Bioprocess Engineering Flashcards
1
Q
Which lines indicate wet bulb temperatures in the psychometric charts?
a) Diagonals lines
b) Vertical lines
c) Horizontal lines
d) Curves
A
a) Diagonals lines
2
Q
Which lines indicate dry bulb temperatures in the psychometric chart?
a) Diagonals lines
b) Vertical lines
c) Horizontal lines
d) Curves
A
b) Vertical lines
3
Q
Which lines indicate relative humidity in the psychometric charts?
a) Diagonals lines
b) Vertical lines
c) Horizontal lines
d) Curves
A
d) Curves
4
Q
What is another name for humidity ratio?
a) Mixing ratio
b) Water ratio
c) Relative humidity ratio
d) Bound water ratio
A
a) Mixing ratio
5
Q
Who invented the psychometric chart?
a) Dr Richard Seligman
b) George Babcock
c) George Brayton
d) Willis H. Carrier
A
d) Willis H. Carrier
6
Q
This helps to decide the stability of food at particular moisture content in the given environment
a. equilibrium moisture content
b. psychometric charts
c. equilibrium moisture content and psychometric charts
d. chemical properties and psychometric charts
A
a. equilibrium moisture content
when there is an equilibrium in moisture content, no change in moisture content, thus stability
7
Q
Rate of drying depends on which of the following statement?
Statement 1: Vapor pressure of water at drying temperature.
Statement 2: Vapor pressure in the external environment.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, True
d) False, False
A
b) True, True
Rate of drying depends on
1. equilibrium vapor pressure of water
2. moisture of the food
3. vapor pressure of water at drying temperature
4. vapor pressure in the external environment
8
Q
Which of the following statements are true about drying?
Statement 1: Latent heat of vaporization is not necessary.
Statement 2: Moisture must be transported out from the food.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, True
d) False, False
A
c) False, True
9
Q
What happens to the drying rate when it reaches critical moisture content?
a) Declines
b) Increases gradually
c) Stops
d) Becomes constant
A
a) Declines
10
Q
What is the independent factor of the constant rate period?
a) Moisture content
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Humidity
A
a) Moisture content
11
Q
Name the phenomenon which transfers moisture during second falling drying rate period?
a) Liquid diffusion
b) Capillary movement
c) Vapor diffusion
d) Liquid diffusion, capillary movement, and vapor diffusion
A
d) Liquid diffusion, capillary movement, and vapor diffusion
12
Q
How does humidity affect drying rate?
a) No effect
b) Directly proportional
c) Indirect proportional
d) Linear increase
A
b) Directly proportional
13
Q
What happens to the drying rate during constant rate of drying period?
a) It reduces
b) It increases
c) Constant
d) Becomes negligible
A
b) It increases
14
Q
- What is the mass of water vapor present in 1 kg of dry air called?
a) Specific Humidity
b) Relative humidity
c) Degree of saturation
d) Saturated air
A
a) Specific Humidity
15
Q
What is the ratio of actual mass of water vapor in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapor in the same volume of saturated air at the same pressure and temperature?
a) Specific Humidity
b) Relative humidity
c) Degree of saturation
d) Saturated air
A
b) Relative humidity
16
Q
What is the ratio of actual mass of water vapor in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapor in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature?
a) Moist air
b) Dry air
c) Degree of saturation
d) Saturated air
A
c) Degree of saturation
17
Q
Specific humidity and absolute humidity have the same unit.
a) False
b) True
A
a) False
18
Q
When the adiabatic mixing is carried out, the air having ___ enthalpies and _____ specific humidities are mixed.
a. similar, similiar
b. different, similar
c. similar, different
d. different, different
A
d. different, different
The two air streams getting mixed adiabatically have different enthalpies and different specific humidities to get the final condition of air.
19
Q
During humidification process, the dry bulb temperature _____
a. increases
b. decreases
c. tends to zero
d. remains the same
A
d. remains the same
20
Q
During the sensible cooling process, specific humidity decreases
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
During sensible cooling process, the dry bulb temperature decreases. It is a horizontal process on a psychrometric chart. Hence, the specific humidity neither increases nor decreases, but there might be some change in relative humidity.
21
Q
Mixture of dry air and water vapor is ____
a. moist air
b. dry air
c. fresh air
d. saturated air
A
a. moist air
22
Q
What is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer when the moisture present in it starts condensing?
a. DBT
b. WBT
c. DPT
d. WBD
A
c. DPT or dew point temperature
it is also the temperature corresponding to the partial pressure of water vapor
23
Q
What is the temperature of air recorded by the thermometer when it is not affected by the moisture present in it?
a. DBT
b. WBT
c. DPT
d. sub-zero temperature
A
a. DBT
24
Q
For unsaturated air, the value of DPT is ________ WBT
a. less than
b. more than
c. equal to
d. much more than
A
a. less than
Moist air containing moisture in the superheated state is called unsaturated air. In this case DPT < WBT
25
What is the difference between DBT and WBT called?
a. DPD
b. DBD
c. Degree of saturation
d. WBD
d. WBD or wet bulb depression
indicates relative humidity of the air
26
Will DPT, DBT and WBT have the same value? At what condition?
a. it's impossible
b. yes, 0% RH
c. Yes, 100% RH
c. Yes, 100% RH
DPT, DBT, and WBT converge at one point when the air is saturated (RH = 100%)
27
A study that deals with the principles and practices of processing agricultural products suitable for food and feeds.
a. Agricultural processing
b. Food processing
c. Feed processing
d. All of the above
a. Agricultural processing
28
A study that deals with the application and practices in converting agricultural products into different kinds and forms of food suitable for animal consumption.
a. Agricultural processing
b. Food processing
c. Feed processing
d. All of the above
c. Feed processing
29
A study that deals with the application and practices in converting agricultural products into different kinds and forms of food.
a. Agricultural processing
b. Food processing
c. Feed processing
d. All of the above
b. Food processing
30
These are crops that are produced and harvested with normally low moisture content of about 20 to 30% and do not easily deteriorate or spoil.
a. Perishable crops
b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
d. None of the above
b. Durable crops
31
These are crops that have high moisture content of 30% and more such as fruits and vegetables including dairy, meat, poultry, and fish and easily deteriorate or spoil.
a. Perishable crops
b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
d. None of the above
a. Perishable crops
32
Processing operation which changes the physical properties of the product such as processing banana into catsup.
a. Primary processing
b. Secondary processing
c. Tertiary processing
d. None of the above
b. Secondary processing
33
Processing operation which does not significantly change the physical characteristics of the product such as drying and dehydration of fruits and vegetables.
a. Primary processing
b. Secondary processing
c. Tertiary processing
d. None of the above
a. Primary processing
34
Which country does not belong to the ASEAN Free Trade Agreement?
a. China
b. Japan
c. Korea
d. All of the above
e. None of the abov
d. All of the above
Brunei, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand
35
The study that deals with fluids at rest such as those fluids like coconut oil, milk, etc.
a. Hydrodynamic
b. Hydrostatic
c. Hydro pneumatic
d. None of the above
b. Hydrostatic
36
The study that deals with the various factors affecting the relationship between the rate of flow of fluid and the various pressures tending it to cause or inhibit its flow.
a. Hydrodynamic
b. Hydrostatic
c. Hydro pneumatic
d. None of the above
a. Hydrodynamic
37
Which of the following resources are considered fluid?
a. Biogas
b. Producer gas
c. Bioethanol
d. Coconut oil
e. Sugar cane juice
f. All of the above
g. None of the above
f. All of the above
38
Which of the following resources are not fluid?
a. Biomass
b. Grains and Cereals
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
39
Newton’s law of motion states that:
a. Everybody continues in a state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled by force to change that state.
b. The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the force applied and took place in the direction of the force application.
c. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
40
Mass flow rate states that:
a. The rate of flow of fluid is constant at any point in the system and there is no accumulation or depletion of fluid within the system.
b. The rate of flow of fluid is not constant at any point in the system and there is accumulation or depletion of fluid within the system.
c. The rate of flow of fluid increases at any point of the system and there is accumulation and no depletion within the system.
d. None of the above
a. The rate of flow of fluid is constant at any point in the system and there is no accumulation or depletion of fluid within the system.
41
Fluids include ___.
a. solid, gas, and liquid
b. gas and liquid
c. liquid
d. All of the above
b. gas and liquid
42
The characteristic of agricultural products that determines the angle by
which it will move freely by gravity with respect to the material in which it is held, such as hopper bottom of a storage bin structure.
a. Angle-of-repose
b. Angle-of-friction
c. Angle-of-slide
d. None of the above
b. Angle-of-friction
43
This refers to the characteristics of fluid that is linearly related to shear force.
a. Newtonian fluid
b. Non-Newtonian fluid
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
a. Newtonian fluid
44
An example of Newtonian fluid.
a. Coconut oil
b. Butter
c. Slurries
d. None of the above
a. Coconut oil
45
This refers to the characteristics of fluid not linear with the shear force.
a. Newtonian fluid
b. Non-Newtonian fluid
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
b. Non-Newtonian fluid
46
An example of Non-Newtonian fluid.
a. Purees
b. Jathropha oil
c. Coconut water
d. None of the above
a. Purees
47
This refers to the internal resistance of fluid to shear.
a. Viscosity
b. Coefficient-of-friction of fluid to fluid
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
c. All of the above
48
Reynolds number is a function of the ___.
a. inside diameter of the pipe
b. velocity of fluid inside the pipe
c. specific weight of the fluid
d. fluid viscosity
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
e. All of the above
49
Reynolds number equation.
a. Re = DVδ/μ
b. Re = DV/μ
c. Re = DV/δμ
d. None of the above
a. Re = DVδ/μ
50
When fluids flow in elemental swirl or eddies, it is classified as ___.
a. turbulent flow
b. laminar flow
c. mixture of laminar and turbulent flow
d. None of the above
a. turbulent flow
51
When fluids flow in parallel elements, it is classified as ___.
a. turbulent flow
b. laminar flow
c. mixture of laminar and turbulent flow
d. None of the above
b. laminar flow
52
Which of the following factors affect the flow of fluid in pipes?
a. Characteristics of fluid
b. Size of pipe
c. Shape of pipe
d. Condition inside the surface of the pipe
e. Fluid velocity
f. All of the above
g. None of the above
f. All of the above
53
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The velocity of fluid flowing in a pipe is highest at the center and decreases towards its surfaces.
b. The velocity gradient for streamlined flow in a long circular conduit is parabolic in shape.
c. The velocity gradient for turbulent flow flattens and the relationship between the maximum and the average velocity changes.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
54
The angle formed by agricultural product itself with respect to the horizontal axis which varies with the moisture content and the amount of foreign matter.
a. Angle-of-repose
b. Angle-of-friction
c. Angle-of-slide
d. None of the above
a. Angle-of-repose
55
A simple device used to measure pressure by taking the difference in the height of fluid inside a tube.
a. Pyschrometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Manometer
d. None of the above
c. Manometer
56
The pressure taken from the direction of fluid which is also the pressure resulting from force due to change in velocity of the fluid.
a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Isothermic pressure
d. None of the above
b. Dynamic pressure
57
The pressure taken perpendicular from the direction of fluid where sample application of which is taking the velocity of flow of fluid in pipes using pitot-tube manometer.
a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Isothermic pressure
d. None of the above
a. Static pressure
58
The unit of pressure.
a. Psi
b. Inches of water
c. Inches of mercury
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
59
High pressure is usually expressed in ___.
a. psi
b. inches of water
c. inches of mercury
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. psi
60
Low pressure is usually expressed in ___.
a. psi
b. inches of water
c. inches of mercury
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
b. inches of water
61
Very low pressure is usually expressed in ___.
a. psi
b. inches of water
c. inches of mercury
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
c. inches of mercury
62
In fluid mechanics, the total hydraulic energy is the sum of ___ energy plus the work supplied by the pump or blower less friction (conduit and fittings) in the system.
a. potential and kinetic
b. pressure and kinetic
c. potential, kinetic, and pressure
d. None of the above
c. potential, kinetic, and pressure
63
An open tube pointing to the direction of flow of the fluid that is usually used with manometer to measure static and dynamic pressures.
a. Pitot-Tube
b. Orifice
c. Weir
d. None of the above
a. Pitot-Tube
64
Which of the following instruments can measure the flow of fluid?
