Biology lecture final exam Flashcards

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1
Q

what does Release Factor do?

A

ends translation by recognizing a stop codon in an mRNA sequence

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1
Q

how do tRNAs participate with amino acids and ribosomes to assemble protein chains?

A

carry amino acids to the ribosome and join with their complementary codons

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2
Q

how is eukaryotic pre-mRNA processed before it becomes mature mRNA?

A

RNA splicing

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3
Q

Exons

A

which are parts of the protein-coding sequence in mRNA

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4
Q

introns

A

The non-coding regions within the gene on a mRNA

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5
Q

Prokaryotic mRNA

A

molecule that carries genetic information from DNA to proteins

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6
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA

A

a molecule that carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, which translate it into proteins

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7
Q

how do codons specify the production of a protein/polypeptide chain?

A

by dictating the order of amino acids to be added to the growing chain, with each codon corresponding to a specific amino acid

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8
Q

Transcription

A

DNA —> RNA

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9
Q

Translation

A

RNA —> Protien

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10
Q

how is RNA different from DNA with regards to structure?

A

DNA is typically double-stranded, forming a double helix, while RNA is usually single-stranded

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11
Q

how is RNA different from DNA with regards to synthesis?

A

RNA is not self-replicating like DNA

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12
Q

how is RNA different from DNA with regards to function?

A

DNA primarily functions the storage of genetic information
RNA carrying the genetic code from DNA to ribosomes where it is translated into proteins

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13
Q

how do transcription factors work to stimulate the rate of transcription?

A

binding to specific DNA sequences and either promoting or inhibiting the process

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14
Q

Transcription factors

A

proteins that regulate transcription

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15
Q

what is the function of promoter?

A

acts as a binding site for RNA polymerase

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16
Q

what is the function of TATA Box?

A

define the direction of transcription and also indicates the DNA strand to be read

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17
Q

what is the function of enhancer?

A

acts as a regulatory element to significantly increase the transcription of a nearby gene

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18
Q

what is the function of silencer?

A

regulatory element to suppress the transcription of a nearby gene

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19
Q

how does Lac Repressor inhibit transcription of Lac Operon ?

A

by binding to a specific DNA sequence called the “operator” which is located near the promoter region of the operon, physically blocking RNA polymerase from accessing the promoter and initiating transcription when lactose is not present

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20
Q

Lac Repressor

A

a protein that controls the transcription of genes in bacteria that metabolize lactose

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21
Q

Lac Operon

A

a set of genes in bacteria that control the uptake and metabolism of lactose

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22
Q

promoter

A

The nucleotide sequence in DNA to which RNA polymerase attaches to begin transcription

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23
Q

operon

A

a group of genes that are transcribed together to create a single (mRNA) molecule that encodes multiple proteins

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24
Q

inducible gene

A

gene that is only expressed when a specific substance, called an “inducer”, is present in the environment

24
Q

structural gene

A

a gene that codes for a protein directly involved in the structure or function of an organism

25
Q

constitutive gene

A

A gene that is constantly transcribed

25
Q

operator

A

the DNA segment where the repressor molecule binds to the operon model And stops Rna polymerase

26
Q

inducer

A

a molecule called an inducer can bind to the repressor, inactivating it

27
Q

describe the DNA and protein components that make a transcription repressor system possible

A

specific DNA sequence called an “operator” located near the gene’s promoter, where a repressor protein binds to physically block RNA polymerase from accessing the promoter, thereby preventing transcription of the gene

28
Q

How is restriction enzymes related to palindrome?

A

“recognition sites” which are often palindromic

29
Q

how are restriction enzymes and DNA Ligase used in gene splicing?

A

restriction enzymes are used to “cut” DNA at specific sequences, creating fragments with complementary ends (sticky ends), while DNA ligase acts as a “glue” to join these DNA fragments together, essentially splicing them to form a new recombinant DNA molecule

30
Q

how are plasmids used in gene splicing and formation of recombinant DNA?

A

scientists use plasmids as vectors in gene splicing and recombinant DNA technology by inserting desired genes into the plasmid, allowing for the replication

31
Q

what is the purpose of PCR?

A

To produce multiple copies of DNA

32
Q

how do primers determine which region of DNA to amplify?

A

by binding to complementary sequences on the DNA template

33
Q

what are “primers”

A

a short, single-stranded DNA sequence that acts as a starting point for DNA synthesis

34
Q

what happens to template DNA and DNA primers at different
temperatures?

A

At high temperatures, template DNA and DNA primers will separate into single strands due to the disruption of hydrogen bonds between base pairs, a process called denaturation
at lower temperatures, they can re-anneal and bind to each other if the sequence is complementary

35
Q

how many copies of DNA are produced during each cycle of PCR?

A

two copies

36
Q

what are “dideoxy nucleotides”

A

modified nucleotides that are used to terminate DNA chains during DNA sequencing

37
Q

how are dideoxy nucleotides used in Sanger
sequencing?

A

to terminate DNA chain elongation

38
Q

what is the original function of CRISPR in bacteria?

A

to act as a defense mechanism against invading viruses

39
Q

what is the function of Cas9 enzyme?

A

acts as a “molecular scissor” that cuts DNA at a specific location, allowing for targeted gene editing within the genome

40
Q

what are VNTRs (variable numbers of tandem repeats)

A

sections of DNA where a short sequence of nucleotides is repeated multiple times in a row

41
Q

what are STRs (short tandem repeats)

A

DNA sequences that are made up of short repeating units, typically 2–6 base pairs long

42
Q

VNTRs and STRs are used to distinguish people from one another….

A

by analyzing the varying number of times specific short DNA sequences repeat at certain locations on their genome

43
Q

how do STRs detected and visualized?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and gel electrophoresis

44
Q

Restriction enzymes

A

proteins that cut DNA at specific sequences

45
Q

Gene splicing

A

altering an organism’s DNA by cutting and inserting genes, or by modifying pre-mRNA to produce different proteins

46
Q

what are plasmids?

A

a small circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms

47
Q

What is the definition of biological evolution?

A

the process by which the inherited traits of organisms change over generations

48
Q

How have canines and Brassicas evolved?

A

Canines from wolves and mustard seed

49
Q

How does the fossil record provide evidence of evolution?

A

showcasing a progression of life forms over time, demonstrating that organisms from the past were different from those present today, and by revealing transitional fossils that show the evolutionary links between different species

50
Q

How is whale evolution illustrated by the changing skeletal structures of “missing
links” and current whales?

A
51
Q

Why is archaeopteryx considered a “missing link”

A

its fossil exhibits characteristics of both birds and reptiles

52
Q

how did DNA confirm the
link between dinos and ducks

A
53
Q

How do DNA and protein sequences indicate evolutionary relationships?

A

by showing the similarities and differences between organisms’ genetic codes

54
Q

How do DNA errors indicate evolution has occurred, as illustrated by the
GULO gene?

A

they show a loss of functionality in a gene that is present and functional in related species

55
Q

How do protein sequence changes indicate evolution, as illustrated byCytochrome C?

A

showing how the amino acid sequence of a protein varies between different species, with more similar sequences signifying closer evolutionary relationships

56
Q

amylase gene cluster

A

a region of DNA on a chromosome that contains genes for amylase, an enzyme that breaks down starch into sugars

57
Q

T cell CCR5 receptor

A

protein found on the surface of T cells that acts as a key receptor for certain chemokines

58
Q

lactose metabolism

A

the process of breaking down lactose into its component sugars, glucose and galactose, which the body then uses for energy

59
Q

palindrome

A

sequence that reads the same backward as forward