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MCAT > Biology II (SIMPLE EDITOR) COPY > Flashcards

Biology II (SIMPLE EDITOR) COPY Flashcards

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1
Q

tight junctions: function

A

act as a permeability barrier – preventing transport of protein molecules from lumenal side of cell to basolateral side of cell also act to hold neighboring cells together

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2
Q

desmosomes: function

A

hold cells together

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3
Q

Gap Junctions: function

A

provides a mean for water–soluble molecules to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of another cell

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4
Q

type of cells in epidermal region of skin

A

stratified epilthelial cells

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5
Q

Cells that secrete many of the proteins that make up structural connective tissue

A

fibroblasts

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6
Q

Structural proteins secreted by fibroblasts

A

collagen, elastin, reticulin

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7
Q

collagen: features and function

A

–triple stranded, insoluble, fibrous protein–highly cross–linked–quite strong and flexible

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8
Q

reticulin: features and function

A

–thin fiber–not as highly coiled as collagen–found in spleen and lymph nodes

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9
Q

elastin: features and function

A

–highly cross–linked protein–associated with organs that require elasticity (lungs, skin, blood vessels, etc.)

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10
Q

Cartilage:–type of tissue–cell type–where found

A

–connective tissue–special type of fibroblast = chondrocyte–fond in places where stress is put on bodies

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11
Q

bone:–made up of

A

–1/3 organic materials (such as collagen)–2/3 inorganic materials (calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate, etc.)

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12
Q

bone:–what secretes collagen in the bone matrix

A

–Specialized fibroblast cells called osteoblasts

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13
Q

_______ lend(s) flexibility to bones, while ________ lend(s) rigidity

A

–Collagen for flexibility–inorganic cystals for rigidity

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14
Q

Mast Cells

A

–Release histamines in response to an allergic reaction, infection, or injury

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15
Q

Effect of histamines

A

Cause an increase in blood flow to blood vessels in the affected region

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16
Q

Where are mast cells found

A

Respiratory tract, GI tract, etc.

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17
Q

Two types of cells that make up nervous system

A

(1) Nerve cells (neurons)(2) Support cells (glial cells)

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18
Q

Major anatomical features of a neuron

A

(1) Cell Body = integrates info(2) Dendrites = Receive info + Transmit info towards cell body(3) Axon = conducts info away from the cell body

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19
Q

End of a neuron = ______

A

synaptic bulb

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20
Q

Concentration of Na+ and K+ inside vs outside cell

A

IN CELL:small Na+LARGE K+OUTSIDE OF CELL:LARGE Na+small K+

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21
Q

Concentration of Cl– and HCO3– inside vs. outside of cells

A

Cl– = lower inside cellHCO3– = usually lower inside cell also

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22
Q

Typically voltage inside cell (compared to outside).Explain

A

Typically ~ –80mV–negative because of leaky K+ channels – so K+ diffuses outside of cell (down its gradient)

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23
Q

What is the ATPase Pump

A

Pumps Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell(against both of their gradients)

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24
Q

Nernst Equation

A

Vio = 2/3 (RT)/(ZF) x log([K+]o/[K+]i)

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25
Q

Steps to generation of an action potential:

A

(1) Stimulus: causes a transient increase in membrane permeability to Na+(2) Depolarization: caused by Na+ influx(3) Flood of Na+ into cell: will occur if cell is depolarized enough(4) Action Potential: generated by the flood of Na+

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26
Q

High level steps pre and post action potential

A

(1) Stimulus(2) Depolarization –> Action Potential(3) Repolarization: K+ channels open and K+ exits the cell(4) Hyperpolarization: Massive amounts of K+ exit the cell(5) Refractory Period: Na+ channels are temporarily inactive (neuron can’t generate another action potential

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27
Q

The generation of an action potential is an ________ phenomenon, and will always have _______

A

All–or–nothingWill always have the same magnitude

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28
Q

Two factors leading to faster and further action potentials

A

(1) Myelenation(2) Larger neuronal cross sectional area

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29
Q

Glial cells myelenate ________ (part of neuron)

A

Axons

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30
Q

Area on axons where there is no myelin

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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31
Q

Type of glial cell that myelenates the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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32
Q

Type of glial cell that myelenates the PNS

A

Schwann Cells

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33
Q

Nerve impulse in myelenated neurons

A

Referred to as saltatory conduction “Jumps” from node to node along the axons – ions can only enter at the Nodes of Ranvier

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34
Q

How does an action potential spread through neuromuscular junction

A

(1) Action potential reaches synaptic terminal(2) Triggers Ca2+ channels to open – Ca2+ flows into synaptic terminal region(3) Synaptic vesicles fuse with presynaptic membrane – causing release of neurotransmitter (often ACh) into synaptic cleft(4) Neurotransmitter diffuses through the cleft – binding to the postsynaptic membrane receptors(5) Causing receptors to change conformation to a channel – allowing Na+ to flow in(6) Na+ flux in leads to depolarization and action potential

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35
Q

Excitatory vs. Inhibitory Post Synaptic Potentials

A

If lets in Na+ === excitatoryIf lets in Cl– or K+ ==== inhibitory

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36
Q

How is ACh (Acetylcholine) broken down

A

the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which is bound to the postsynaptic membrane, hydrolyzes ACh into acetate and choline–Acetate and choline are transported back into the presynaptic terminal where they are used in the synthesis of Ach

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37
Q

Attach bone to muscle

A

tendon

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38
Q

attach bone to bone

A

ligaments

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39
Q

Muscles are made up of multinucleated _______, which are made up of ________, which are made up of ________.

A

Multinucleated Muscle Cells (aka Muscle Fibers) –––> Myofibrils ––––> Sarcomeres

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40
Q

The _______ contain the contractile units of the muscle

A

Myofibrils

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41
Q

the contractile units of the muscle = _____

A

sarcomeres

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42
Q

Sarcomeres are bound by the ________.