a. Pitot tube
b. Venturi meter
c. Hot wire anemometer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
65
Which of the following fluids is considered as highly incompressible?
a. Flue gases
b. Biogas
c. Vegetable oil
d. All of the above
c. Vegetable oil
66
Which of the following fluids is considered as compressible?
a. Producer gas
b. Vegetable oil
c. Molasses
d. None of the above
a. Producer gas
67
The mass flow rate equation:
a. Q = AVδ
b. Q = AV
c. Q = Aδ
d. None of the above
a. Q = AVδ
68
The available energy due to the elevation above a reference plane.
a. Pressure Energy
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy
d. None of the above
c. Potential Energy
69
The available energy due to the internal pressure.
a. Pressure Energy
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy
d. None of the above
a. Pressure Energy
70
The energy available from moving fluids.
a. Pressure Energy
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy
d. None of the above
b. Kinetic Energy
71
The process which results in the diffusion of substances from the region of high concentration to the region of low concentration.
a. Energy transfer
b. Mass transfer
c. Heat transfer
d. None of the above
b. Mass transfer
72
The amount of heat transfer from within the product.
a. Thermal diffusivity
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Thermal expansion
d. None of the above
b. Thermal conductivity
73
The unhulled grain of Oryza sativa.
a. Palay
b. Paddy
c. Rough rice
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
74
The fibrous layer of paddy when hull is removed and is commonly known as the silver skin of brown rice.
a. Lemma and Palea
b. Pericarp
c. Bran layer
d. None of the above
b. Pericarp
75
An angle with tangent equals the coefficient of friction between surfaces of the stored materials.
a. Angle-of-contact
b. Angle-of-friction
c. Angle-of-repose
d. All of the above
b. Angle-of-friction
76
The drying temperature of copra is ___.
a. less than 50°C
b. between 50° to 95°C
c. above 95°C
d. None of the above
b. between 50° to 95°C
77
The density of pig and poultry feeds is approximately ___.
a. 250 kg/m3
b. 450 kg/m3
c. 650 kg/m3
d. None of the above
b. 450 kg/m3
78
The slender-type paddy has ___ length to width ratio.
a. less than 2.0
b. between 2 to 3
c. more than 3.0
d. None of the above
c. more than 3.0
79
The free space between the husk of rough rice and the brown rice kernel greatly affects milling in the sense that ___.
a. the larger the free space the greater is the amount of broken grains
b. the smaller the free space the lesser its abrasive effect to the
rubber-roll huller
c. the larger the free space, the lesser the breakage and losses
d. All of the above
c. the larger the free space, the lesser the breakage and losses
80
The uneven expansion and contraction of the inner and the outer layers of the grains that cause fissuring is a factor of ___.
a. mechanical stress
b. thermal stress
c. physical stress
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
b. thermal stress
81
The property of a product that holds moisture when subjected to a prolong condition of known temperature and relative humidity.
a. Dry matter loss
b. Mass transfer coefficient
c. Equilibrium moisture content
d. None of the above
c. Equilibrium moisture content
82
The specific gravity of rice.
a. 1.11 to 1.12
b. 1.19 to 1.30
c. 1.22 to 1.26
d. None of the above
a. 1.11 to 1.12
83
The specific gravity of sorghum.
a. 1.11 to 1.12
b. 1.19 to 1.30
c. 1.22 to 1.26
d. None of the above
c. 1.22 to 1.26
84
The bulk density of rough rice.
a. 25 lbs/ft3
b. 36 lbs/ft3
c. 45 lbs/ft3
d. None of the above
b. 36 lbs/ft3
85
The specific gravity of corn.
a. 1.11 to 1.12
b. 1.19 to 1.30
c. 1.22 to 1.26
d. None of the above
b. 1.19 to 1.30
86
The physical properties of important agricultural processing.
a. Surface area
b. Porosity
c. Bulk density
d. Angle-of-repose
e. Angle-of-friction
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
87
The angle-of-repose of rough rice.
a. 27 degrees
b. 33 degree
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above
c. 36 degrees
88
The angle-of-repose of shelled corn.
a. 27 degrees
b. 33 degree
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above
a. 27 degrees
89
The angle-of-repose of sorghum.
a. 27 degrees
b. 33 degree
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above
b. 33 degree
90
The angle-of-friction of rough rice in steel.
a. 0.41
b. 0.37
c. 0.36
d. None of the above
a. 0.41
91
The angle-of-friction of shelled corn in steel.
a. 0.41
b. 0.37
c. 0.36
d. None of the above
b. 0.37
92
The angle-of-friction of soybean in steel.
a. 0.41
b. 0.37
c. 0.36
d. None of the above
c. 0.36
93
Which of the following thermal properties are important in agricultural processing?
a. Thermal conductivity
b. Specific heat
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion
d. Heat of vaporization
e. Thermal diffusivity
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
94
The thermal conductivity of paddy
grain ___ linearly with temperature, bulk density, and moisture content.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. do not increase or decrease
d. None of the above
a. increases
95
The bulk density of shelled corn.
a. 25 lbs/ft3
b. 36 lbs/ft3
c. 45 lbs/ft3
d. None of the above
c. 45 lbs/ft3
96
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the product one degree higher when heat is added.
a. Heat of vaporization
b. Specific heat
c. Thermal diffusivity
d. None of the above
b. Specific heat
97
The amount of heat required to remove a certain amount of moisture from the product.
a. Heat of vaporization
b. Specific heat
c. Thermal diffusivity
d. None of the above
a. Heat of vaporization
98
Hygroscopic properties important in agricultural processing.
a. Equilibrium moisture content
b. Mass transfer coefficient
c. Dry matter loss
d. Tempering period
e. All of the above
e. All of the abovec
99
The mass transfer among agricultural products is a function of ___.
a. air temperature
b. air relative humidity
c. airflow rate
d. thickness
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
100
The equivalent loss in the dry matter of a product due to respiration during storage.
a. Moisture loss
b. Dry matter loss
c. Respiration loss
d. None of the above
b. Dry matter loss
101
The terminal velocity of rough rice.
a. 1.3 to 5.2 m/s
b. 6.0 to 7.1 m/s
c. 7.5 to 9.0 m/s
d. None of the above
b. 6.0 to 7.1 m/s
102
The pressure drop in the product during drying is a function of ___.
a. airflow
b. amount of foreign matter present
c. moisture content
d. depth of drying
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
103
Which of the following rice variety that is characterized by short and bold?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. None of the above
a. Japonica
104
Which of the following variety that is characterized by long and slender?
a. Indica
b. Java
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
a. Indica
105
Variety of rice which is difficult to threshed?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. All of the above
a. Japonica
106
Variety of rice which is easy to cracked when pass through a rubber rice mill?
a. Japonica
b. Indica
c. Java
d. None of the above
e. Two of the above
e. Two of the above
107
The amount of moisture in the grain expressed as a percentage of the total weight of the samples.
a. Moisture content dry basis
b. Moisture content wet basis
c. Moisture content
d. All of the above
b. Moisture content wet basis
108
The amount of moisture in the grain expressed as a percentage of the weight of dry matter.
a. Moisture content dry basis
b. Moisture content wet basis
c. Moisture content
d. None of the above
a. Moisture content dry basis
109
A moisture meter that determines the moisture content of the product based on the ability of the current to pass through the material.
a. Capacitance-type moisture meter
b. Resistance-type meter
c. Infrared moisture meter
d. All of the above
b. Resistance-type meter
110
When the amount of water in a product is determined based on its dry matter content, the moisture content is expressed in ___.
a. wet basis
b. dry basis
c. semi wet basis
d. None of the above
b. dry basis
111
The method of measuring the moisture content of the product by direct extraction of water.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Tertiary method
d. None of the above
a. Primary method
112
Which of the following is considered primary method in determining moisture content?
a. Oven method
b. Distillation method
c. Infrared method
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
113
An expression of moisture content commonly used in commercial scale.
a. Moisture content wet basis
b. Moisture content dry basis
c. Moisture content
d. All of the above
a. Moisture content wet basis
114
Which of the following is considered secondary method in determining moisture content?
a. Electrical-resistance method
b. Electrical-capacitance method
c. Chemical method
d. Hygrometric method
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
e. All of the above
115
The moisture found at the surface of the material.
a. Unbound water (Free moisture)
b. Bound water
c. Chemically bound
d. All of the above
a. Unbound water (Free moisture)
116
An important index to determine whether the paddy is ready for harvesting, storage or milling.
a. Color
b. Moisture content
c. Hardness
d. None of the above
b. Moisture content
117
The moisture inside the tissue of a material that can only be removed by heating or reducing the vapor pressure within the material.
a. Chemically-bound moisture
b. Bound moisture
c. Unbound
d. All of the above
b. Bound moisture
118
The difficult-to-remove moisture from the product that requires other method than heating in order to remove it.
a. Chemically-bound moisture
b. Bound moisture
c. Free moisture
d. All of the above
a. Chemically-bound moisture
119
A plot or a graph representing the equilibrium moisture content of grains at different relative humidity but with constant temperature.
a. Isothermal graph
b. Sorption isotherms
c. Isothermal humidity
d. None of the above
b. Sorption isotherms
120
The appliance usually used in calibrating resistance- and capacitor-type moisture meters.
a. Oven
b. Distillation
c. Infrared
d. All of the above
a. Oven
121
The device used by the industry in determining moisture content of grains.
a. Oven
b. Electrical resistance- and
capacitance-type meter
c. Infrared moisture meter
d. All of the above
b. Electrical resistance- and
capacitance-type meter
122
The process of removing contaminants from the product.
a. Sorting
b. Grading
c. Cleaning
d. None of the above
c. Cleaning
123
The process of separating cleaned products in various quality fractions that maybe defined based on the size, shape, texture, colors, and other factors.
a. Sorting
b. Grading
c. Cleaning
d. None of the above
b. Grading
124
Which of the following parameters are taken into consideration during cleaning and grading products?
a. Size
b. Weight
c. Surface Texture
d. Affinity to liquid
e. Color
f. Shape
g. All of the above
g. All of the above
125
The rough cleaning of paddy removing most foreign materials prior to drying and storage.
a. Aspiration
b. Scalping
c. Sieving
d. All of the above
b. Scalping
126
Self-cleaning sieves used for rice mills basically consist of ___.
a. a brush to remove particles that clogs the screen of the cleaner
b. one or two balls that continuously hammer the top sieve of the cleaner
c. assigned operator to do the cleaning while the machine is operating
d. None of the above
b. one or two balls that continuously hammer the top sieve of the cleaner
127
The process of separating lower density materials from grains.
a. Aspiration
b. Cleaning
c. Fanning
d. All of the above
a. Aspiration
128
A kind of cleaner that uses air in separating lesser-density materials from corn kernel/corn grits such as floured corn, germ and bran.
a. Aspirator
b. Oscillating screen
c. Cleaner
d. Cyclone separator
e. All of the above
a. Aspirator
129
A machine used to remove hard materials of almost the same size as milled rice through gravity separation
using air stream to cause rice grains to be carried away by the air stream leaving heavy materials behind.
a. Aspirator
b. De-stoner
c. Sifter
d. None of the above
b. De-stoner
130
The machine used to separate grains according to color or reflectivity.
a. Color meter
b. Electronic color sorter
c. Electric color separator
d. None of the above
c. Electric color separator
131
A primary cleaner which separates larger particles from rice, also known as “rough cleaning” of rough rice.
a. Rotary sieve
b. Scalper
c. Vibrating screen
d. All of the above
b. Scalper
132
The recommended size of scalper for paddy is ___.
a. 0.2-0.25sq.m. per ton
b. 0.3-0.35sq.m. per ton
c. 0.4-0.45sq.m. per ton
d. None of the above
a. 0.2-0.25sq.m. per ton
133
A type of screen cleaners that uses air blast to assist in the cleaning.
a. Screen separator
b. Fanning mill
c. Blower
d. None of the above
b. Fanning mill
134
The percentage of grains free from foreign matter.
a. Percentage foreign matter
b. Percentage Cleanliness
c. Purity
d. None of the above
c. Purity
135
When removing light particles from threshed grains that goes with the chaffs during operation, what would be the best course of action that you should recommend as an Agricultural Engineer in order to achieve better cleaning and separation?
a. Install additional perforated sheets in the cleaning system.
b. Provide an air-blast system using a blower so it can carry light particles.
c. Reduce the feeding of threshed grains.
d. None of the above
b. Provide an air-blast system using a blower so it can carry light particles.
