q

What are not valid substitutes for an amended clearance with an altitude or speed restriction

A

do the best you can

46
Q

What is HOP required to coordinate w/ dispatch

A

all IFR arrival and departure times

47
Q

fix elements

A

geographical locations

48
Q

Type of aircraft and format

A

TYP
03
#(H/S)/type/suffix

49
Q

altimeter setting

A

as

50
Q

What phrase is used for Altitude reservations

A

“via approved altitude reservation (mission name) flight plan”

51
Q

If an aircraft has begun taxi or request taxi in a manner consistent with meeting the EDCT, the aircraft must be what

A

released

52
Q

Clearances authorizing “direct” to a point on a previously issued route do not require what

A

“rest of route unchanged”
However, must be understood where the cleared route resumed

Issue the entire route by stating the amendment

53
Q

Message type

A

MSG

01

54
Q

OTP

A

VFR on top

55
Q

What does the up arrow in the route field indicate

A

departure point change

56
Q

CCU

A

Central Control Unit

57
Q

amendment

A

am

58
Q

What are the maximum # of fields

A

48

59
Q

Requested altitude

A

RAL

09

60
Q

VFR

A

operating under visual flight rules

61
Q

departure message

A

dm

62
Q

instructions must be used when necessary to inform a pilot or a controller that a departure clearance is not valid until additional instructions are received

A

hold for release

63
Q

How are flight service stations required to prefix clearances

A

ATC clears

ATC advises

64
Q

Issue the following clearance items, as appropriate, in the what order

A 
aircraft identification
clearance limit
SID
route of flight including PDR/PDAR/PAR
altitude data in order flown
Mach number, if applicable
holding instructions
any special information
frequency 
beacon code
65
Q

Speed

A

SPD

05

66
Q

Amend a route of flight in a previously issued clearance by one of the following

A

State the portion of route being amended and then state the amendment
“Change (portion of route) to read (new portion of route)”

State the amendment of the route and then state the rest of the route unchanged
“(Amendment to route”, rest of route unchanged

Issue a clearance “direct” to a point on the previously issued route
“Cleared direct (fix/waypoint)” or “cleared direct (destination) airport”

67
Q

How is a non-ATC facility required to prefix a clearance, information or request information when relaying to an a/c

A

ATC advises

ATC requests

68
Q

When the clearance limit is an intersection or waypoint and the type is known, what must is issued

A

intersection or waypoint name followed by type

69
Q

hold message

A

hm

70
Q

Route

A

RTE

10

71
Q

What information does the FDIO distribute

A

flight plan data
wx information
general information amongst ARTCC Host Computer, ARTCC printer peripherals and associated ATCT remote sites

72
Q

Aircraft ID

A

AID

02

73
Q

request flight plan transfer

A

RF

74
Q

How many remote control units can a CCU contain

A

28

75
Q

Reference IFR to VFR flights, how do you clear an a/c

A

clear an a/c planning IFR operations for the initial part of flight and VFR for the latter part to the fix at which the IFR part ends

76
Q

B

A

block altitude

77
Q

When do you clear an a/c planning VFR for the initial part of flight and IFR for the latter part

A

issue a clearance to this a/c when it requests IFR clearance approaching the fix where it proposes to start IFR operations

78
Q

Assigned altitude

A

ALT

08

79
Q

Air traffic control specialist shall avoide ______ and/or ______ change for a/c participating in what

A

route
altitude
North American Route program

80
Q

route elements include

A

airways
direct routes b/w fixes
instrument departure procedures
STARS

81
Q

if the aircraft requests taxi or clearance for departure inconsistent with meeting the EDCT, what actions are taken

A

ask the pilot to verify EDCT

82
Q

When route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended, what must be issued

A

restate all applicable altitude restrictions

83
Q

Use one of the following when issuing altitude info

A

to the maximum extent possible

assign the altitude requested by the pilot

assign an altitude, as near as possible to the altitude request by the pilot

84
Q

Are you authorized to clear a/c through intermediate stops

A

yes

85
Q

When issuing a clearance void times at airports not served by control tower, what must be provided

A

provide alternative instructions requiring the pilots to advise ATC of their intentions no later than 30 minutes after the clearance void time if not airborne

86
Q

restore ARTS database

A

RB

HOP_ARAC (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions