BIS 2A Flashcards

1
Q

CH3

A

Methyl, nonpolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

OH

A

Hydroxyl, polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

COOH

A

Carboxylic group, polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

NH3

A

Amino group, polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PO4-

A

Phosphate group, polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phosphorylation

A

Adding of phosphate groups, endergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dephosphorylation

A

Splitting phosphate groups, exergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phosphoanhydride bond

A

Bond between the two phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anaerobic

A

Does not require oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aerobic

A

Requires oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is glycolysis aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens in a coupled reaction?

A

The enzyme allows a favorable reaction to occur, but an unfavorable reaction occurs simultaneously, because the activation energy was too high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Substrate level phosphorylation

A

Phosphate is donated by a high energy carbon compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Main purpose of fermentation…

A

Replenish NAD+ levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two different types of fermentation:

A

Lactic acid and ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is pyruvate and what is it used for in fermentation?

A

Pyruvate is an electron acceptor used in fermentation to generate lactate and oxidize NADH to NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to lactate in fermentation?

A

Secreted from cell as waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is fermentation anaerobic or aerobic?

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What process is pyruvate oxidized?

A

TCA Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Besides fermentation, where else can we recycle NADH back to NAD+?

A

Electron Transport Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At the end of glycolysis, where are the pyruvate molecules transported to?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where does respiration and electron transport chain occur in eukaryotes

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the terminal electron acceptor for humans?

A

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In glycolysis, for every molecule that is metabolized, ___ molecules of pyruvate are produced

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does the TCA Cycle occur?

A

Matrix of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the TCA cycle, one acetyl CoA will yield…

A

One ATP/GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens to CO2 in the TCA Cycle?

A

It is released as gas from breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Metabolic Intermediate

A

Compound that is produced by a reaction which then acts as a substrate for the next reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the reductive TCA Cycle used for?

A

Construct glucose and other carbon containing molecules for CO2. ATP and NADH will be inputs since it is in reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the ETC produce?

A

Proton gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the proton gradient used for?

A

Running ATP synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A more negative reduction potential means…

A

The less likely the compound will accept electrons. Stronger electron donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Oxidized compounds will have a higher…

A

Reduction potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

O2 is a very strong…

A

Oxidizing agent (Will become reduced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

+ delta G knot prime means what for delta E knot prime

A

It will be negative and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The oxidant is…

A

the compound getting electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The reductant is…

A

the compound losing electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the two major recycable energy carriers?

A

NAD+ and FAD(2+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NAD+ is used as a reactant in …
While NADH is used as a reactant in…

A

Glycolysis, TCA Cycle
ETC, Fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

More CH bonds mean…

A

More reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

ETC occurs in…

A

The inner mitochondrial matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens in respiration?

A

A series of redox reactions that transfer electrons to the terminal electron acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The electrons passing through the ETC gradually lose…

A

Potential energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Generating ATP from ADP is called…

A

Oxidative phosphorylation (Redox reaction and phosphorylation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the ETC begin with?

A

Donation of electrons from NADH and FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Process of using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor in an electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The endergonic formation of a proton gradient is powered by…

A

the exergonic redox reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is chemiosmosis used for?

A

Creating 90% of the ATP during aerobic glucose catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the fates of an excited electron?

A
  1. Go back to ground state (fluoresced)
  2. Transferred by resonance
  3. Transferred to an electron acceptor (Photochemical reaction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Photophosphorylation

A

Process of transferring light energy into ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is special about green sulfur bacteria

A

Can perform photosynthesis using low-energy infrared photons becaause they live in the absence of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In green sulfur bacteria photosynthesis, the electrons are cyclic/non-cyclic

A

Cyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons end up onto…

A

NADPH after moving through ETC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

NADPH in non-cyclic photophosphorylation will be used for…

A

Carbon fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Green sulfur bacteria evolved to utilize ___ as an electron donor, while green plants cannot

A

H2S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the overall function of light dependent reactions of oxygenic photophosphorylation?