136
A grain separator for seed based on the affinity for liquid or on the rate at which the surface of the seed absorbs liquid.
a. Vibrator separator
b. Aspirator
c. Magnetic separator
d. None of the above
c. Magnetic separator
137
A separator used for particles with low and high terminal velocity.
a. Air-blast separator
b. Aspirator
c. Fanning mill
d. None of the above
b. Aspirator
138
Vibrator separator is recommended for separating grains based on ___.
a. weight
b. surface texture
c. size
d. None of the above
b. surface texture
139
The amount of foreign materials in a sample of grains.
a. Impurities
b. Chalky grain
c. Dockage
d. None of the above
c. Dockage
140
The material commonly used in separating grains from chaffs according to size.
a. Indented plate
b. Perforated sheet
c. Steel screen
d. All of the above
b. Perforated sheet
141
When using a cylindrical slotted rotating screen or sheet, the material can be separated in terms of ___.
a. weight
b. shape
c. thickness
d. None of the above
c. thickness
142
Indented rotating cylinders are usually used for separating grains in terms of ___.
a. thickness
b. width and length
c. size
d. None of the above
b. width and length
143
Air blast separation is effective for separating the product based on ___.
a. size
b. weight
c. length
d. None of the above
b. weight
144
Precleaners are provided for the rice milling plant primarily to ___ and to improve the quality of the final product.
a. add for the machine requirement
b. protect other processing equipment
c. reduce the load
d. None of the above
b. protect other processing equipment
145
Magnetic separator basically is installed in the rice milling plant before the ___.
a. precleaner
b. husker
c. whitener
d. polisher
e. None of the above
a. precleaner
146
In a tray-type paddy separator, brown rice moves at the ___ of the tray.
a. bottom
b. middle
c. top
d. None of the above
c. top
147
A separation equipment coupled to the end of a pneumatic conveyor to separate solid particles from the air stream.
a. Magnetic separator
b. Cyclone separator
c. Vibratory separator
d. None of the above
b. Cyclone separator
148
Efficiency of ordinary cyclone ranges from ___.
a. 80 to 90%
b. 95 to 98%
c. 98 to 99%
d. None of the above
a. 80 to 90%
149
The process of making too-large-to be-used solid materials usable.
a. Size reduction
b. Grinding
c. Cutting
d. All of the above
a. Size reduction
150
Size-reduction processes include ___.
a. cutting
b. crushing
c. grinding
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
151
Raw materials for feeds are processed primarily using a size-reduction equipment to ___.
a. increase the surface area of contact of the material to facilitate taking place of reaction
b. make it palatable when used as feed for animals
c. facilitate conveyance operation at the feed mill
f. All of the above
a. increase the surface area of contact of the material to facilitate taking place of reaction
152
A physical mechanism used in size reduction process.
a. Compression
b. Impact
c. Attrition
d. Cutting
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
153
Which of the following statements is true in relation to size-reduction operation?
a. Size reduction is the most inefficient unit operation in terms of energy use.
b. Size reduction is the most efficient unit operation in terms of energy use.
c. Size reduction is neither efficient nor inefficient unit operation in terms of energy use
d. None of the above
a. Size reduction is the most inefficient unit operation in terms of energy use.
154
Which of the following statements is true in relation to reducing particle size of a material?
a. Reduction of materials to very fine sizes is more costly in terms of energy as compared with reduction to relatively coarse particles.
b. Reduction of materials to very fine sizes is much cheaper in terms of energy as compared with reduction to relatively coarse particles.
c. Reduction of materials to very fine sizes has the same cost as with reduction to relatively coarse particles.
d. None of the above
a. Reduction of materials to very fine sizes is more costly in terms of energy as compared with reduction to relatively coarse particles.
155
Which of the following is an example of size-reduction processes?
a. Chopping corn fodder
b. Slicing of sweet potato
c. Milling of cassava into flour
d. All of the above
c. Milling of cassava into flour
156
A trade term used relative to the reduction of grains into meal or flour.
a. Shredding
b. Crushing
c. Milling
d. None of the above
c. Milling
157
Vertical-axis hammer mill is more advantageous to use than horizontal-axis for the reason that:
a. It is more effective in grinding grains with higher moisture content of
up to 25%.
b. The power requirement of the vertical-axis hammer mill is much lower than that of the horizontal-axis hammer
mill.
c. Less broken grains can be derived from vertical-axis.
d. None of the above
a. It is more effective in grinding grains with higher moisture content of
up to 25%.
158
Size-reduction machines are
characterized based on ___.
a. capacity
b. power required unit material reduce
c. size and shape of the product after reduction
d. range of size and shape of resulted product
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
159
The process of reducing the size of materials by applying force to the product in excess of its strength.
a. Shearing
b. Crushing
c. Milling
d. None of the above
b. Crushing
160
The process of reducing the size of materials by pushing or forcing a thin sharp knife into it.
a. Shearing
b. Crushing
c. Cutting
d. All of the above
c. Cutting
161
The process of reducing the size of materials by cutting and crushing actions.
a. Milling
b. Grinding
c. Shearing
d. None of the above
c. Shearing
162
The power requirement in reducing the size of grains is ___ for moist grains than for dried grains.
a. lesser
b. the same
c. higher
d. None of the above
c. higher
163
An indicator of the uniformity of ground materials in the resultant product.
a. Uniformity index
b. Particle size
c. Fineness modulus
d. All of the above
c. Fineness modulus
164
The power requirement of size reduction equipment is ___ for fibrous than for crystalline materials.
a. lesser
b. the same
c. higher
d. None of the above
c. higher
165
Performance characteristics of size reduction equipment are based on ___.
a. size uniformity
b. temperature rise
c. power requirement
d. trouble-free operation
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
166
Hammer mills are designed purposely to ___.
a. chop forage materials
b. reduce the sizes of granular products
c. compact powdered product
d. None of the above
b. reduce the sizes of granular products
167
A type of mill used for crushing grains by allowing it to pass through two rotating-cylinder steels, one of which is smaller than the other.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Plate mill
d. All of the above
b. Roller mill
168
The size-reduction machine usually used in feed milling to break dried grains into suitable size for feeds.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill
d. None of the above
a. Hammer mill
169
In hammer milling, the fineness of a material is determined by the ___.
a. number of hammers
b. speed of hammer
c. size of hole of the screen
d. None of the above
c. size of hole of the screen
170
The energy requirement of a hammer mill in grinding shelled corn.
a. 7.4 kw-hr/ton
b. 5.8 kw-hr/ton
c. 2.3 kw-hr/ton
d. None of the above
a. 7.4 kw-hr/ton
171
When reduced material size is between 1/8 in. or more, it is classified as ___.
a. microscopic range
b. sieve range
c. dimension range
d. None of the above
c. dimension range
172
When reduced material size is less than 0.0029 in., it is classified as ___.
a. microscopic range
b. sieve range
c. dimension range
d. None of the above
a. microscopic range
173
When reduced material size is between 0.125 to 0.0029 in., it is classified as ___.
a. microscopic range
b. sieve range
c. dimension range
d. None of the above
b. sieve range
174
Sieves used in determining the fineness modulus of a material includes 3/8-, 4-, 8-, 14-, 28-, 48-. and ___ -in. mesh.
a. 60
b. 80
c. 100
d. None of the above
c. 100
175
A cassava processing plant is required to grind fresh cassava into flour, what size-reduction machine would you
recommend as an Agricultural Engineer?
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill
d. None of the above
c. Burr mill
176
In burr milling, the size of grind can be varied by ___.
a. varying the size of the screen opening
b. varying the pressure on the plates
c. varying the opening between rolls
d. None of the above
b. varying the pressure on the plates
177
The operating speed of burr mills.
a. Less than 1200 rpm
b. 1200 to 2400 rpm
c. 2400 to 3200 rpm
d. None of the above
a. Less than 1200 rpm
178
A grain milling machine consisting of two cast-iron disk plates with teeth or serration on one or on both faces.
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
b. Attrition mill
179
A burr or plate mill.
a. Micro mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
b. Attrition mill
180
A device used for classifying granular materials by passing through series of screens.
a. Tyler sieves
b. Tyler screen
c. Tyler separator
d. None of the above
a. Tyler sieves
181
The most suitable machine for
reducing size of materials like forages, straws, stalks, and weeds.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill
d. Cutter mill
e. All of the above
d. Cutter mill
182
A grain milling machine suitable for grinding grains with moisture content of up to 30%.
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition or burr mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
b. Attrition or burr mill
183
The operating speed of burr mills.
a. Less than 1200 rpm
b. 1200 to 2400 rpm
c. 2400 to 3200 rpm
d. None of the above
a. Less than 1200 rpm
184
The speed of hammer mills.
a. 200 to 1000 rpm
b. 1500 to 4000 rpm
c. 4500 to 6000 rpm
d. None of the above
b. 1500 to 4000 rpm
185
During grinding, the temperature of the material ___ when grinding fibrous than granular material.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. does not change
d. None of the above
b. increases
186
The factor affecting the power requirement of grinding mill.
a. Type of material
b. Moisture content of material
c. Fineness of grinding of material
d. Rate of feeding the material
e. Type and condition of mill
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
187
The rotating disk of the burr mill can be found ___.
a. near the hopper
b. away from the hopper
c. underneath the hopper
d. None of the above
b. away from the hopper
188
The biomass shredder employs ___ in producing shredded products.
a. cutting and crushing by twisting pressure
b. cutting and crushing by impact
c. cutting and shearing
d. None of the above
a. cutting and crushing by twisting pressure
189
A forage chopper employs ___.
a. cutting
b. crushing
c. shearing
d. None of the above
c. shearing
190
Hammer mill is protected from foreign objects by making it ___.
a. fix in position to the shaft
b. swing freely in the shaft
c. detachable from the the screen
d. None of the above
b. swing freely in the shaft
191
Which of the following size-reduction equipment operates by crushing method?
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
c. Roller mill
192
An Important reason for reducing the size of a product.
a. Easy handling
b. Increase surface area per unit volume
c. Separation of entrapped components
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
193
A kind of grinder for intermediate grinding which uses round shaped metals inside a cylinder that breaks the material finely by impact action.
a. Caster mill
b. Roller mill
c. Ball mill
d. All of the above
c. Ball mill
194
which of the following statements is true?
a. Size reduction is to make too large solids to be usable.
b. Size reduction increases the surface area per unit volume of the material which enhances the rate of reaction.
c. Size reduction makes handling of materials much easier.
d. All of the above
d. All of the above`
195
The process of combining different materials until a certain degree of homogeneity is achieved.
a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding
d. None of the above
b. Mixing
196
The assembling and measuring of the needed amount of every solid raw feed material in the formulation of the desired composition of a mixture.
a. Mixing
b. Blending
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
b. Blending
197
The blending of ingredients or of materials in agricultural processing operation.
a. Sorting
b. Molding
c. Mixing
d. All of the above
c. Mixing
198
Basically, the purpose of mixing is ___.
a. to promote the transfer of heat between hot and cold products
b. to obtain good contact between materials being mixed
c. to promote reactions between reactants
d. All of the above
e. Any two of the above
d. All of the above
199
During mixing, heavier particles tend to remain ___ of the container.
a. near the bottom
b. away from the bottom
c. at the middle
d. None of the above
a. near the bottom
200
An indicator of satisfactory mixing.
a. Produce uniform mixture
b. Less time in mixing materials
c. Less cost
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
201
Feed materials are purposely mixed to ___.
a. obtain a homogenous feed to ensure that animals are given the same proportions of nutrient
b. reduce the density of the feed material so that it can be easily transported
c. improve the digestability of feeds
d. None of the above
a. obtain a homogenous feed to ensure that animals are given the same proportions of nutrient
202
During mixing, round or small particles tend to move towards the ___ of the container.
a. top
b. middle
c. bottom
d. All of the above
a. top
203
Difficulty in mixing may result if the solid particles has ___.