A

Z–line

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43
Q

Where there is only actin

A

I–band

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44
Q

the ______ contains all of the myosin

A

A–Band

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45
Q

the ______ is the region in the center of the A–Band, and it only contains myosin.

A

H Zone

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46
Q

Thin contractile protein of sarcomeres = _____Thick contractile protein = _______

A

thin = actinthick = myosin

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47
Q

_____ are arranged towards the center of the sarcomere (and not attached to the Z–Line)

A

Myosin

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48
Q

Where are myosin heads located

A

In the terminal regions of myosin

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49
Q

Actin filament is composed of a protein subunit called _______ (because the shape is _____).

A

G Actin (G for globular because the shape is roughly spherical)

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50
Q

How can actin filaments grow

A

by the addition of G actin to the ends of already existing filament

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51
Q

Each actin is composed of __________

A

2 rows of G actin monomers wound around each other to form a helix

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52
Q

High level summary of muscle contraction steps

A

(1) ATP is bound to myosin head (so myosin and actin aren’t bound) = relaxed state(2) ATP is hydorlyzed to ADP + Pi ––– myosin undergoes conformational change(3) High energy Myosin–ADP–Pi complex binds to actin(4) Causes release of ADP + Pi from myosin heads –– causing another conformation change of myosin ––––> Actin moves relative to myosin Called the POWER STROKE(5) ATP binds myosin – causing myosin to release actin

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53
Q

What causes myosin to be able to bind actin

A

Tropomyosin is on actin, and covers the myosin binding sitesCa2+ binds to troponin – which is attached to troponin, and causes a conformational change in tropomyosin, uncovering the myosin binding sites on actin

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54
Q

Relationship between action potentials and muscle contraction

A

Action potential travels down T–Tubules, causing release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol (where it can bind to troponin, allowing myosin to bind to actin, allowing for the power stroke)

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55
Q

How Ca2+ in cytosol returns to sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

through Ca2+ –ATPase Pump

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56
Q

Eqn for generation of ATP in aerobic conditions (from glucose)

A

Glucose –––––> CO2 + H20 + 36ATP(slower)

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57
Q

Eqn for generation of ATP in anaerobic conditions (from glucose)

A

Glucose ––––––> Lactate + 2ATP(faster)

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58
Q

During anaerobic conditions, [lactate] begins to ______, which will case the ph to _______. Effects of this.

A

[lactate] increases, and pH decreases–some enzymes can no longer function outside of pH range – halting glycolysis and ATP yield

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59
Q

a grouping of nerve cells = a _______

A

ganglian

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60
Q

CNS = ______PNS = ______

A

CNS = brain + spinal cordPNS = all nerves extending from the spinal cord

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61
Q

3 divisions of the vertebrate brain

A

(1) Forebrain(2) Midbrain(3) Hindbrain

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62
Q

3 Main subdivisions of the forebrain

A

(1) Cerebrum(2) Thalamus(3) Hypothalamus

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63
Q

The _______ has 2 hemispheres (right and left) which are joined by the ______.

A

Cerebrum (of the Forebrain); joined by the corpus callosum

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64
Q

The Lobes of the cerebrum (and what they are associated with)

A

(1) Frontal = movement and personality(2) Parietal = touch and stretch sensation(3) Temporal = Hearing(4) Occipital = Vision

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65
Q

Outermost layer of the cerebrum = the ______

A

cerebral cortex

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66
Q

The cerebral cortex consists of _______ and ______. Locations of both

A

–gray matter = nerve cell bodies + their dendrites–white matter = myelinated axons of nerve cellsWhite matter is central, gray is on outside”

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67
Q

Location: White and Gray matter in Cerebrum and Spinal cord

A

in Cerebrum:White = Central; Gray = Outsidein Spinal Cord:White = Outside; Gray = Central

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68
Q

3 important landmarks in cerebral cortex

A

(1) Central Sulcus = groove; separates frontal + parietal lobes(2) Motor Cortex = Controls movement of individual muscles(3) Sensory Cortex = Detects sensations in various parts of the body

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69
Q

Sensory Homonucleus

A

Schematic model of human being mapped out on the sensory cortex – showing which neurons register sensations from different body parts

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70
Q

Thalamus: function

A

relay station for visual and audio info

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71
Q

hypothalamus: function

A

concerned with visceral activities of the body

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72
Q

pituitary gland: function

A

master endocrine gland –receives info from hypothalamus and sends out info to regulate the body

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73
Q

brainstem: different features

A

*detects movement and can direct the head and eyes towards it–Midbrain: also senses pleasure + pain–Cerebellum: Resposible for the bulk of regulation + coordination of muscular activity–Pons and Medulla: coordinate visceral activities–Reticular Formation: brainstem core; alerts the brain + inhibits motor and sensory impulses that can induce sleep

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74
Q

Muscle that elicits extension (when it contracts) = ______Muscle that elicits bending/flexing = _____”

A

ExtensorFlexor

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75
Q

the nerve pathway involved in a reflex action including at its simplest a sensory nerve and a motor nerve with a synapse between = _______.Can be mono or poly–synaptic”

A

Reflex Arc–monosynaptic or polysnaptic reflex arcs–can include interneurons (transmit impulses between other neurons)”

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76
Q

efferent vs afferent divisions of the PNS

A

Efferent (AWAY from CNS): Carry nerve impulses:CNS –––––> MuscleAfferent (TO CNS): Carry nerve impulses:Sensory stimuli ––––> CNS

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77
Q

The Autonomic Nervous system is part of the ______ division of the PNS

A

Efferent

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78
Q

One part of the _________ Nervous System is the ___________ Nervous System, which can be divided into the _________ and _________ Systems.