A

Transform solar energy into chemical compounds in the form of NADPH and ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The energy from light dependent reactions is used for

A

reactants for the light independent reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Photosystem I and II are found in…

A

the thylakoid membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens in the Calvin Cycle?

A

The ATP will be input and the electron is deposited onto CO2 for long-term storage in the form of a carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Calvin Cycle takes place in the…

A

Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is special about the reaction center?

A

Close to an oxidizing agent to undergo oxidation where the light energy is transformed to stable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Z Scheme

A

PSII (P680) –> ETC –> P700ox –> ETC –> donated to NADP+
Along the way, proton gradient formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

P680ox replaces its electron by…

A

Taking an electron from water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to water molecules in PSII?

A

Split to create O2. O2 is then released into the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In photosynthesis, the plant cells use the ATP and NADPH formed during photophosphorylation to…

A

Reduce CO2 to sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are autotrophs

A

Organisms that can obtained their carbon from an inorganic source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are heterotrophs

A

Organisms that requrie organic carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Calvin Cycle leads to the reduction of

A

CO2 to G3P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the three stages of the Calvin Cycle

A
  1. Carbon fixation
  2. Redcution of 3-PGA
  3. Regeneration of RuBP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Amino acids are the…

A

monomers that make up proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the core structure of every amino acid

A

Alpha carbon bonded to an amino group, caboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and R group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the backbone of an amino acid

A

N-C-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

N terminus denotes…

A

The beginning of the molecule and the amino group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

C terminus denotes…

A

The end of the molecule and the carboxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where are peptide bonds formed

A

When two amino acids bond. Covalent bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What kind of reaction occurs when a peptide bond is formed

A

Condensation/hydrogen synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What bonds when a peptide bond is formed

A

The carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the other amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the most common shapes in the secondary structure

A

alpha helix and beta sheets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Secondary structures are held together by…

A

hydrogen bonds from the backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the tertiary structure?

A

3-D structure of polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What creates the tertiary structure?

A

Interactions among R groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What kind of bonds are found in tertiary structures?

A

Hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds, disulfide bridge (covalent bond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When is a disulfide bridge created?

A

When two cysteine side chains interact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What kind of proteins can refold?

A

Small proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Quaternary structure

A

Weak interactions between multiple tertiary structures to act as one unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When does denaturation occur

A

A proteins changes in temperature, pH, or exposure to chemicals and loses its shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Catalysts that are made of proteins often with non-protein cofactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Enzymes have an active site providing a unique chemical environment for…

A

Substrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How are enzymes regulated

A

Inhibition and activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Noncompetitive inhibitors are…

A

allosteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The chemical reactants to which an enzyme binds are the enzyme’s…

A

substrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The substrate binds onto the enzyme’s…

A

Active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is competitive inhibition?

A

When an inhibitor similar enough to a substrate binds to the active site to block the substrate from binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What happens in noncompeititve inhibition?

A

The inhibitor molecule binds to a location that is not the active site. The binding alters the shape of the enzyme so it doesn’t bind effectively. Also called allosteric inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Competitive inhibitors affect the __ but not the __ where noncompetitive inhibitors affect the ___

A

Initial rate; maximal rate; maximal rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are allosteric activators?

A

Bind to locations away from the active site, inducing a changw to increase chances of substrate binding to active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What do cofactors do?

A

Bind to molecules to promote optimal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are prokaryotes?

A

Single celled organisms that do not have a distinct nucleus with a membrane or other organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Prokaryotes are composed of two distinct groups of organisms:

A

Bacteria and archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Bacteria and archaea are ciritcal for…

A

recycling nutrients essential for creating new biomolecules and the evolution of new ecosystems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is a stromatolite?

A

Sedimentary structure formed when minerals precipitate out of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What began the oxygenation of the atmosphere?