a. the same size but of different specific gravity
b. different sizes
c. different shapes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
204
If mixing is needed during conveying, the suitable conveyor to use is ___ type.
a. bucket
b. screw
c. belt
d. All of the above
b. screw
205
A mixer with U-shaped bin containing a central mixing blade or a ribbon mounted on a rotating shaft.
a.Horizontal mixer
b.Inclined mixer
c.Vertical mixer
d.All of the above
a.Horizontal mixer
206
A feed mixer characterized by high capacity, short mixing time, and high power requirement.
a.Horizontal mixer
b.Inclined mixer
c.Vertical mixer
d.All of the above
a.Horizontal mixer
207
Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for feed mixing as compared with vertical feed mixer for the reason that ___.
a.it has lower capacity
b.it has high power requirement
c.it has shorter life span
d.None of the above
b.it has high power requirement
208
A feed mixer characterized by low capacity, longer mixing time and low power requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer
b. Inclined mixer
c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
c. Vertical mixer
209
A feed mixer with an auger that elevates the feed to the top of the mixing bin and spreads them evenly throughout by gravity for another mixing cycle.
a.Horizontal mixer
b.Vertical mixer
c.Inclined mixer
d.All of the above
b.Vertical mixer
210
The auger that is centrally located in a vertical feed mixer and usually rotates at ___ speed.
a.100-250 rpm
b.250-400 rpm
c.400-650 rpm
d.None of the above
b.250-400 rpm
211
A type of mixer suitable for either free flowing or non-free flowing materials.
a.Rotating mixer without stirrers
b.Rotating mixer with stirrers
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
b.Rotating mixer with stirrers
212
The type of mixer satisfactory for extensively large operations.
a. Batch-type mixer
b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
c. Continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above
c. Continuous-type mixer
213
The type of mixer suitable for moderate to small operation in which overhead cost is low and labor cost is not critical.
a. Batch-type mixer
b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
c. Continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above
a. Batch-type mixer
214
Difficulty in mixing often occurs if the solids are ___ size and shape but of different specific gravity.
a. not the same
b. the same
c. either the same or not the same
d.None of the above
b. the same
215
Mixing of particles is also difficult if they have ___ size and shape.
a. the same
b. different
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
b. different
216
Heavier particles remains at the ___ during mixing.
a. top
b. middle
c. bottom
d. All of the above
c. bottom
217
The small size batch-type mixer.
a. Rotating drum with flights
b. U-shaped mixer with rotating flights and paddles
c. Vertical mixer with central auger
d. None of the above
a. Rotating drum with flights
218
A ___ mixer basically uses a number of mixers in which feed materials are loaded into one mixer at a time and are emptied into a common conveyor or storage.
a. batch
b. semi-continuous
c. continuous
d. None of the above
b. semi-continuous
219
The ___ mixer operates with the use of screw conveyors having especial flights to insure thorough mixing of materials being mixed.
a. batch
b. semi-continuous
c. continuous
d. None of the above
c. continuous
220
An air-moving device commonly used for drying which produces high pressure but low airflow.
a. Blower
b. Fan
c. Compressor
d. None of the above
a. Blower
221
An air-moving device that produces high airflow but low head.
a. Fan
b. Blower
c. Compressor
d. All of the above
a. Fan
222
The measure of the power output of a fan in relation to its power input.
a. Fan thermal efficiency
b. Fan performance index
c. Fan efficiency
d. All of the above
c. Fan efficiency
223
Which of the following operations employs air-moving devices?
a. Drying
b. Material handling
c. Refrigerating
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
224
An air-moving device suitable for grain cleaning.
a. Axial fan
b. Propeller fan
c. Cross-flow fan
d. All of the above
c. Cross-flow fan
225
If the diameter of the blower is increased, the pressure will consequently
___.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. be the same
d. None of the above
a. increase
226
A Class 1 air-moving device operating at pressure equal to or more than 1 psi.
a. Blower
b. Fan
c. Exhauster
d. All of the above
a. Blower
227
A Class 2 air-moving device operating at pressure less than 1 psi.
a. Blower
b. Fan
c. Compressor
d. All of the above
b. Fan
228
An air-moving device in which the air flow is at the same axis with the shaft of the device.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Vane-axial fan
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
e. All of the above
229
The air-moving device commonly used for 6-ton flatbed paddy dryers.
a. Forward-curved centrifugal blower
b. Propeller fan
c. Vane-axial fan
d. None of the above
c. Vane-axial fan
230
The air-moving device commonly used for pneumatic conveyor systems.
a. Backward-curved-centrifugal blower
b. Propeller fan
c. Vane-axial fan
d. None of the above
a. Backward-curved-centrifugal blower
231
The air-moving device commonly used for tunnel-ventilated poultry farms.
a. Radial-centrifugal blower
b. Propeller fan
c. Vane-axial fan
d. None of the above
b. Propeller fan
232
An axial-flow-type fan with set of guide vanes located before or after the wheel and is capable to deliver higher pressure than that of the tube-axial fan.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Vane-axial fan
e. None of the above
d. Vane-axial fan
233
An axial-type fan with enlarged hubs and warped blades for better efficiency in order to operate against higher pressure than that of the propeller fan.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Vane-axial fan
e. None of the above
b. Axial-flow fan
234
An axial-type fan that delivers large volume of air at low head and has few narrow blades.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Vane-axial fan
e. None of the above
a. Propeller fan
235
If the width of the blade of an axial type fan is increased, the airflow will relatively ___.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. None of the above
a. increase
236
If the diameter of the blade of an axial-type fan is increased, the airflow will relatively ___.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. None of the above
b. decrease
237
An axial-type fan with wider axial flow wheel capable of delivering higher pressure than that of the axial-flow fan and is driven either by belt or by direct drive system.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Vane-axial fan
e. None of the above
c. Tube-axial fan
238
An air-moving device in which airflow enters the axis of the shaft of the rotating blades and leaves in perpendicular manner.
a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
c. Tube-axial fan
d. Centrifugal blower
e. None of the above
d. Centrifugal blower
239
If the width of the impeller of a centrifugal-type blower is increased, the airflow will relatively ___.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. None of the above
a. increase
240
If the diameter of the impeller of the centrifugal-type blower is increased, the pressure will relatively __.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain the same
d. None of the above
a. increase
241
A low-pressure high-airflow centrifugal-type blower that delivers uniform airflow along its length.
a. Axial-type fan
b. Centrifugal blower
c. Cross-flow centrifugal blower
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
c. Cross-flow centrifugal blower
242
A centrifugal-type blower operating at low speed at several inches of pressure than that of the axial-type fan and has a squirrel-cage rotor and large number of blades.
a. Forward-curved-blade centrifugal blower
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal blower
c. Backward-curved-blade centrifugal blower
d. All of the above
a. Forward-curved-blade centrifugal blower
243
A centrifugal blower with blades positioned at the same plane with the rotating shaft and has a larger housing than other types of centrifugal blower and is capable to handle dirty air and conveys materials that go through the fan.
a. Forward-curved-blade centrifugal blower
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal blower
c. Backward-curved-blade centrifugal blower
d. All of the above
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal blower
244
A type of centrifugal blower with few blades tilted backward from the direction of wheel rotation and is inherently high speed with self-limiting horsepower characteristics, and delivers higher pressure than that of the forward and radial-type centrifugal blowers.
a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal blower
b. Radial or straight- blade centrifugal blower
c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal blower
d. All of the above
c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal blower
245
The air-moving device commonly used for refrigeration and ventilation systems.
a. Forward-curved
b. Radial
c. Backward-curved
d. None of the above
a. Forward-curved
246
Noise level is highest for ___ centrifugal blower.
a. forward-curved
b. radial
c. backward-curved
d. None of the above
c. backward-curved
247
For the same shaft rpm, which of the following centrifugal blowers delivers higher pressure?
a. Forward-curved
b. Radial
c. Backward-curved
d. None of the above
c. Backward-curved
248
The factor to consider in selecting an air-moving device.
a. Quantity of air to be moved per unit time.
b. Estimated system resistance or head.
c. Amount of noise permitted.
d. Space available.
e. Economic implication.
f. All of the above
g. None of the above
f. All of the above
249
The ratio between the discharge pressure to the suction pressure of a fan.
a. Pressure ratio
b. Head ratio
c. Specific ratio
d. None of the above
c. Specific ratio
250
The specific ratio of fan.
a. Below to 1.11
b. 1.11 to 1.20
c. 1.20 and above
d. None of the above
a. Below to 1.11
251
The specific ratio of blower.
a. Below to 1.11
b. 1.11 to 1.20
c. 1.20 and above
d. None of the above
b. 1.11 to 1.20
252
The specific ratio of compressor.
a. Below to 1.11
b. 1.11 to 1.20
c. 1.20 and above
d. None of the above
c. 1.20 and above
253
The volume of air delivered multiplied by the total pressure divided by the power input to the fan shaft.
a. Fan mechanical efficiency
b. Fan static efficiency
c. Fan dynamic efficiency
d. None of the above
a. Fan mechanical efficiency
254
The volume of air delivered multiplied by the static pressure divided by the power input to the fan shaft.
a. Fan mechanical efficiency
b. Fan static efficiency
c. Fan dynamic efficiency
d. None of the above
b. Fan static efficiency
255
When buying a fan, the parameters to be provided to the suppliers are ___.
a. air flow and power
b. airflow and pressure
c. airflow and speed
d. None of the above
b. airflow and pressure
256
In general, the safety margin required over the maximum air flow rate of a fan is ___.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. None of the above
a. 5%
257
The safety margin for induced draft fan based on volume.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. None of the above
b. 20%
258
The safety margin for induced draft fan based on head.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. None of the above
c. 30%
259
Forward-curved fans are ___
efficient than backward-curved fans.
a. less
b. more
c. same
d. None of the above
a. less
260
Centrifugal fans are suitable for ___ flow at high pressure.
a. low to moderate
b. low to high
c. moderate to high
d. None of the above
a. low to moderate
261
Axial fans are suitable for ___ flow at low pressure.
a. low to moderate
b. low to high
c. moderate to high
d. None of the above
b. low to high
262
Centrifugal fans are relatively ___ Expensive than axial-flow fans.
a. less
b. more
c. not
d. None of the above
b. more
263
The system resistance of a fan varies ___ the volumetric flow of air of the system.
a. linear with
b. square of
c. exponentially with
d. None of the above
b. square of
264
The movement of material in a processing plant in any direction may it be horizontal, vertical or any combination.
a. Transporting
b. Shipping
c. Material handling
d. All of the above
c. Material handling
265
The commonly used material- handling equipment.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
266
The type of bucket elevators designed to handle grains.
a. Centrifugal
b. Positive (gravity)
c. Continuous (direct gravity)
d. None of the above
a. Centrifugal
267
Which of the following is a good design feature for bucket elevators.
a. Clean out provision for booth.
b. Belt tension take up.
c. Replaceable liners at point of wear.
d. Provision to remove large foreign materials such as metals and stones.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
e. all of the above
268
When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the downside section, instead of the upside section of the elevator booth, its power requirement will ___.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. be the same
d. None of the above
b. increase
269
A drag, flight or scraper conveyor.
a. Screw conveyor
b. Chain conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. None of the above
b. Chain conveyor
270
Carrying capacity of a single bucket in a bucket elevator is usually calculated by design engineers considering a ___ of the rated capacity.
a. 60 to 75%
b. 85 to 90%
c. 95 to 100%
d. None of the above
b. 85 to 90%
271
The capacity of a bucket elevator is a function of ___.
a. bucket size
b. bucket spacing
c. belt speed
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
272
The actual horsepower requirement of bucket elevators is ___ higher than the theoretical value due to friction, power transmission and drive losses.
a. 5 to 10%
b. 10 to 15%
c. 15 to 20%
d. None of the above
b. 10 to 15%
273
Which of the following statements is true in selecting belts for bucket elevators.
a. As the diameter of the pulley increases, the number of plies required for the belt increases.
b. As the diameter of the pulley increases, the number of plies required for the belt decreases.
c. As the diameter of the pulley increases, the number of plies required for the belt remains the same.
d. None of the above
a. As the diameter of the pulley increases, the number of plies required for the belt increases.