A

Peripheral –––> Autonomic ––––> Sympathetic + Parasympathetic

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79
Q

Where do nerve fibers leave from in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Sacral portion of spinal cord; and midbrain and medulla

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80
Q

Key functions of Parasympathetic vs Sympathetic Nervous Systems

A

Parasympathetic = rest and digestSympathetic = fight or flight

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81
Q

The preganglionic nerve fibers vs. the postganglionic nerve fibers. When long and short.

A

In parasympathetic system:pre = longpost = shortIn sympathetic system:pre = shortpost = long

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82
Q

What neurotransmitters do different nerve fibers of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems release?

A

Parasympathetic System:Pre = AChPos = AChSympathetic System:Pre = AChPost = Norepinephrine

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83
Q

Cholingeric Nerve Fibers

A

Release ACh (Acetylcholine)

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84
Q

Most prominent nerve in parasympathetic division

A

Vagus Nerve ~75% of all neurons in the parasympathetic division are found in the vagus nerve–innervates many organs

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85
Q

Sympathetic Division has nerve fibers branching off from

A

Thoracic and Lumbar regions of the spinal cord

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86
Q

How adrenal medulla functions

A

(1) Preganglionic nerve fibers from thoracic region of spinal cord (sympathetic division) synapse directly with nerve fibers on the adrenal medulla (i.e., there are no postganglionic nerve fibers)(2) Adrenal medulla is stimulated and releases norepinephrine and epinephrine directly into the bloodstream (thus are hormones)–––> thus it is an endocrine gland*causes increase in HR and pupils to dilate

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87
Q

somatic nervous system

A

Part of the PNS related to voluntary movements

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88
Q

How somatic nervous system functions

A

(1) Nerve fibers leave CNS and don’t synapse until they reach their effector organ(2) ACh is released(3) Innervating Skeletal Muscle(4) Can be excitatory or inhibitory

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89
Q

Some types of sensory receptors (and what they sense)

A

(1) Mechanoreceptors: Pressure; hearing; balance; blood pressure(2) Nocireceptors: Pain(3) Thermoreceptors: cold and warmth(4) Chemoreceptors: Taste, smell, O2, CO2, glucose levels, etc.(5) Photoreceptors (of retina): Photons

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90
Q

How sensory receptors receive, transduce, transmit, info

A

(1) receptor receives sensory info(2) Stimulus received changes membrane potential of receptor (transduction)(3) If potential changes enough, an action potential results

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91
Q

Adaptation of Sensory Neurons (and which cells adapt a lot and which don’t)

A

Over time, frequency of action potentials diminishes, so can no longer feel the sensation–Pressure Receptors adapt a lot, and pain do not

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92
Q

Receptive Field

A

Axonal branches of a single neuron and the many receptors that the branches end at

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93
Q

Three Neurons involved in sensory pathways

A

(1) First Order Neurons: Recetive field –––> Spinal cord. Synapses with –(2) Second Order Neurons: Ascend spinal cord to thalamus.(3) Third Order Neurons: Reach specific region of somatosensory cortex

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94
Q

Receptor found on postganglionic parasympathetic neuron targets (aka effector organ neurons)

A

Muscarinic Receptors

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95
Q

Receptor found on preganglionic parasympathetic neuron targets (aka the postganglionic nerurons)

A

Nicotinic Cholingeric Receptors

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96
Q

Receptor found on postganglionic sympathetic neuron targets (aka effector organ neurons)

A

Adrenergic Receptors

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97
Q

Receptor found on preganglionic sympathetic neuron targets (aka the postganglionic nerurons)

A

Nicotinic Cholingeric Receptors

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98
Q

Nerve Fibers that release norephinephrine (or epenephrine = adrenaline)

A

Adrenergic nerve fibers

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99
Q

Receptor found on cells of the adrenal medulla

A

Nicotinic Cholingeric Receptors

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100
Q

receptor found on endplates of motor neurons

A

nicotinic cholingeric receptors

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101
Q

How to number Carbons

A

Carbon of the Carboxyl Group (COO) = #1

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102
Q

autosomal dominant genetic defect

A

if you inherit the gene from one parent you can get the disease

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103
Q

Vocab:attenuate” = _____”

A

to reduce

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104
Q

Essential Amino Acids in Humans(and mnemonic device)

A

Valine Methionine Histidine Leucine Phenylalanine Threonine Isoleucine Lycine Tryptophan= Very Many Happy Little Pigs Take Iced Lemon Tea

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105
Q

What does it mean for a circulatory system to be closed?

A

Blood doesn’t freely mix with body flood

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106
Q

High level summary: blood flow starting after returning from tissues

A

“(1) Right Atrium(2) Right Ventricle(3) Pulmonary Artery(4) Pulmonary Veins(5) Left Atrium(6) Left Ventricle(7) Aorta ––> Arteries ––> Arterioles ––> Capillaries*(where nutrient exchange occurs)(8) Venules ––> Veins ––> Superior + Inferior Vena Cava**and then back to right atrium”

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107
Q

Arteries = _________ heartVeins = ___________ heart(direction)

A

Arteries = AWAY from heartVeins = TO heart

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108
Q

Blood pressure measurement steps

A

(1) Inflate cuff so pressure > Arterial systolic pressure —> artery collapses (stops blood flow)(2) When cuff pressure < Arterial systolic pressure, blood will flow again = “systolic pressure”-will be turbulant flow (b/c high pressure + narrow opening)(3) As relax cuff, turbulant flow will eventually disappear - instead will have laminar (smooth) flow-this is the “diastolic pressure”

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109
Q

Arteries are composed of what tissue types? Why?