A

Cyanobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a cell wall?

A

A protective structure that allows organisms to survive in extreme conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the three common shapes of bacteria and archaea?

A

Cocci (spherical), bacilli (rod-shaped), and spirlli (spiral-shaped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which aqueous compartment does ADP synthase occur?

A

Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The plastid’s inner membrane and thylakoid membrane are resistant to…

A

the diffusion of protons

108
Q

Water splitting occurs in the…

A

lumen of the thylakoids

109
Q

In water splitting, you are generating

A

protons and electrons. Contibutes to proton gradient

110
Q

Which side of the mitochondrial membrane would you make water?

A

On the matrix side

111
Q

Integral proteins are embedded…

A

across the plane of the membrane

112
Q

Peripheral proteins are attachded…

A

to the inner or outer surface

113
Q

Oxidation of water by P680 is endergonic/exergonic?

A

exergonic

114
Q

How are the 3 domains of life related?

A

A bacterium and an archean became symbionts; some of their descendants later evolved into eukaryotes

115
Q

Which strategy for capturing energy came last?

A

Aerobic respiration

116
Q

What might provide the energy required to concentrate the sugar lactose within a cell?

A

The coupled hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + Pi

117
Q

What happens in G1 phase?

A

Cell growth

118
Q

What happens in S phase?

A

DNA replication/synthesis, centrosomes replicate

119
Q

What is a centrosome?

A

Main microtubule organizers. Pull microtubules and create spindles

120
Q

What happens in G2 phase?

A

Preparing for division of cell by checking DNA, making sure there are enough organelle to move on

121
Q

What is G0 phase?

A

Inactive

122
Q

What happens in prophase?

A

Chromosome condensation
Centrosomes move toward poles

123
Q

Part of condensation involves binding proteins called…

A

cohesions

124
Q

What happens in prometa and metaphase?

A

Chromosomes captrued by poles
Chromatids line up on metaphase plate
Each sister chromatid is attached to a pole and under tension

125
Q

Dynein is…

A

Motor protein that moves toward negative pole of microtubules

126
Q

What happens in anaphase?

A

Cohesions holding chromatids and chromosomes separate

127
Q

What happens in telophase?

A

Chromosomes decondense
Nuclear envelope begins to reassemble
Microtubules become less dynamic

128
Q

What happens at the same time as telophase?

A

Cytokinesis

129
Q

Contractile ring is an…

A

actin/myosin cytoskeletal machine

130
Q

What is the end of goal of mitosis?

A

Create an identical pair of cells (conservative replication)

131
Q

What is the end goal of meiosis?

A

Create cells with half genetic content
Genetic variation
Reductive and recombinatorial

132
Q

What kind of cells are used in meiosis?

A

Somatic cells (non sex cells)

133
Q

End product of meiosis is…

A

gametes (haploid)

134
Q

An allele is…

A

a version of a gene

135
Q

What happens in prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

DNA condenses
Homologus chromosomes begin to associate

136
Q

In late prophase 1 of meiosis, homologus chromosomes begin to align and form…

A

Chiasmata (cross-over sites)

137
Q

Why is chiasmata important?

A

Provides genetic variation
Links homologus pair

138
Q

What happens in metaphase 1 of meiosis?

A

Nuclear envelope dissolves and microtubules hunt and find kinetichores

139
Q

Kinetichores pointing the same way are called…

A

Syntelic

140
Q

In metaphase 1 of meiosis, kinetichores for sister chromatids attach..

A

to the same centrosome/pole

141
Q

Kinetichore pointing different ways are called

A

amphisyntelic

142
Q

Sister chromatids have … attachment

A

syntelic

143
Q

homologus pairs have … attachment

A

amphisyntelic

144
Q

What happens in anaphase 1 and telophase 1 of meiosis?

A

Similar to mitosis but

145
Q

What connects to the centromeres?