274
Which of the following is not considered a material handling equipment?
a. Bucker elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. Lifts, trucks, and carts
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
e. None of the above
275
A conveyor which is essentially made of an endless belt operating between two or more pulleys with load supported by idlers.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Pneumatic conveyor
d. None of the above
b. Screw conveyor
276
A machine recommended for use in conveying products with less damage.
a. Bucket elevator
b. Screw conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
d. All of the above
c. Belt conveyor
277
The part of a belt conveyor used to discharge materials over the end of the belt with the use of a diagonal scraper.
a. Scraper
b. Tripper
c. Head pulley
d. None of the above
b. Tripper
278
Which of the following is a characteristic of belt conveyors?
a. Self cleaning
b. Limited elevating capacity
c. Can convey materials in long distance
d. Negligible damage to product being conveyed
e. Two of the above
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
279
The factor affecting the capacity of belt conveyors.
a. Belt width
b. Angle of trough
c. Belt speed
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
d. All of the above
280
The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors includes the power ___.
a. to drive empty
b. to drive at horizontal
c. to drive vertical
d. All of the above
a. to drive empty
281
The type of belt conveyor suitable for conveying grains.
a. Flat belt
b. Trough belt
c. V-belt
d. None of the above
b. Trough belt
282
Commonly used belt conveyor for paddy in bag storage.
a. Flat belt
b. Trough belt
c. V-belt
d. None of the above
a. Flat belt
283
The angle of inclination of belt conveyors for conveying paddy and most grains.
a. 9 to 12 degrees
b. 16 to 17 degrees
c. 20 to 24 degrees
d. None of the above
b. 16 to 17 degrees
284
A device used to tighten the belt in order to provide proper tension of the belt of a belt conveyor.
a. Belt take up unit
b. Belt idler pulley
c. Belt tripper
d. None of the above
a. Belt take up unit
285
The conveyor used to handle finely divided powders, damp, sticky, and heavy viscous materials and hot substances and granular materials of all types.
a. Belt conveyor
b. Screw conveyor
c. Bucket elevator
d. Pneumatic conveyor
e. None of the above
b. Screw conveyor
286
A conveyor used for fine materials and is made of a helical plate that rotates on a trough and moves the product by dragging.
a. Chain conveyor
b. Pneumatic conveyor
c. Screw conveyor
d. None of the above
c. Screw conveyor
287
If a screw conveyor is inclined, its capacity to convey will ___.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. be the same
d. None of the above
b. decrease
288
Assuming the roughness of the surface of rough rice and corn is equal, which of them requires more power to convey using a screw conveyor?
a. Rough rice
b. Shelled corn
c. Same for both materials
d. None of the above
b. Shelled corn
289
Screw conveyors are seldom used for conveying rough rice for the reason that ___.
a. it is expensive since the materials are difficult to fabricate
b. it easily wears out screw and trough because rough rice is abrasive
c. it doesn’t look good to convey rough rice using the conveyor
d. None of the above
b. it easily wears out screw and trough because rough rice is abrasive
290
The standard screw pitch for screw conveyors.
a. 1/2 of the diameter
b. 1 of the diameter
c. 1-1/2 of the diameter
d. None of the above
a. 1/2 of the diameter
291
The type of screw utilized for screw conveyors, which are used to mix materials while conveying.
a. Variable-pitch screw
b. Steeped-diameter screw
c. Ribbon screw
d. None of the above
c. Ribbon screw
292
A device used to support long horizontally-oriented screw.
a. End bearings
b. Hangers brackets
c. Trough
d. None of the above
b. Hangers brackets
293
A U-shaped trough without cover is usually used for screw conveyors ___ in
position.
a. vertically-oriented
b. inclined
c. horizontally-oriented
d. None of the above
c. horizontally-oriented
294
Pulleys used to hold the belts of a belt conveyor to keep them in place.
a. Head pulley
b. Booth pulley
c. Idlers
d. None of the above
c. Idlers
295
Pulleys used to drive the belt at the inlet and at the outlet ends of a belt conveyor.
a. Head pulley
b. Booth pulley
c. End pulleys
d. None of the above
c. End pulleys
296
The trough angle for belt conveyors used for paddy and grains.
a. 10 degrees
b. 20 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. None of the above
b. 20 degrees
297
A machine recommended to use in removing metallic elements during conveying.
a. Screen separator
b. Magnetic separator
c. Pneumatic separator
d. None of the above
b. Magnetic separator
298
The type of a conveyor feeder used for feeding birds in cages in a poultry farm.
a. Flat-chain feeder
b. Auger feeders
c. Round chain feeders
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
299
An electrically-operated device commonly used for automatic bagging of grains or of feeds.
a. Solenoid switch
b. Transducer
c. Load cell
d. None of the above
c. Load cell
300
An auger which releases conveyed materials uniformly along a substantial portion of its length.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger
d. None of the above
a. Feeding auger
301
An auger capable of discharging materials to one or more locations.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger
d. None of the above
c. Distributing auger
302
An auger with accessories that include a suitable support system for mobility.
a. Feeding auger
b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger
d. None of the above
b. Portable auger
303
The size of an auger is referred to the ___.
a. diameter of the auger
b. inside diameter of the auger tube
c. outside diameter of the auger tube
d. None of the above
c. outside diameter of the auger tube
304
A conveyor with high power requirement per unit capacity.
a. Bucket
b. Belt
c. Pneumatic
d. All of the above
c. Pneumatic
305
A pneumatic conveyor moves granular materials at a velocity beyond the ___ of the materials.
a. superficial velocity
b. apparent velocity
c. terminal velocity
d. None of the above
c. terminal velocity
306
Conveying material can be changed easily when using ___.
a. screw conveyor
b. bucket elevator
c. pneumatic conveyor
d. None of the above
c. pneumatic conveyor
307
Pneumatic conveyor is used very seldom in conveying rough rice for the reason that ___.
a. it is heavy to convey
b. the shape is not round
c. it is abrasive
d. None of the above
c. it is abrasive
308
A pneumatic conveyor system that usually operates below atmospheric pressure.
a. High-pressure system
b. Low-pressure system
c. Suction system
d. All of the above
c. Suction system
309
A pneumatic conveyor system that uses low-velocity, high-density air employing a positive displacement blower for which elevator is a function of ___.
a. high-pressure system
b. low-pressure system
c. suction system
d. All of the above
a. high-pressure system
310
The main reason that pneumatic conveyor is not preferred over bucket, belt and screw conveyors is because the pneumatic conveyor ___.
a. is expensive
b. has high power requirement
c. requires manpower when loading a material
d. None of the above
b. has high power requirement
311
For grains, the air conveying capacity required for pneumatic conveyor is ___.
a. 15 to 50 ft3/lb
b. 55 to 100 ft3/lb
c. 105 to 250 ft3/lb
d. None of the above
a. 15 to 50 ft3/lb
312
The static pressure for fan design in a pneumatic conveyor system is ___ times of the air pressure requirement.
a. 1.2 to 1.3
b. 2.2 to 2.3
c. 3.2 to 3.3
d. None of the above
a. 1.2 to 1.3
313
The design grain-to-air weight ratio for pneumatic conveyor is ___.
a. 1:1.2 to 1:3.7
b. 1:3.8 to 1:4.5
c. 1:4.6 to 1:5.5
d. None of the above
a. 1:1.2 to 1:3.7
314
The drive motor of belt conveyor is usually located at the ___ of the conveyor.
a. head pulley
b. booth pulley
c. legs
d. None of the above
a. head pulley
315
The drive motor of belt conveyor is usually located at the ___ of the conveyor.
a. receiving pulley
b. discharge pulley
c. idler pulley
d. None of the above
b. discharge pulley
316
If 4 inches cup is used for a bucket elevator, the recommended width of belt is ___ inches.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. None of the above
b. 5
317
If 4 inches cup is used for a bucket elevator, what is the recommended pulley width of the bucket elevator?
a. 4 in.
b. 5 in.
c. 6 in.
d. None of the above
c. 6 in.
318
The bearing use to tighten bucket and belt conveyor.
a. Pillow block bearing
b. Flange bearing
c. Take-up unit
d. None of the above
c. Take-up unit
319
The bearing used to support two in line screws in a screw conveyor to prevent sagging.
a. Pillow block bearing
b. Take-up unit
c. Hanger bearing
d. None of the above
c. Hanger bearing
320
The bearing used for screw conveyor ends.
a. Pillow block bearing
b. Flange bearing
c. Hanger bearing
d. None of the above
b. Flange bearing
321
Idler pulleys are provided much ___ at the top belt than at the bottom belt.
a. Closer
b. farther
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
a. Closer
322
Power requirement in bucket elevator is less when loading is to be located at the ___ of the elevator.
a. down side section
b. up side section
c. edge side section
d. None of the above
b. up side section
323
The temporary holding of grains between drying passes to allow the moisture in the center of the grain to equalize with that on its surface.
a. Tempering
b. Static drying
c. Dry aeration
d. None of the above
a. Tempering
324
The process of subjecting the liquid product into a stream of hot air in a drying vessel to separate the water from the particles producing fine particles as the product.
a. Air drying
b. Spray drying
c. Freeze drying
d. None of the above
b. Spray drying
325
A dehydration process that operates on principle of cooling the product until it solidifies followed by subjecting it to a low pressure to cause the water in the product to sublimate hence minimize alteration of its properties.
a. Air drying
b. Spray drying
c. Freeze drying
d. None of the above
c. Freeze drying
326
A device that generally removes excess moisture by forced ventilation either with or without addition of heat.
a. Fryer
b. Dehydrator
c. Dryer
d. None of the above
c. Dryer
327
A batch-type dryer with vertical holding-bin used for deep-bed drying.
a. Recirculating dryer
b. Vertical-bin dryer
c. Batch-type dryer
d. None of the above
b. Vertical-bin dryer
328
A mechanical dryer equipped with series of holding bins that allow grains to continuously pass through its drying chamber until their moisture content is reduced to a desired level.
a. Batch dryer
b. Continuous-flow dryer
c. Recirculating dryer
d. None of the above
b. Continuous-flow dryer
329
A batch-type dryer that circulates or mixes the grains during drying.
a. Vertical-bin dryer
b. Recirculating dryer
c. Flat-bed dryer
d. None of the above
b. Recirculating dryer
330
An air chamber maintained under pressure and is usually connected to one or more distribution ducts in a drying system.
a. Drying bin
b. Plenum chamber
c. Air duct
d. None of the above
b. Plenum chamber
331
The pressure built up in the plenum chamber used to maintain uniform distribution of airflow throughout the mass of grains.
a. Velocity pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Dynamic pressure
d. Any combination of the above
b. Static pressure
332
The component of a dryer that converts the velocity pressure of the fan to static pressure.
a. Drying bin
b. Plenum chamber
c. Manometer
d. None of the above
b. Plenum chamber
333
The divisional layer between the dried and the undried products in a drying system.
a. Drying layer
b. Drying zone
c. Drying front
d. All of the above
c. Drying front
334
The minimum drying efficiency requirement for mechanical dryers, based on standard performance criteria.
a. 90%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. None of the above
b. 75%
335
In grain drying theory, drying occurs when ___.
a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the vapor pressure of the air
b. the vapor pressure of grains is lower than the vapor pressure of the air
c. the vapor pressure of grains is equal with the vapor pressure of theair
d. None of the above
a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the vapor pressure of the air
336
The minimum heat utilization efficiency requirement for direct-fired petroleum-fueled mechanical dryers, based on standard performance criteria.