A

Thick walls composed of smooth muscle and connective tissue (with elastin and collagen)–helps maintain pressure (and not be too high or low)

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110
Q

Endothelial cells

A

Blood Vessel Epithelial cells

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111
Q

Damage to endothelial cells = ________Lots of damage results in __________

A

damage = atherosclerosislots of damage = get hardening of arteries = arteriosclerosis

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112
Q

Arteries are important because they represent a major area of _______ in the cardiovascular system.

A

RESISTANCE(thus the strong walls)

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113
Q

Sphincter at the entrance to capillary bed; what it is composed of and what it does

A

Precapillary Sphincter–composed of smooth muscle which helps to regulate blood flow to the area

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114
Q

What allows blood to flow in only one direction in a vein?

A

Specialized Valves in veins = prevent backflow

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115
Q

Varicose beins

A

valve problem in veins; get backflow which increases vein pressure

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116
Q

Valve between right atrium and right ventricle

A

Right Atroventricular ValveakaTricuspid Valve

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117
Q

Valve between Right Ventricle and Pulmonary Artery

A

Pulmonary Valve

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118
Q

Valve between left atrium and left ventricle

A

Left Atroventricular ValveakaMitral Valve

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119
Q

Valve between left ventricle and aorta

A

Aortic Valve

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120
Q

What happens once ventricles are filled with blood

A

–they contract and the AV valves close (preventing backflow) = “lub”

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121
Q

What happens as blood flows out of the pulmonary artery and aorta

A

Pulmonary and Aortic Valves close = “dub”

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122
Q

What causes the “lub” and “dub” heart noises?”

A

“lub” = AV valves closing”dub” = Pulmonary and Aortic valves closing

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123
Q

Why don’t the AV valves invert

A

b/c of tendinous cords = chordae tendinae which hold them in place

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124
Q

What is the major pacemaker of the heart

A

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

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125
Q

What happens if the SA node is damaged

A

AV node will take over and slow the heart rate to ~40bpm

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126
Q

Where impulse travels from SA Node

A

SA Node ––> Atroventricular Node (AV Node) ––> Bundle of His, which causes ventricles to contract and eject blood

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127
Q

Negative Feedback loop when blood pressure is too low

A

Stimulus: Decrease in arteriol pressure–which means less stretch on arteries––>––baroreceptors sense this and send impulses to medulla and brainstem––>–––medulla activates sympathetic nervous system––>––––Impulses sent (via sympathetic system) cause norepinephrine (or epinephrine) release at SA Node––>–––––SA Node increases heart rate––––––Increasing heart contractions–––––––Increasing Blood pressure

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128
Q

Cardiac Output

A

=Blood Pumped Per Minute –by each of the ventriclesin Liters/MinCardiac Output = (Stroke Volume)(Heart Rate)liters/min = (liters/beat)(beat/min)

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129
Q

Eqn for Poiseuille’s Law

A

Flow = ΔPπ(R^4)/(8ηL) = (P1–P2)*π(R^4)/(8ηL)where η = viscosity ΔP = Pressure drop from 2 ends of tube R = Radius of tube L = length of tube

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130
Q

4 key takeaways from Poiseuille’s Law

A

(1) Flow is proportional to R^4–––> VERY dependent on radius!(2) Flow is proportional to the inverse of L–––> short tubes = faster flow(3) Flow is proportional to the inverse of η–––> High viscosity = slower flow(4) ΔP is what drives blood flow in the cardiovascular system

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131
Q

How does temperature affect diffusion

A

Increase Temp ––> Increased Energy ––> Increased Diffusion

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132
Q

Fick’s Law Eqn

A

J = –(D)(A)(ΔC/Δx) = –DA(Cout – Cin)/ΔxWhere J = net rate of diffusion (usually mol/s) ΔC/Δx = concentration gradient

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133
Q

Concentration of pure water

A

55.5 mol/L

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134
Q

What happens to the concentration of water when you add solutes? Why?

A

It will decrease (from 55.5 mol/L) because solute is taking up space water was taking up

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135
Q

How does the concentration of water change when adding one mol of glucose vs one mol of NaCl. Why?

A

One mol of NaCl will displace twice as much water – because it will ionize to Na+ and Cl– meaning that it will take up twice as much space, and decrease water’s concentration by twice as much

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136
Q

What is an osmol

A

1 mol that doesn’t ionize

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137
Q

1 M NaCl soln = ______ osmol/L

A

2 osmol/L

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138
Q

Osmolarity

A

The total solute concentration of a solution

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139
Q

What is osmotic pressure (aka πosm)–and explain in terms of the semipermeable membrane experiment

A

The amount of pressure that stops osmosis–osmosis will occur until the added pressure (on the side of the tank with the added protein, due to the added volume) offsets the change in concentration (since water molecules will flow to the side with the higher osmolarity – the right side, through the semipermeable membrane)

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140
Q

Hydrostatic Pressure

A

the difference in H2O levels from one side of the semipermeable membrane to the other, Δh, which is a direct measurement of the osmotic pressure

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141
Q

Purpose of the lymphatic system

A

Collects excess fluid that leaks into the interstitial space from capillaries and returns it back to the circulatory system via the vena cava

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142
Q

Purpose of lymph nodes

A

filter out foreign particles that could cause disease

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143
Q

What happens if a lymph node is blocked?–How does this occur after heart surgery?

A

Edema results = increase in interstitial fluid–after heart surgery:heart can’t pump blood fast enough –> backup in veins –> backup in lymphatic system––– as a result, edema occurs – particularly in swollen ankles and legs (fluid pools there due to gravity)

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144
Q

Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries forces fluid from ________––> _________ ––> _________

A

Capillaries –––> Interstitial Space –––> Lymphatic Capillaries

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145
Q

Blood clotting occurs via a ______ which allows for _______.