A

Spindle, kinetichores, and hold the sister chromatids together

146
Q

Microtubules grow from…

A

centrosomes placed at opposite poles of the cell

147
Q

Microtubules attach at…

A

each chromosomes kinetichores

148
Q

Where does photosynthesis occur in green plants?

A

chloroplast

149
Q

The jelly-like structure in chloroplast is called…

A

stroma

150
Q

inside the stroma, there are…

A

grana

151
Q

one part of the grana is called…

A

thylakoid

152
Q

the thylakoid is made of…

A

thyloakoid membrane and lumen(innermost)

153
Q

What is the chlorophyll found in PS II of green plants?

A

P680

154
Q

What proteins are found in the thylakoid membrane?

A

PSII, Cytochrome B6F, PSI, ATP synthase

155
Q

What is the pigment in PSI?

A

P700

156
Q

What is the Z scheme?

A

Combination of the cyclic and non cyclic processes that plants do

157
Q

How do green plants put an electron back onto P680?

A

Oxidize water

158
Q

What are the products of non cyclic green plant photosynthesis?

A

NADPH and O2 (Byproduct)

159
Q

Which photosystem is used in cyclic green plant photosynthesis?

A

PSI

160
Q

What is the point of cyclic photosynthesis?

A

Generate a proton gradient to make ATP

161
Q

What is special about cyctochrome B6F

A

It can pump protons

162
Q

What do we call the motion of protons across ATP synthase

A

Chemiosmosis

163
Q

Cytochrome B6F pumps protons from the … to the …

A

stroma; lumen

164
Q

What are the products of green plant cyclic photosynthesis?

A

ATP

165
Q

What is the most abundant enzyme on Earth?

A

Rubisco

166
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the first step of the Calvin Cycle?

A

Rubisco

167
Q

Photosystems are made of…

A

pigments

168
Q

Early Earth was very high in ___ and ___ levels

A

H2; CO2

169
Q

What part of amino acids define tertiary structure?

A

R groups and primary structure

170
Q

What determines how proteins fold?

A

Primary structure

171
Q

Allosteric sites can…

A

Activate or deactivate enzymes

172
Q

Active sites can…

A

Bind substrates
Adjust substrates
Decrease transition energy level

173
Q

What are cofactors/coenzymes?

A

Attached to enzyme and required for its activity
Not used in reaction

174
Q

What are the products of the TCA cycle?

A

NADH, FADH2

175
Q

NADH and FADH2 from TCA cycle go to…

A

ETC

176
Q

What does the ETC make?

A

Proton gradient

177
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

When there is an excess product, so the product binds to the enzyme to inhibit it

178
Q

What does an allosteric activator do?

A

Binds to the enzyme to change its shape so that the substrate can bind to the enzyme

179
Q

What does an allosteric inhibitor do?

A

Binds to enzyme to change its shape so the substrate cannot bind to the enzyme

180
Q

Where does glycolysis, fermentation, TCA cycle, ETC, and pyruvate oxidation occur in prokaryotes?

A

Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm, Inner plasma membrane, Cytoplasm

181
Q

Where does glycolysis, fermentation, TCA cycle, ETC, and pyruvate oxidation occur in eukaryotes?

A

Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm, mitochondrial matrix, inner mitochondrial membrane, Mitochondrial matrix

182
Q

How did mitochondria arise?

A

Archaean engulfed bacterium. Kept it alive instead of digesting and the two formed a symbiotic relationship

183
Q

How did chloroplast arise?

A

Eukaryotic cell engulfed a cyanobacteria

184
Q

What kind of cells have mitochondria?

A

Animal cells, plant cells, protists, fungi

185
Q

What kind of cells have chloroplast?

A

Plant cells

186
Q

Where are integral membrane proteins located?

A

Along the lipid bilayer

187
Q

Where are the peripheral membrane proteins located?

A

On the inside or outside part of the membrane

188
Q

How are transport proteins similar to enzymes?