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. None of the above
a. 90%
337
The minimum heating efficiency requirement for direct-fired biomass fueled grain dryers.
a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 50%
d. None of the above
b. 65%
338
In heated-air drying in a flat-bed type dryer, the drying zone start from the ___ of the drying bin adjacent to the plenum chamber.
a. top
b. middle
c. bottom
d. None of the above
c. bottom
339
The usual depth of grains in a deep bed batch dryer.
a. 18 inches
b. 2 to 8 ft
c. 8 to 10 ft
d. None of the above
c. 8 to 10 ft
340
The recommended depth of grains in a shallow-bed dryer.
a. Up to 12 inches
b. Up to 18 inches
c. Up to 24 inches
d. All of the above
b. Up to 18 inches
341
The amount of heat required to raise one gram of water one degree centigrade.
a. One BTU
b. One calorie
c. One joule
d. All of the above
b. One calorie
342
The ratio of the heat released by the fuel to the theoretical heat available in it.
a. Burner efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Combustion efficiency
d. None of the above
c. Combustion efficiency
343
During the testing of a dryer, the ambient relative humidity is 75%, if the relative humidity at the outlet of the drying chamber reads 70%, the product being dried undergoes ____.
a. drying
b. adsorption
c. desorption
d. All of the above
b. adsorption
344
A psychrometer measures the ___ of the air.
a. dry and wet bulb temperature
b. dry bulb temperature and relative humidity
c. wet bulb temperature and relative humidity
d. None of the above
a. dry and wet bulb temperature
345
What is the relative humidity of the air if the psychrometer measures 40°C for both the dry bulb and the wet bulb temperatures?
a. 40%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. All of the above
c. 100%
346
If the point is moved horizontally to the left of the psychrometric chart, the process is ___.
a. heating
b. cooling
c. drying
d. None of the above
b. cooling
347
Referring to the psychrometric chart, the humidity ratio is ___ during heating process .
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. None of the above
c. constant
348
In the psychrometric chart, the relative humidity ___ during heating process.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. Is constant
d. None of the above
b. decreases
349
Still referring to the psychrometric chart, the enthalpy of air ___ during heating process.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. Is constant
d. None of the above
a. increases
350
Wet bulb thermometer measures the temperature of the air at a condition that the air is ___.
a. unsaturated
b. fully saturated
c. Dry
d. None of the above
b. fully saturated
351
The falling rate period is observed during drying when ___ moisture in the product is being removed.
a. unbound
b. bound
c. chemically bound
d. None of the above
b. bound
352
The rate of moisture removal during the falling rate period is ___.
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. not changing
d. None of the above
b. decreasing
353
The constant rate period during drying happens when ___ moisture in the product is being removed.
a. unbound
b. bound
c. chemically bound
d. None of the above
a. unbound
354
The transfer of energy in the system and the environment that occurs without the use of heat.
a. Isothermal process
b. Isobaric process
c. Adiabatic process
d. None of the above
c. Adiabatic process
355
Heated-air drying is an example of ___ process.
a. heating
b. cooling
c. adiabatic
d. None of the above
c. adiabatic
356
In the psychrometric chart, the enthalpy of air is ___ during adiabatic process.
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. None of the above
c. constant
357
In the psychrometric chart, the relative humidity of air is ___ during adiabatic process.
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. None of the above
a. increasing
358
In the psychrometric chart, the dry bulb temperature of air is ___ during adiabatic process.
a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. None of the above
b. decreasing
359
Equilibrium moisture level is attained when the vapor pressure of the product is ___ to the vapor pressure of the ambient air.
a. higher
b. lower
c. equal
d. None of the above
c. equal
360
How many 1.2-m x 2.4-m perforated metal sheets are usually used in the construction of the 6-ton flatbed dryer by the Department of Agriculture.
a. 6 sheets
b. 9 sheets
c. 12 sheets
d. None of the above
b. 9 sheets
361
Drying at night time basically ___ the drying time of the grains being dried due to high humidity.
a. shortens
b. prolongs
c. does not change
d. None of the above
362
The recommended thickness when sundrying paddy in the Philippines.
a. 2.5 cm
b. 5.0 cm
c. 7.5 cm
d. None
b. 5.0 cm
363
The recommended frequency of mixing when sundrying in the Philippines.
a. Every 30 min
b. Every 1 hour
c. Every 1-1/2 hour
d. None of the above
a. Every 30 min
364
The apparent air velocity of paddy in a shallow-bed heated-air dryer.
a. 0.15 m/s
b. 0.20 m/s
c. 0.25 m/s
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
365
The apparent air velocity of paddy in a low-temperature deep-bed dryer.
a. 0.1 m/s
b. 0.2 m/s
c. 0.3 m/s
d. All of the above
a. 0.1 m/s
366
When drying paddy in a low temperature deep-bed dryer, the recommended initial moisture content of the material must be ___.
a. above 21%
b. 19 to 21%
c. 18% and below
d. All of the above
c. 18% and below
367
The typical power requirement of paddy in a heated-air shallow-bed paddy dryer.
a. 1.5 kW per ton of paddy
b. 2.0 kW per ton of paddy
c. 2.5 kW per ton of paddy
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
1-5 to 2.5 kW per ton of paddy
368
A method of drying wherein the relative humidity of the drying air is controlled so that all the grain layers in the deep bed reach equilibrium moisture content
.
a. Low-temperature drying
b. Heated-air drying
c. Flash drying
d. None of the above
a. Low-temperature drying
369
An example of fixed-bed batch dryer.
a. Flat-bed dryer
b. Inclined-bed dryer
c. Circular-bin dryer
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
370
The traditional method of drying
paddy in the field immediately upon harvest and bundling without undergoing any threshing operation.
a. Sundrying
b. Air drying
c. Panicle drying
d. None of the above
c. Panicle drying
371
The optimum thickness and mixing interval when sundrying paddy.
a. 2-4 cm and 30 min
b. 5-6 cm and 45 min
c. 7-8 cm and 60 min
d. All of the above
a. 2-4 cm and 30 min`
372
A storage practice in which grains are stored in loose form in a large container.
a. Bag storage
b. Bunker storage
c. Bulk storage
d. All of the above
c. Bulk storage
373
A storage system for holding buffer stocks and is usually located at the shipping receiving terminals.
a. Village-level storage system
b. Commercial-level storage system
c. Centralized storage system
d. All of the above
c. Centralized storage system
374
A storage method in which the concentration of gas in the storage atmosphere is changed.
a. Sealed storage
b. Modified atmosphere
c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above
b. Modified atmosphere
375
A storage structure made of pre fabricated reinforcement concrete with metal siding and with either a hopper bottom or a flat bottom.
a. Warehouse
b. Silo
c. Bulk container
d. All of the above
b. Silo
376
The method of piling grains that provides ventilation space between bags and allows circulation of convective air current which, in turn, becomes the medium for heat dissipation.
a. Chinese Method
b. Japanese Method
c. Philippine Method
d. None of the above
b. Japanese Method
377
The process in which air moves through the mass of stored grains at a low rate to maintain grain quality.
a. Cooling
b. Aeration
c. Fanning
d. None of the above
b. Aeration
378
A wooden frame used in stacking bags of rice.
a. Dunnage
b. Loading platform
c. Bag holder
d. All of the above
a. Dunnage
379
A warehouse used for storing paddy or rice, either in bulk or in bags.
a. Silo
b. Godown
c. Farmstead
d. None of the above
b. Godown
380
The maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in bag storage.
a. 12-16 sacks
b. 18-25 sacks
c. 28-30 sacks
d. None of the above
b. 18-25 sacks
381
The recommended stacking density for paddy per cubic meter of space.
a. 5 bags
b. 10 bags
c. 15 bags
d. None of the above
b. 10 bags
382
The recommended stacking density for corn per cubic meter of space.
a. 12 bags
b. 14 bags
c. 16 bags
d. None of the above
a. 12 bags
383
The recommended stacking density for rice per cubic meter of space.
a. 10 bags
b. 15 bags
c. 20 bags
d. None of the above
b. 15 bags
384
.The allowable space between the top of the stacks and the roof truss of a warehouse.
a. 1.0 meter
b. 1.5 meters
c. 2.0 meters
d. None of the above
a. 1.0 meter
385
The recommended dimension for maximum piling of stacks to conform with the fumigating sheets in situations where warehouses cannot be made airtight.
a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
d. None of the above
a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
386
The recommended optimum stack height for paddy stored in a warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above
a. 16 layers
387
The recommended overall height by ASAE for an agricultural pallet bin.
a. 72 or 133 cm
b. 62 or 122 cm
c. 52 or 112 cm
d. None of the above
a. 72 or 133 cm
388
A small metal probe used for taking samples of paddy from a sack.
a. Sampling tube
b. Trier
c. Sampler
d. None of the above
b. Trier
389
The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits and vegetables is ___.
a. 60-70%
b. 80-90%
c. 90-100%
d. None of the above
b. 80-90%
390
The size of wire mesh used in storage to protect stored product from insects and rodents.
a. ¼-inch mesh
b. ½-inch mesh
c. ¾ -inch mesh
d. All of the above
a. ¼-inch mesh
391
The recommended optimum stock height for maize stored in a warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above
b. 18 layers
392
The moisture content of copra for use as a feed ingredient that is safe for storage.
a. 5.8%
b. 11%
c. 13%
d. None of the above
a. 5.8%
393
Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and nutritive value of grains during prolonged storage, even in the absence of insects and microorganisms, are due to ___.
a. moisture and temperature
b. vapor pressure and temperature
c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. moisture and temperature
394
Gases used to disinfect commodities either in stalks under gas-proof sheet or in sealed silos, warehouses, and transport container.
a. Fumigants
b. Aerosol
c. Carbon dioxide
d. None of the above
a. Fumigants
395
An example of fumigants.
a. Methyl bromide
b. Phosphine
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
c. All of the above
396
The dosage of fumigants to be applied depends on the ___.
a. temperature of commodity
b. exposure period
c. amount of fumigant lost
d. evenness of distribution and penetration
e. pest to be controlled
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
397
The average concentration of gas in air to which a normal worker can be exposed continuously and repeatedly during the usual hours of work without ill effects, expressed in ppm.
a. Threshold limit value
b. Average concentration limit
c. Average concentration value
d. None of the above
a. Threshold limit value
398
ppm means ___.
a. parts per minute
b. percent per minute
c. parts per million
d. None of the above
a. parts per minute
399
The relationship between the moisture content of a product at a given relative humidity and temperatures.
a. Moisture Sorption Isotherm
b. Isothermal Moisture
c. Moisture isotherm
d. None of the above
a. Moisture Sorption Isotherm
400
The phenomenon that the moisture content of a product for a particular equilibrium relative humidity varies when they are absorbing moisture than when they are desorbing moisture.
a. Hysteresis
b. Adiabatic
c. Isothermal
d. None of the above
a. Hysteresis
401
The relative humidity of the air with respect to the moisture condition of the product, i.e. when moisture between the air and the product is at stead state.
a. Equilibrium moisture content
b. Equilibrium relative humidity
c. Equilibrium condition
d. None of the above
b. Equilibrium relative humidity
402
The amount of water present in the air.
a. Air moisture content
b. Air humidity
c. Relative humidity
d. None of the above
c. Relative humidity
403
The factor that needs to be considered in determining the storage requirement.
a. Number of crops per year
b. Staggering of crops and harvest
c. Consumption vs harvest
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
d. All of the above
404
Grain-infesting insects are very temperature sensitive, they multiply slowly ___ temperature.
a. below 15.6°C
b. between 15.6° and 4.6°C
c. above 41.6°C
d. None of the above
a. below 15.6°C
405
Grain-infesting insect cannot survive ___.
a. below 15.6°C
b. between 15.6° and 4.6°C
c. above 41.6°C
d. None of the above
c. above 41.6°C
406
Damage caused by fungi (molds) and bacteria in stored grains.
a. Decrease in germinability
b. Kernel discoloration
c. Heating and mustiness
d. Bad odor and off-flavor
e. Development of toxins
f. Weight loss
g. All of the above
h. Five of the above
g. All of the above
407
Aeration during storage is used to ___
a. cool the grain
b. prevent storage odor in the grain
c. remove small amount of moisture in the grain
d. reduce moisture accumulation in grain
e. way to apply fumigants in grain
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
408
The process of keeping grains either in bags or in bulk in a structure to protect the grains from inclement weather and pests for a short or long period of time to await further processing or movement to other location.
a. Grain drying
b. Grain tempering
c. Grain storage
d. None of the above
c. Grain storage
409
Which of the following is not cereal grains?
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Corn
d. Barley
e. None of the above
e. None of the above
410
A typical condition where the grain embryo is inactive and can be stored for a longer period.
a. 15°C storage temperature
b. Below 70% storage humidity
c. 14-15% grain moisture
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
411
The basic requirement for safe storage of grains.
a. Healthy and clean grains
b. Uniformly dried grains
c. Storage structure that maintain suitable environment that will prevent insects and animal pests.