A

Cascade Process allows for amplification

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146
Q

The two different pathways in blood clotting

A

Intrinsic Route - due to contact with some abnormal surface (e.g., “internal” damage to the blood vessel)Extrinsic Route - due to trauma of the tissue (e.g., blood vessel breaks and goes outside of the blood vessel or “external”)

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147
Q

Many of the factors involved in blood clotting are called _________

A

serine proteases

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148
Q

Staring with Factor Xa, describe the high level cascade leading to blood clotting

A

(1) In presence of Factor Xa (as well as Va, an auxiliary factor); prothrombin (which ws converted from preprothrombin –––> thrombin(2) Thrombin converts: fibrinogen –––> fibrin(3) Fibrin forms the blood clot (needs transglutimase in order to be converted to crossed–linked fibrin clot in order to do the clotting)

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149
Q

How is preprothrombonin converted to prothrombin

A

A Carboxylase enzyme (carboxylates Glu residues)–the enzyme requires Vitamin K+ and HCO3–

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150
Q

Why is preprothrombin converted to prothrombin?

A

B/c Prothrombin is a good chelating agent = it has a high affinity for Ca2+ (which is essential for blood clotting)

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151
Q

How do blood platelets bind the factor necessary in the blood clotting?

A

The negative charge on phospholipid heads on blood platelets allows γ–carboxyglutamate residues on prothrombin to bind via Ca2+–Factor Xa also has γ–carboxyglutamate residues and also binds. Xa then cuts prothrombin releasing thrombin

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152
Q

Why fibrinogen must be converted to fibrin

A

fibrinogen is large and soluble with a large negative charge (which will cause repulsion)–must release some of the negative charges (as fibrinopeptides) to get to insoluble fibrin, which has a +5 central charge (in addition to still negative charged ends) –––> now can have aggregation of fibrin monomers with one another (leading to fibrin clot)

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153
Q

Soft clot vs Hard clot (in blood clotting)

A

Soft Clot = initial fibrin clotHard Clot = there is a cross–linking via the enzyme transglutaminase (to get cross–linked fibrin clot)

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154
Q

Once a damaged area has been repaired via blood clotting, what happens

A

Plasmin (a serine protease) hydrolyzes regions in fibrin clot to dissolve it into smaller fragments (removing clot)–Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) converts plasminogen to plasmin

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155
Q

What is dicoumarol

A

Vitamin K antagonist – causes abnormal prothrombin that doesn’t bind to Ca2+

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156
Q

What is warafarin

A

Vitamin K antagonist – causes hemorrhaging in rats and mice

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157
Q

High Level summary of how air passes down respiratory tract

A

(1) Oral cavity(2) Pharynx(3) Larynx(4) Trachea(5) 2 Bronchi (one to each lunch) ––– >Lungs:(6) Many bronchioles(7) MANY MANY alveoli

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158
Q

respiration

A

process by which oxygen is brought to the cells of tissues and CO2 is removed as a waste product

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159
Q

Composition of an alveolus2 factors leading to fast diffusion

A

Each alveolus consists of a single layer of epithelial cells juxtaposed to a very thin basement membrane 2 factors of fast diffusion–epithelial layer and endothelial layer of capillaries are barely separated–have millions of alveoli (large surface area)

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160
Q

Atmospheric Pressure at sea level = ______

A

760 atm

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161
Q

Rough makeup of Atmospheric Pressure (by molecule)

A

78% N221% O20.3% CO20.7% H2O

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162
Q

How to calculate partial pressures

A

Multiple the % of the pressure a molecule/gas makes up by the total pressure (partial pressures are INDEPENDENT of one another)

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163
Q

Why does the Partial Pressure of O2 decrease at altitude?

A

TOTAL pressure decreases (but O2 is still 21% of the total)

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164
Q

What does it mean if a gas is at equilibrium with a liquid

A

The # molecules dissolving into the liquid is the same as the # of molecules leaving the liquid ––> the partial pressure of the molecule/gas is the same in the gas phase as in the liquid

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165
Q

Total pressure of any gas is proportional to ________________.

A

Its concentration of molecules in the air.

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166
Q

What is the total pressure of air acting on membranes of epithelial cells in the alveoli of the lungs equal to?

A

The sum of the total partial pressures of all gases in the air

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167
Q

Structure of respiratory tract – how foreign objects leave the tract

A

Epithelial cells line lumen of passageways to bronchioles and have cilia which beat upwards.–also have mucus secreating glands.**cilia beat moving mucus and foreign objects trapped in mucus upward to oral cavity where its swallowed by reflex.

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168
Q

How does smoking affect respiratory system

A

–it decreases cilia activity while also decreasing the body’s defense against lung infections by bacteria

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169
Q

Type of tissue that lines upper and lower respiratory tract (and how that impacts function)

A

Upper passageways = maintain openings by cartilage ringsLower down (bronchioles, for ex) = smooth muscle instead

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170
Q

diaphragm–type of tissue–location

A

Skeletal muscle separating thoracic cavity and abdomen

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171
Q

Pleural membranes involved in breathingWhat is in between them

A

Visceral Pleura = covers lungs Parietal Pleura = adheres to diaphagmin between = intrapleural space = contains watery fluid

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172
Q

How does breathing occur (beginning with muscle contraction)

A

Rib Cage muscles contract and pull rib cage up+out while diaphragm muscles pull the diaphragm downward –––> thus enlarging thoracic cavity––> causes pleural membranes to move via suction – expanding lungs, creating subatomic pressure in alveoli ––> allowing for inspiration–when stop contracting, tissue returns to normal length and air in alveoli is forced out = expiration”

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173
Q

What would happen to the lungs without connection to visceral pleura?

A

lungs would collapse

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174
Q

What allows for diffusion of Oxygen to capillaries and CO2 to alveoli?