A

Can be under allosteric control
Can recognize specific substrates
Can couple unfavorable reactions with favorable ones

189
Q

What are the two kinds of transport?

A

Active and Passive

190
Q

What are the two kinds of passive transport?

A

Simple diffusion, and facilitated diffusion

191
Q

How is simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion different?

A

Simple diffusion uses no protein and is not regulated. Facilitated diffusion uses a transmembrane protein and is regulated

192
Q

What pass through transmembrane proteins?

A

Polar molecules and ions

193
Q

What is the difference between passive and active transport?

A

Passive goes with the concentration gradient (high to low) and active goes against it (low to high)

194
Q

What are the three proteins found in membrane transport?

A

Uniport, simport, antiport

195
Q

What does a uniport do?

A

Transport one thing in one direction

196
Q

What does a simport do?

A

Transport two things in one direction

197
Q

What does a antiport do?

A

Transports two things in two directions

198
Q

What are the two main differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells are large and have membrane bound organelles

199
Q

What is the zip code, road, and vehicle for intracellular transport?

A

Signal sequences, cytoskeleton, and motor proteins

200
Q

What are the two types of cytoskeleton for intracellular transport?

A

Microtubules and actin

201
Q

What motor proteins use microtubules?

A

dynein and kinesin

202
Q

What motor proteins use actin?

A

myosin

203
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the cytoskeleton?

A

Road for motor proteins
Maintain cell shape
Cellular motion
Providing mechanical strength

204
Q

Cytoskeleton is constantly being…

A

Formed and deformed

205
Q

What are intermediate filaments used for?

A

Mechanical strength, stress resistance, organelle anchoring

206
Q

What are microtubules used for?

A

Intracellular transport and cell division

207
Q

What is actin used for?

A

Intracellular transport, cellular motion, and maintaining cell shape

208
Q

What are the three filaments?

A

Intermediate filaments, microtubules, and actin

209
Q

What are microtubules made of?

A

alpha-beta-tubulin dimers

210
Q

What do the + end and - end of microtubules refer to?

A

Asymmetry

211
Q

What can alpha tubulin do?

A

Bind to GTP

212
Q

What can beta tubulin do?

A

Bind to GDP and GTP and hydrolyze GTP

213
Q

Which end does kinesin and dynein walk towards?

A

Kinesin: + end
Dynein: - end

214
Q

What does actin bind to?

A

ATP

215
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle? (Broad)

A

Grow phase, DNA replication, DNA segregation, cell division

216
Q

What are the two broad phases a cell spends in?

A

M phase and interphase

217
Q

What are centrosomes made of?

A

Microtubules

218
Q

What holds sister chromatids together?

A

Cohesin proteins

219
Q

What is different about metaphase I?

A

The centrosomes attach to both sister chromatids to ensure they are separating the homologous chromosomes and not the sister chromatids

220
Q

What are the four different things about meiosis I?

A

Recombination by crossing over
Synaptonemal complex
Kinetochore fusion
Centromere cohesin

221
Q

What are homologous chromosomes held together by?

A

Synaptonemal complex

222
Q

bivalent permits…

in chromosomes

A

recombination

223
Q

What is the place where homologous chromosomes interact with one another called?

A

chiasma

224
Q

If maternal and paternal have same alleles, it is…

A

homozygous

225
Q

Dominant:

A

One copy of allele is needed to obtain trait

226
Q

Recessive

A

Two copies of allele is needed to obtain trait

227
Q

Phenotype

A

Observable characteristics

228
Q

What did Mendel do

A

Observed pea plants

229
Q

Homologues are independently…

A

assorted

230
Q

Chromosomes are made of…

A

DNA and protein(histones)

231
Q

Heritable change in a living organism using material extracted from a dead one is called…

A

transformation
Ex: Making nonvirulent bacteria virulent

232
Q

What is Mendel’s 1st law of inheritance?