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
d. All of the above
412
When the temperature outside the storage structure is cold, there will be ___ as a result of temperature rise at the center of the stored grains and build up moisture that condenses on top of the silo.
a. moisture migration
b. equilibrium moisture development
c. sorption isotherms
d. None of the above
a. moisture migration
413
A storage level for community cooperatives in which traders offer storage to meet the needs of some farmers with typical range of few tons to several hundred tons of palay consisting of single or multiple units.
a. Village level
b. Commercial level
c. Centralized level
d. None of the above
a. village level
414
A storage level with capacity of few hundreds to few thousand tons consisting of several storage facility units.
a. Village level
b. Commercial level
c. Centralized level
d. None of the above
b. Commercial level
415
A storage level used for holding buffer stocks and usually located at shipping-receiving terminals with capacity of few thousand tons and above.
a. Village level
b. Commercial level
c. Centralized level
d. None of the above
c. Centralized level
416
The hydrothermal treatment of paddy before milling is called ___.
a. parboiling
b. drying
c. water treatment
d. None of the above
c. water treatment
417
The extent by which the bran layer of the brown rice is removed as a result of whitening.
a. Milling degree
b. Degree of whitening
c. Milling recovery
d. All of the above
a. Milling degree
418
A machine that converts paddy to milled rice.
a. Paddy husker
b. Rice whitener
c. Rice mill
d. All of the above
c. Rice mill
419
A kind of rice mill that employs only one whitening machine.
a. “Kiskisan” rice mill
b. Single-pass rice mill
c. Rubber-roll rice mill
d. None of the above
b. Single-pass rice mill
420
The ratio of the weight of milled rice to the weight of paddy multiplied by one hundred.
a. Percentage head rice recovery
b. Percentage milling recovery
c. Percentage milling capacity
d. None of the above
b. Percentage milling recovery
421
The maximum percentage of milling recovery from rice mills.
a. 69%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. None of the above
a. 69%
422
Broken rice is a quality deterioration index during ___.
a. drying
b. threshing
c. milling
d. None of the above
c. milling
423
A fraction of grain with its length equal to or greater than an average of three-fourths.
a. Large broken grain
b. Small broken grain
c. Head grain
d. None of the above
c. Head grain
424
The minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice mill, based on standard performance criterion.
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. None of the above
a. 90%
425
A multi-pass rice mill is characterized by ___.
a. having two or three separate hullers in the system
b. having a series of two or three whitening machines
c. having the paddy loaded in the rice mill several times
d. None of the above
b. having a series of two or three whitening machines
426
A rice mill huller that has high milling recovery.
a. Steel huller
b. Rubber huller
c. Stone disk
d. All of the above
b. Rubber huller
427
An example of a rice huller.
a. Steel-fluted huller
b. Rubber-roll
c. Disk
d. Centrifugal
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
428
The measure of the machine’s ability to remove hulls with minimum breakage.
a. Coefficient of hulling
b. Coefficient of breakage
c. Coefficient of wholeness
d. All of the above
c. Coefficient of wholeness
429
A dehulled paddy but with bran layer remaining intact.
a. Rough rice
b. Milled rice
c. Brown rice
d. All of the above
c. Brown rice
430
If the end-product in milling is brown rice, the grain has just passed through a ___.
a. paddy cleaner
b. Rubber-roll huller
c. whitener
d. sifter
e. None of the above
b. Rubber-roll huller
431
The recommended peripheral speed of a rubber roller for hulling operation.
a. 10 m/s
b. 14 m/s
c. 18 m/s
d. None of the above
c. 18 m/s
432
The percentage speed difference between rubber rollers.
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. None of the above
c. 25%
433
The speed of the fixed rubber roll in a rubber-roll huller is slower by ___ compared with that of the adjustable roller.
a. 20 %
b. 25 %
c. 30 %
d. None of the above
b. 25 %
434
The husking ratio of a rubber-roll huller is about ___.
a. 60-70 %
b. 80-90 %
c. 95-98 %
d. None of the above
b. 80-90 %
435
If the rubber-roll huller wears out, the peripheral speed of the roller will ___.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. be the same
d. None of the above
c. be the same
436
The process of milling corn kernels by soaking them first in chemicals before subjecting them to a size-reduction equipment and other successive processes.
a. Dry-milling process
b. Wet-milling process
c. Wet-and-dry-milling process
d. None of the above
b. Wet-milling process
437
The process of milling corn kernels by subjecting them into size-reduction processes after cleaning.
a. Dry-milling process
b. Wet-milling process
c. Wet-and-dry-milling process
d. None of the above
a. Dry-milling process
438
The process of reducing corn kernel into grits, germ and pericarp with or without conditioning.
a. Dry milling
b. Hammer milling
c. Attrition milling
d. None of the above
a. Dry milling
439
The process of rewetting dried corn kernels to about 18 to 22% moisture content and tempering them to make the pericarp and the germ become more pliable and easier to remove during degermination process.
a. Wet milling
b. Degermination process
c. Conditioning
d. None of the above
c. Conditioning
440
The machine used to remove germs and pericarp from the corn kernel.
a. Conditioner
b. De-germinator
c. Corn mill
d. None of the above
b. De-germinator
441
A kind of shelled corn kernels in which the germ and pericarp have been removed.
a. Milled corn kernel
b. Degerminated corn kernel
c. Polished corn kernel
d. None of the above
b. Degerminated corn kernel
442
The major product(s) produced during corn wet-milling process.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
e. All of the above
443
The product of corn wet-milling process that has high protein concentrate typically supplied at 60% protein, 2.5% fat and 1% fiber and is considered an excellent cattle feed.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented
Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
e. All of the above
d. Corn gluten Meal
444
The product of corn wet-milling process that consists of 20% protein, 2% fat and 9.5% fiber and contains amino acid balance that makes it valuable in poultry and swine rations, also used as carrier of liquid feed nutrients.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
e. All of the above
c. Corn Gluten Feed
445
The process of softening and conditioning corn kernels for subsequent milling and for preventing germination and fermentation.
a. Cleaning
b. Steeping
c. Grinding
d. None of the above
b. Steeping
446
In steeping process, corn kernel is soaked in water at a controlled temperature of ___ for 30 to 50 hours.
a. 35°C
b. 48°C
c. 64°C
d. None of the above
b. 48°C
447
A chemical added to prevent bacterial growth and to reduce the bond between the gluten and starch in corn kernels during steeping process.
a. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
b. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
c. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
d. None of the above
a. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
448
The major component of a corn mill that reduces corn kernels into grits.
a. Burr mill
b. Hammer mill
c. Steel-roller mill
d. All of the above
c. Steel-roller mill
449
The milled corn kernel where the outer covering and germs have been removed and with particle size of not less than 0.86 mm.
a. Broken corn kernel
b. Cracked corn kernel
c. Corn grits
d. None of the above
c. Corn grits
450
The main product in milling corn.
a. Corn grit # 10
b. Corn grit # 12
c. Corn grit # 14
d. Corn grit # 16
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
451
The ratio of the weight of corn kernel input to the total operating time.
a. Input capacity
b. Output capacity
c. Milling capacity
d. All of the above
c. Milling capacity
452
The ratio of the weight of corn grits to the total weight of corn kernel input, expressed in percent.
a. % input capacity
b. % main product recovery
c. % milling recovery
d. All of the above
b. % main product recovery
453
The minimum main product recovery requirement based on the performance criteria for corn mill.
a. 44%
b. 54%
c. 64%
d. None of the above
c. 64%
454
The minimum by-product recovery requirement based on the performance criteria for corn mills.
a. 21%
b. 31%
c. 41%
d. None of the above
b. 31%
455
The process of grinding pellets into coarse granular form.
a. Coarse pelleting
b. Crumbling
c. Milling
d. None of the above
b. Crumbling
456
Grinding feeds will basically ___.
a. make it attractive to the
animals
b. improve its digestability
c. prolong its storage period
d. None of the above
b. improve its digestability
457
A medium protein ingredient composed of bran and fibrous portions which is widely used in complete feeds for dairy and beef cattle, poultry, swine, and pet foods.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
c. Corn Gluten Feed
458
The corn-step liquor, which is a high energy liquid feed ingredient, with protein value of 25% on a 50% solid basis and also a source of B-vitamins and mineral when used as pellet fiber.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
a. Condensed Corn Fermented Extractive
459
The protein/gluten component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
d. 61-68%
e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
b. 4-8%
460
The starch component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
d. 61-68%
e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
d. 61-68%
461
The fiber component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
d. 61-68%
e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
a. 11-23%
462
The oil component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
d. 61-68%
e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
c. 2-4%
463
The shrinkage component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23%
b. 4-8%
c. 2-4%
d. 61-67%
e. 2-16%
f. None of the above
e. 2-16%
464
The process of compressing mashed feeds with the use of live steam to produce small chunks or cylindrical feeds.
a. Mixing
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
c. Pelleting
465
A screened food-grade product obtained after drying, expelling and/or extracting most of the oil or milk from sound coconut meat.
a. Copra
b. Virgin coconut oil
c. Coconut flour
d. All of the above
c. Coconut flour
466
A coconut flour prepared from unpared dehydrated and edible coconut kernel by pre-pressing and solvent extraction.
a. Whole full fat coconut flour
b. Defatted coconut flour
c. Paring Flour
f. All of the above
a. Whole full fat coconut flour
467
The coconut flour prepared from the paring or from the “testa” of the coconut.
a. Whole full-fat coconut flour
b. Defatted coconut flour
c. Paring Flour
f. All of the above
c. Paring Flour
468
The coconut flour obtained from food grade copra meal.
a. Whole full-fat coconut flour
b. Defatted coconut flour
c. Paring Flour
f. All of the above
b. Defatted coconut flour
469
The process wherein the meat is extracted with milk, residue is dried and grinded to produce flour.
a. Dry process
b. Wet process
c. Wet and dry process
d. None of the above
a. Dry process
470
The advantage of dry process over wet process is that it gives ___ oil recovery and 0.1% free fatty acid.
a. low
b. medium
c. high
d. All of the above
c. high
471
A natural oil obtained from fresh mature coconut by mechanical extraction.
a. Coconut oil
b. Virgin coconut oil
c. Copra
d. All of the above
b. Virgin coconut oil
472
Virgin coconut oil can be obtained in ___.
a. dry process
b. wet process
c. wet and dry processes
d. None of the above
c. wet and dry processes
473
In virgin coconut-oil processing, allowing coconut milk to stay in a jar for at least ___ hours will cause the oil to separate and a layer of curd will appear at the top of the jar.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. All of the above
b. 24
474
The coconut meat obtained after extracting oil for granulated copra.
a. Copra
b. Copra meal
c. Copra meat
d. None of the above
b. Copra meal
475
Which of the following products is not a by-product of coconut processing?
a. Virgin coconut oil
b. Desiccated coconut powder
c. Coconut vinegar
d. Nata de coco
e. None of the above
e. None of the above
476
A cellulosic white cream yellow substance formed by the bacteria Xylinium on the surface of sugar-enriched coconut water.
a. Cocosugar
b. Virgin coconut oil
c. Nata de coco
f. All of the above
c. Nata de coco
477
A by-product of drying finely particles of homogenized coconut milk mixed with maltodextrins and other emulsifiers.
a. Desiccated coconut powder
b. Spray-dried coconut milk powder
c. Heated-air dried coconut powder
d. All of the above
b. Spray-dried coconut milk powder
478
Coconut sugar contains ___ sucrose than sugarcane.
a. the same amount of
b. lesser amount of
c. more amount of
d. None of the above
b. lesser amount of
479
Coconut sugar contains ___ of macro and micro nutrients than sugar cane.
a. the same amount
b. more amount
c. less amount
d. None of the above
b. more amount
480
The dark-brown color of coconut sugar is basically the result of drying sugar crystals at ___ temperature.
a. low
b. medium
c. high
d. None of the above
c. high
481
The collection time requirement for harvesting coconut sap for coco sugar processing.
a. 4 to 5 hours
b. 6 to 9 hours
c. 10 to 14 hours
d. None of the above
a. 4 to 5 hours
482
The cooking temperature for coconut sap for sugar processing.
a. 80°C
b. 90°C
c. 100°C
d. All of the above
c. 100°C
483
Coconut sap brix requirement for coconut sugar.