A

Pressure differences between capillaries and alveoli

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175
Q

The greater the pressure differences, the more diffusion there is of O2 from ________ –> __________CO2 from _________ –> _________

A

O2: blood in capillaries –> tissue cellsCO2: tissue cells –> blood in capillaries

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176
Q

How is oxygen carried in the blood

A

Mostly through hemoglobin; a little through diffusion

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177
Q

hemoglobin

A

transport protein in red blood cells – transports O2

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178
Q

Structure of hemoglobin

A

quaternary structure–has 4 polypeptide subunits––each has a heme group with a Fe2+ in the center––in total can bind 4 O2

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179
Q

What happens to O2 solubility in blood due to hemoglobin?

A

When hemoglobin takes up O2, more O2 can leave gas phase in alveoli and enter the blood – thus increasing O2 solubility in blood

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180
Q

How saturated is hemoglobin in the capillaries?–How much of this O2 does hemoglobin give up to tissues?

A

98% saturated with O2 in capillaries–only gives up ~25% to tissues

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181
Q

what happens to the O2 dissociation curve of hemoglobin when pH is decreased?–one example of when this cold occur

A

Curve shifts down and right–ex: exercise

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182
Q

–what happens to the O2 dissociation curve of hemoglobin when 2,3–BPG (a byproduct of glycolysis) binds to hemoglobin?–one example of when this cold occur

A

Curve shifts down and right–ex: O2 deprivation

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183
Q

What happens when hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve shifts?

A

Shifts down and right = causes hemoglobin to release more O2 to tissues at the same PO2

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184
Q

How is CO2 carried in the blood?

A

(1) 70% – in HCO3– form(2) 20% – on hemoglobin(3) 10% – dissociated in plasma and red blood cells

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185
Q

How does CO2/HCO3– conversion occur in tissues

A

(1) CO2 diffuses into RBC where it is converted to H2CO3 via carbonic anhydrase(2) H2CO3 ionizes to H+ and HCO3–(3) HCO3– diffuses into blood plasma and is carried to capillaries of lungs by circulatory system

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186
Q

How does CO2/HCO3– conversion occur in the lungs?

A

(1) HCO3– diffuses into RBC where it combines with H+ and becomes H2CO3(2) H2CO3 is converted to CO2 via carbonic anhydrase(3) CO2 diffuses into blood plasma and then diffuses into capillaries and then to the alveoli

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187
Q

What part of the brain coordinates breathing

A

Brainstem – particularly medulla and pons

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188
Q

How do medulla and pons coordinate breathing

A

Δ[H+] and Δ[CO2] –––> affect chemosensitive areas of medulla and Δ[O2] is sensed by chemoreceptors of cartoid arteries and aorta arch–––>–transmit signals to brainstem*nerve impulses from medulla and pons cause respiratory muscles to contract

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189
Q

bronchioles are innervated by ___________ nerves

A

Parasympathetic

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190
Q

What is asthma

A

hypersensitivity to airborne antigens –––> spasm and constrict smooth muscles of bronchioles

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191
Q

The total cross sectional area of ________ is the largest of all types of vessels in the cardiovascular system

A

all the capillaries

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192
Q

_______ regulate the flow of blood throughout the body

A

areterioles

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193
Q

Blood pressure has the highest velocity and the highest pressure when __________

A

After exiting the left ventricle

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194
Q

______________ measures turbulant flow.

A

Reynold’s Number.Usually turbulant when Re > 2000

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195
Q

Reynold’s Number Equation

A

Re = vdp / nwhere v = velocity d = vessel diameter p = density n = viscosity

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196
Q

Which walls are stronger: arterial walls or vein wallsWhich are more distensible

A

ARTERIAL walls are strongerthus VEIN walls are more distensible

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197
Q

Which walls are less distensible – systemic artery walls or pulmonary artery walls?Why?

A

Systemic Artery WallsB/c they are under more pressure and thus less distensible

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198
Q

what is the effect of blood centrifugation?

A

Separates plasma and Red Blood Cells –with a buffy coat in between (made up of WBC and platelets)

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199
Q

What is the ames test?

A

Ames test for mutagens:Mix suspected mutagen (a chemical) with bacteria (as well as, for example, liver extract), incubate, and see if many mutated colonies appear. If they do, the suspected mutagen is in fact a mutagen.

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200
Q

How many rings do purines and pyrimidines have?

A

Purines have 2 ringsPyrimidines have 1 ring

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201
Q

What about the SA node allows for it to be a pacemaker

A

Gradual depolarization – called pacemaker potential – which brings the membrane potential to threshold, when an action potential can occur

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202
Q

Alkane and alkene chemical formulas

A

Alkane = CnH2n+2Alkene = CnH2n

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203
Q

Phosphorylation = the addition of _______

A

Phosphate: PO4 3–

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204
Q

Acetylation = the addition of

A

Acetate: C2H3O2–

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205
Q

Carboxyl Group (chemical formula)

A

COOH

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206
Q

The heart rate is controlled by ____

A

Medulla Oblongata

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207
Q

Where does Transcription of mRNA from DNA occur?

A

the nucleus

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208
Q

Where does Protein Translation occur? Where does the protein go next?

A
  • Occurs in the Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • Leaves the ER in vesicles and is transported to the Golgi Apparatus for post-translational modification before being packaged so that can leave the cell
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209
Q

Which cellular organism do eukaryotes have but viruses, bacteria, and archae lack

A

Golgi Apparatus

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210
Q

What type of enzyme is responsible for the cleavage of phosphate bonds using water to remove a molecule of inorganic phosphate?

A

phosphatases

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211
Q

What will happen if you were to put mouse antibodies in a human?

A

The human would produce antibodies against the mouse antibodies (b/c it would recognize it as foreign)

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212
Q

If a father is non-diseased for a recessive-X-linked-disease, what is true (or could be true) about his daughter?

A

She must NECESSARILY by non-diseased

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213
Q

If a mother is homozygous for a recessive X-linked gene, what is true (or could be true) about her son?