A

Segregation: Genes are transferred as separate and distinct units from one generation to the next

233
Q

Answer: dies or lives
Mouse injected with virulent S bacteria
Mouse injected with nonvirulent R bacteria
Mouse injected with virulent S bacteria that was heat treated
Mouse injected with virulent S bacteria that was heat treated and nonvirulent R bacteria

A

dies
lives
lives
dies

234
Q

What is Mendel’s 2nd law of inheritance?

A

Independent assortment: Alleles of a gene in 1 chromosome pair are inherited independently of alleles of a gene on another pair; gametes fuse at random

235
Q

What is Mendel’s 3rd law of inheritance?

A

Dominance: One allele possesses a greater influence over the other

236
Q

What do viruses consist of?

A

Protein and nucleic acid (DNA or RNA)

237
Q

Where are viruses injected into?

A

Injected into the cytoplasm of cells. Substance of virus can be determined based on radioactive material present, particularly, Phosphorus (DNA) and Sulfur (Proteins)

238
Q

P680 can (reduce/oxidize) …?

A

Oxidize water

239
Q

P700 can (reduce/oxidize) …?

A

Reduce NADP

240
Q

Lysozyme…

A

Breaks down cell walls

241
Q

What factors contribute to denaturing proteins?

A

Heat, salt, pH

242
Q

Model for structure of DNA gave an explanation for…

A

Sequence and code
Replication
Repair
Recombination

243
Q

DNA strands are (parallel/antiparallel)

A

Antiparallel

244
Q

DNA strands have polarity of…

A

(5’, 3’)

245
Q

Polymer of DNA

A

deoxyribonucleic acid

246
Q

Monomer of DNA

A

Deoxy-ribose nucleotides (A,C,T,G)

247
Q

Within strands nucleotides are linked by…

Between strands the bonds are…

A

Phospho-diester bonds

Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

248
Q

The 5’ sugar is linked to…

A

Phosphate group

249
Q

Incoming nucleotides are added to the …

A

3’ end

250
Q

DNA sequences are always written as …

A

5’ to 3’

251
Q

Nucleoside consists of:

A

Base + sugar (adenosine, guanine, thymine, cytidine)

252
Q

Nucleotide consists of:

A

Base + sugar + phosphate

253
Q

What are the nitrogenous bases

A

adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine

254
Q

DNA backbone is:

A

sugar - Phosphate - sugar

255
Q

What are the deoxy-ribose carbons 1’,3’,5’ linked to, respectively?

A

Base, OH, phosphate

256
Q

A always bonds with… (__ H bonds)

A

T (2 bonds)

257
Q

G always bonds with … (___ H bonds)

A

C (3 bonds)

258
Q

Complementarity makes strands…

A

redundant

259
Q

DNA replication requires a lot of…

A

enzymes and factors

260
Q

In DNA replication, enzymes come together in…

A

a replication fork that moves in one direction

261
Q

DNA primase:

A

Adds RNA primers without initial 3’ OH

262
Q

What are the three membrane functions mediated by proteins?

A

Platform for biological reactions
Sensing
Cell recognition

263
Q

Net direction of a reaction depends on…

A

Relative potential energies of reactants and products

264
Q

Potential energies of molecules are determined by…

A

Structure and concentration

265
Q

Hydrolysis of ATP could drive…

A

Formation of concentration gradient
Endergonic reactions
Cytoskeletal reorganization
Intrcellular transport
Muscle contraction

266
Q

When a photon interacts with a molecule, it can be…

A
  1. Scattered - Photon changes direction but no wavelength
  2. Transmitted - Photon keepd going
  3. Absorbed - Molecule acquires energy of photon and goes to excited state
267
Q

When a pigment molecule absorbs a photon, the enrgy can be…

A

Released as a lower energy photon (fluorescence)
Transferred directly to another nearby pigment (resonance)
Used for a chemical reaction (redox)