a. 9.1 to 10.5
b. 11.0 to 12.9
c. 13.0 to 14.5
d. All of the above
c. 13.0 to 14.5
484
An instrument used to measure the sugar level of coconut sap.
a. Refractometer
b. pH meter
c. Glycimeter
d. All of the above
a. Refractometer
485
The recommended temperature for drying coconut sugar.
a. 40° to 50°C
b. 51° to 60°C
c. 65° to 70°C
d. None of the above
c. 65° to 70°C
486
An instrument used to reduce the relative humidity of air in coconut sugar storage.
a. Pyschrometer
b. Dehumidifier
c. Hydrometer
d. None of the above
b. Dehumidifier
487
Bioethanol from coconut can be produced from ______.
a. Coconut water
b. Coconut milk
c. Coconut sap
d. None of the above
c. Coconut sap
488
Nata de coco can be produced from coconut ____.
a. Water
b. Sap
c. Milk
d. None of the above
b. Sap
489
Coco sugar can be produced from coconut _____.
a. water
b. milk
c. sap
d. None of the above
c. sap
490
Cocosugar is commercially produce in the Philippines because it has ____ glycemic index.
a. low
b. medium
c. high
d. None of the above
a. low
490
The process in heating copra to facilitate the removal of oil during pressing.
a. Drying
b. Steaming
c. Conditioning
d. None of the above
c. Conditioning
491
One thousand nuts, at 800 grams per nut, will produce ___ of copra.
a. 220 kg
b. 320 kg
c. 420 kg
d. None of the above
a. 220 kg
492
The term that refers to cane tops, leaves, dead stalks of cane, and any other vegetable matters delivered with the cane.
a. Mud press
b. Bagacillo
c. Trash
d. All of the above
a. Mud press
493
In sugarcane processing, water at 43°to 48°C is applied into the sugarcane tables to ___ it before milling.
a. cool and soften
b. wash and remove dirt from
c. increase the moisture content of
d. All of the above
b. wash and remove dirt from
494
The process of separating sugarcane juice from the water vapor by heating in a vacuum container to produce raw and white sugar.
a.Extraction
b.Evaporation
c.Crystallization
d.All of the above
e.None of the above
b.Evaporation
495
The concentrated juice from the evaporator.
a. Molasses
b. Syrup
c. Extracted juice
d. None of the above
b. Syrup
496
Insoluble solids in juice or in other liquids which can only be removed by mechanical means.
a. Suspended solids
b. Sugar crystals
c. Bagasse
d. All of the above
a. Suspended solids
497
The process involving introduction of carbon dioxide gas into limed juice or syrup to remove color and non-sugar solids.
a. Color extraction
b. Carbonization
c. Extraction
d. All of the above
b. Carbonization
497
The process of separation of sugar crystals from dark syrup after crystalizing with the use of a high-speed rotating cylindrical basket.
a. Fugalling
b. Filtering
c. Clarifying
d. All of the above
a. Fugalling
497
Sugar crystals formed after evaporation are separated from sugar honey using a ___, which rotates at a very high speed.
a. rotary dryer
b. centrifuge
c. extractor
d. None of the above
b. centrifuge
498
After separating sugar crystals from sugar honey, which of the following needs to undergo drying and cooling processes?
a. Sugar crystal
b. Sugar honey
c. Sugar crystal and honey
d. None of the above
a. Sugar crystal
499
Sticking together of two or more crystals during centrifuging and drying operations.
a. Crystallization
b. Agglomeration
c. Coagulation
d. All of the above
b. Agglomeration
500
The process of heating the juice and adding lime after passing the milling rollers to form coagulants from impurities and then allowed to settle in a large tank.
a. Filtration
b. Clarification
c. Extraction
d. None of the above
b. Clarification
501
The apparatus used for the separation of suspended-solid sediments from turbid sugar solutions.
a. Centrifuge
b. Clarifier
c. Extractor
d. None of the above
b. Clarifier
502
In sugarcane processing, clarifiers are used primarily to ___.
a. reduce odor of sugarcane juice
b. separate out suspended particles in sugarcane juice
c. ensure that white sugar can be produced during the process
d. None of the above
b. separate out suspended particles in sugarcane juice
503
The by-product of sugarcane processing.
a. Bagasse
b. Molasses
c. Filter cake
d. All of the above
a. Bagasse
504
The by-product from sugarcane juice extraction and is usually used as fuel for the boiler of the sugar mill.
a. Molasses
b. Bagasse
c. Filter cake
d. All of the above
a. Molasses
505
The fine fraction of bagasse obtained by screening or by pneumatic separation generally used as a filter aid in filtration.
a. Mud press
b. Bagacillo
c. Trash
d. None of the above
b. Bagacillo
506
The measure of dissolved solids in sugar liquor or syrup using refractometer also known as the “percentage sugar by mass”.
a. Glycemic index
b. Brix
c. Brix index
d. All of the above
b. Brix
507
The mother liquor separated from crystals by centrifuging.
a. Sugar honey
b. Molasses
c. Syrup
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
b. Molasses
508
The type of molasses used as food syrup and blended with other syrups.
a. Edible molasses
b. Blackstrap molasses
c. Organic molasses
d. None of the above
a. Edible molasses
509
The type of molasses used primarily as animal feed and is also used to produce ethanol, compressed yeast, citric acid, and rum.
a. Edible molasses
b. Blackstrap molasses
c. Organic molasses
d. None of the above
b. Blackstrap molasses
510
The residue derived from cane milling after extraction of juice.
a. Molasses
b. Bagasse
c. Filter cake
d. All of the above
b. Bagasse
511
The brown sugar produced from a sugar mill and is generally destined for further processing to white sugar in a refinery.
a. Molasses
b. Raw sugar
c. White sugar
d. None of the above
b. Raw sugar
512
Materials used for further refinement of white or raw sugar.
a. Activated charcoal and diatomaceous earth
b. Bleaching solution, such as chlorine
c. Solution of caustic soda
d. All of the above
a. Activated charcoal and diatomaceous earth
513
The treatment of raw sugar to remove the film of adhering molasses.
a. Clarification
b. Extraction
c. Affination
d. None of the above
c. Affination
514
The moisture content requirement for raw sugar before storage and packaging.
a. 20%
b. 2.0%
c. 0.2%
d. None of the above
c. 0.2%
515
White and refined white sugars are packed in standard sizes which is ___, respectively.
a. 50 and 46 kg
b. 60 and 40 kg
c. 60 and 50 kg
d. All of the above
a. 50 and 46 kg
516
The storage moisture content requirement for white sugar.
a. 3.0%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.03%
d. None of the above
c. 0.03%
optimal moisture content of white sugar is typically between 0.02 and 0.05%
517
Water is sprayed during the pressing of chopped sugar cane that passes through the series of v-ribbed rollers purposely to ___.
a. clean the sugar cane being pressed
b. cool the bagasse leaving the rollers
c. improve the efficiency of rollers in extracting the juices.
d. None of the above
c. improve the efficiency of rollers in extracting the juices.
518
Cane tops and leaves of sugar cane left in the field which commonly burns by farmers.
a. Sugar cane trash
b. Sugar bagasse
c. Sugar waste
d. None of the above
c. Sugar waste
519
When sugarcane is cut during
harvesting, it undergoes ___.
a. slow deterioration
b. rapid deterioration
c. nothing
d. All of the above
b. rapid deterioration
520
Sugarcane is harvested for the production of ____.
a. cane sugar
b. planting materials
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
c. All of the above
521
Unrefined or brown sugar.
a. Sugar cane
b. Cane sugar
c. Refined Sugar
d. All of the above
b. Cane sugar
522
Raw sugar that undergoes a process that removes all impurities and the surrounding plant matters in sugar leaving only the pure sucrose.
a. Brown sugar
b. Cane sugar
c. Refined sugar
d. All of the above
c. Refined sugar
523
The facility where the raw sugar is separated from the plant and is shipped to refinery.
a. Sugar farm
b. Sugar mill
c. Sugar refinery
d. All of the above
c. Sugar refinery
524
Which of the following is a process in producing cane sugar from sugar cane stalks.
a. Washing of stalks
b. Cutting or shredding of stalks
c. Pressing to produce juice
d. Clarifying to separate wax, fats, and gums from sugar
e. Concentrating to produce brown syrup through evaporation
f. Crystalizing by removing further the water to form crystals of sugar
g. All of the above
g. All of the above
525
The materials used during clarification process of sugar cane juice to remove non-sugar plant materials.
a. Lime
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Lime and carbon dioxide
d. None of the above
c. Lime and carbon dioxide
526
In order to protect the brown sugar to caramelize during concentration process, the evaporating pan must be designed to operate under ___.
a. pressurized condition
b. normal atmospheric condition
c. vacuum condition
d. None of the above
c. vacuum condition
527
A thick raw syrup from a mill containing, sugar, water, plant material, mineral, and other non sugars.
a. Sugar cane juice
b. Sugar cane sap
c. Sugar cane molasses
d. None of the above
c. Sugar cane molasses
528
Raw sugar basically contains ___ sucrose.
a. 80 to 86%
b. 87 to 94%
c. 96 to 98 %
d. None of the above
c. 96 to 98 %
529
The machine used in breaking cane of sugar.
a. Revolving knives
b. Shredder
c. Crusher
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
d. All of the above
530
The machine used in grinding or milling of crushed cane sugar.
a. Rollers ( 3 to 6 sets)
b. Hammer mill ( 2 sets)
c. Attrition mill ( 3 sets)
d. All of the above
a. Rollers ( 3 to 6 sets)
531
The form of teeth used in grinding rollers of sugar mills.
a. Serrated
b. Peg
c. V-ribbed
d. All of the above
c. V-ribbed
532
The process in which water or juice is applied in crushed cane during grinding or milling to enhance extraction of juice.
a. Juice extraction
b. Juice extrusion
c. Imbibition
d. None of the above
c. Imbibition
533
The product after the cane sugar passes the rollers.
a. Bagasse
b. Juice
c. Molasses
d. All of the above
b. Juice
534
The by-product after the cane sugar passes the rollers.
a. Bagasse
b. Juice
c. Molasses
d. None of the above
a. Bagasse
535
Typical rpm of rollers used in pressing sugar cane to extract juices.
a. 4.0 to 6.5 rpm
b. 9.5 to 15.0 rpm
c. 15.5 to 20.0 rpm
d. None of the above
a. 4.0 to 6.5 rpm
536
Which of the following statement is true?
a. All roller sets have the same adjustment clearance.
b. The roller sets have a varying adjustment clearance.
c. All the roller sets have no clearances.
d. None of the above
b. The roller sets have a varying adjustment clearance.
537
Roller adjustment clearance for the 1st roller set in 3-roller sets in sugar mills.
a. 20 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 3 mm
d. None of the above
a. 20 mm
538
Roller adjustment clearance for the 2nd roller set in 3-roller set sugar mill.
a. 20 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 3 mm
d. None of the above
a. 20 mm
539
Roller adjustment clearance for the 3rd roller set in 3-roller set sugar mill.
a. 20 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 3 mm
d. None of the above
c. 3 mm
540
Number of rollers in one roller set in sugar mill?
a. 1 roller
b. 2 rollers
c. 3 rollers
d. None of the above
c. 3 rollers
541
Which of the following is true in roller cane juice extractor in sugar processing plants?
a. All rollers have the same rpm.
b. All roller have varying rpm.
c. All rollers have no rpm.
d. None of the above
a. All rollers have the same rpm.
542
Choking of rollers are often encountered during sugar milling for the reason that _____.
a. difficulty of pressing sugar cane during operation
b. rollers are sometimes over feed with cane from the other rollers.
c. sliding of cane within the rollers in a roller set.
d. None of the above
b. rollers are sometimes over feed with cane from the other rollers.
543
To minimize or eliminate the choking of rollers during operation in sugar mills, as Agricultural Engineer what would you recommend.
a. Only load soft cane in the rollers
b. Increase the speed of rollers
c. Install frequency inverter to
individually control the speed of each rollers
d. None of the above
c. Install frequency inverter to
individually control the speed of each rollers
544
Water is sprayed into the cane during roller pressing to ___________.
a. clean the pressed cane
b. soften the press cane
c. enhance maceration press cane to improve the juice extraction efficiency of the rollers
d. None of the above
c. enhance maceration press cane to improve the juice extraction efficiency of the rollers