A

He must NECESSARILY by affected

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214
Q

What are introns?

A

region of DNA that is removed during the processing of mRNA (e.g., AFTER transcription)

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215
Q

Where does transcription occur in prokaryotes

A

In the cytoplasm;

so ribosomes can bind and begin translation before transcription is complete

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216
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

-The failure of homologous daughter chromosomes to separate during anaphase I of meiosis
OR
-The failure of sister chromosomes to separate during anaphase II of meiosis

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217
Q

Mistranslation of codons will likely increase ______ (in proteins)

A

protein misfolding

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218
Q

“high affinity transport”
vs
“high transport capacity”

A

“High affinity transport” = transporter has a high affinity for a particular substrate (so will bind even when have low [substrate])

“High transport capacity” = transporter can transport a lot of the substrate (so if have high [substrate], the transporter will be able to transport a lot])

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219
Q

Kt depends on what (and not on what)?

enzyme kinematics

A

-Is a property of the transport protein itself. Does NOT depend on the concentration of the transport protein.

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220
Q

Kt depends on what (and not on what)?

enzyme kinematics

A

-Is a property of the transport protein itself. Does NOT depend on the concentration of the transport protein.

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221
Q

What is the Michaelis Menton Equation

A

V(0) = V(max)*[S} // K(m) + [S]

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222
Q

What is the Lineweaver Burk Plot eqn?

  • slope
  • y-intercept
  • x-intercept
A

1 // V[0] = (K(m)/V(max))*(1/[S]) + 1/V(max)
(y = mx + b)

y-intercept = 1/V(max)
slope = K(m) / V(max)
x-intercept = -1/Km
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223
Q

Compare the three types of enzyme inhibitors

A

(1) Competitive inhibitor:
- binds to free E
- increases Km, Vmax is same (so in LW plot, slope increases, but y-int is same)

(2) Uncompetitive inhibitor:
- binds to ES complex
- decreases Vmax (in LW plot, slope is the SAME, but y-int increases)

(3) Noncompetitive (“mixed”) inhibitor:
- binds to ES or free E
- Vmax decreases, Km increases (in LW plot, slope increases, and y-int increases also)

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224
Q

Kcat

A

= Vmax / [E]t

-is equal to the turnover # (# of rxns / s)

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225
Q

Calculating enzyme catalytic efficiency

A

catalytic efficiency = Kcat / Km

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226
Q

What is Km equal to

A

(1/2) Vmax

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227
Q

cytochrome c

A

A heme protein that only cycles between a ferrous and ferric state during oxidative phosphorylation —> thus a 1-electron carrier

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228
Q

What isomeric form of amino acids are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis

A

ONLY the L-isomers

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229
Q

How many ATP molecules are formed per molecule of glucose….

  • under aerobic conditions
  • under anaerobic conditions
A
  • aerobic = use cellular respiration; 38 ATP produced

- anaerobic = use fermentation; 2 ATP produced

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230
Q

What are the 3 types of protein filaments that make up the cytoskeleton

A

(1) microfilaments (aka actoin filaments)
(2) Intermediate filaments
(3) Microtubules

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231
Q

What type of filaments are actin filaments?

A

Microfilaments

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232
Q

Path of blood flow after heart and then back to heart

A
  • Heart –>
  • Aorta –>
  • Arteries –>
  • Arterioles –>
  • Capillaries (and out to tissues) –>
  • Venules –>
  • Veins –>
  • Inferior or superior vena cava –>
  • Heart
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233
Q

What would happen if someone had fewer visual pigments?

A

Fewer signals would be sent to the brain

234
Q

How many visual pigments are there (what are they?)

A

3, which absorb

  • red
  • green
  • or blue light
235
Q

What does Brown Adipose Tissue contain a large number of (and what does it do)

A

Large number of mitochondria that generate heat during thermogenesis

236
Q

In the absence of oxygen, what happens to pyruvate (instead of ___)?

A

-Pyruvate is converted into lactate in the cytoplasm and is NOT transported to the mitochondria to be converted to acetyl-CoA

237
Q

If a genome were to be 23% Adenine, what would it be of G, C, and T

A

23% T
(100% - 2*23%) = 54%; 54%/2 = 26%, so
27% G
27% C

238
Q

Basic structure of fatty acids

A
  • Carboxylic head group and

- a hydrocarbon tail

239
Q

Systemic veins carry _____ levels of CO2 and systemic arteries carry ______ levels of CO2

—what does this say about HCO3- conc?

A
  • Veins = HIGH CO2
  • Arteries = LOW CO2

-same for HCO3-

240
Q

How do gases enter and exit the RBC

A

Through diffusion across the RBC plasma membrane.

241
Q

What is a benefit of RBCs not containing nuclei (why don’t they contain nuclei)?

A
  • More room for hemoglobin, so more oxygen can be taken up

- RBCs push out their nuclei

242
Q

What is a lysosome

A

an organelle in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells containing degradative enzymes enclosed in a membrane.

243
Q

What is the pathway of endocytosis?

A

Early endosomes –> late endosomes –> lysosomes (to degrade the material)

-can have vesicles pass between the Golgi and endosomes in both directions

244
Q

Helices are a type of ____ structure

A

Secondary strcuture

245
Q

What is a lysozyme

A

an enzyme that degrades the wall of bacteria (causes lysis)

246
Q

The LOWER the Kd value, the _____ the affinity for the antibody

A

HIGHER

247
Q

What is Kd for atibodies?

A

The equilibrium dissociation constant

  • a ratio of koff / kon between the antibody and its antigen
  • Kd and affinity are inversely related
248
Q

What do proteases do?

A

Enzymes that perform protein catabolism by hydrolysis of peptide bonds

249
Q

What is an operon?

A

A functioning unit of genomic DNA containing a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter

250
Q

Most of the lining of the mouth is derived from what type of germ layer?

A

Invagination of ectoderm

251
Q

Most epithelial tissue inside the body is derived from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

252
Q

What type of tissue makes up the bronchi, bladder, stomach, etc.

A

Epithelial tissue

253
Q

what is chelation

A

a type of bonding of ions and molecules to metal ions (such as Ca2+)

254
Q

Blood contains many more (WBC/RBC) than (WBC/RBC)

A

Many more RBCs than WBCs

255
Q

How is turbulent flow measured?

A

Using Reynold’s # (usually Turbulent when Re>2000).

Re = vd/(n/p)
where v = velocity, d = vessel diameter, n = viscosity, and p (row) = density

256
Q

Structure of purines vs pyrimidines

A

purines have 2 rings, and pyrimidines have 1 ring

257
Q

Number of Oxygens on the nitrogenous bases

A

G & C = each have 1 oxygen
T (or U) = 2 oxygens
A = 0 oxygens

258
Q

Chemical structure of

-alkanes vs. alkenes

A

Alkanes (non-cyclical) = CnH(2n+2)

Alkenes (non-cyclical) = CnH(2n)

259
Q

Cellulose

A

glucose polysaccharide found in plant walls

260
Q

Cellulase

A

enzyme that hydrolyzes cellulose to release glucose

-humans don’t have cellulase so can’t digest cellulose

261
Q

Starch and glycogen

A

Important polysaccharides in nature

262
Q

Amylases

A

hydrolyze starch and glycogen to release glucose

263
Q

What type of animals can digest cellulose

A

Animals with a rumen - which contains microorganisms that secrete cellulase (an example of a symbiotic relationship)

264
Q

Proteases

A

enzymes that hydrolyze proteins to their constituent amino acids

265
Q

enzymes that hydrolyze proteins to their constituent amino acids

A

proteases

266
Q

lipases

A

enzymes that hydrolyze fat (aka triglycerides; which is stored in adipocytes) into fatty acids + glycerol

267
Q

enzymes that hydrolyze fat (aka triglycerides; which is stored in adipocytes) into fatty acids + glycerol

A

lipases

268
Q

where are triacylglycerides stored?

A

adipocytes

269
Q

Vitamins

A

Molecules needed in only small amounts, but are essnetial

270
Q

Essential amino acids

A

the 9 (of the 20 basic amino acids) that humans need to obtain in our diet (the rest humans can synthesize

271
Q

5 general components to a complete diet

A

(1) Carbohydrates (in sugar form)
(2) Fats
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamins
(5) Minerals

272
Q

Inner layer of the small intestine

 - made up of
 - features
A
  • epithelial cells
    • convulated for increased surface are digestion
    • external exocrine glands (from pancreas/liver/etc.) are scattered here)
    • also ave endocrine cells that release hormones
273
Q

How does the lower GI tract contract as food passes through?

A
  • Smooth muscle (surrounding the epithelial cells) contracts in peristaltic waves - controlled by parasympathetic system and hormones)
  • fast due to gap junctions in circular and longitudinal muscles of GI tract
274
Q

What enables quick peristaltic action in the lower GI tract

A

electrical continuity imposed by the gap junctions in the circular and longitudinal muscles of the GI tract

275
Q

salavary amylase

A

begins digestion

-digests starch and glycogen (carbohydrates)

276
Q

Epiglottis

A

tissue flap covering larynx opening so that food doesn’t enter, and instead food enters esophagus and then goes to stomach

277
Q

the swallowing reflex is controlled by the _____

A

medulla

278
Q

What contracts to prevent regurgitation of food back to the esophagus?

A

gastroesophageal sphincter

279
Q

Functions of the stomach

A

(1) Break food down to smaller particles

2) detoxify food (by acidic secretions

280
Q

What are the 4 major types of stomach secretions? (and what type of cells secrete them)

A

(1) Mucus = (by surface cells); protects lining of stomach and lubricates the food
(2) Gastrin = (by endocrine cells); secreted in response to protein entering the stomach; stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and HCl
(3) HCl = (by parietal cells) pH ~ 1; converts pepsinogen -> pepsin. Once pepsin is formed, pepsin can also convert pepsinogen -> pepsin
(4) pepsinogen = (by chief cells); inactive form of the peptidase enzyme pepsin

281
Q

What stimulates secretion of HCl and pepsinogen

A

gastrin

282
Q

What do chief and parietal cells do?

A

Chief Cells –> Secrete pepsinogen (in stomach)

Parietal Cells –> Secrete HCl (in stomach), and also intrinsic factor (a glycoprotein)

283
Q

intrinsic factor

A
  • A glycoprotein secreted by parietal cells in the stomach
  • complexes with Vitamin B12 and is then absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells and transported by bloodstream (without intrinsic factor, would be deficient in Vitamin B12 - which is necessary for RBC formation)
284
Q

Why do ulcers occur in the stomach?

A

-if too much acid is secreted into the stomach

285
Q

histamine and the stomach

A

histamine stimulates the release of HCl into the stomach.

286
Q

Cimetidine drug

A

inhibits histamine from binding to parietal cells (in the stomach), thus inhibiting their release of HCl into the lumen of the stomach

287
Q

Where does the majority of digestion occur?

A

90% of digestion occurs in the small intestines

288
Q

Acidity of small intestine?

A

Small intestine neutralizaes the acid secreted by the stomach

289
Q

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

A
  • Small intestine distension causes its release

- diffuses through bloodstream to pancreas, where it causes pancreas to release digestive enzymes

290
Q

Secretin

A

a hormone released by the small intestine in response to entering chyme from the stomach
-transported by bloodstream to pancreas - causing it to release bicarbonate ion and other fluid

291
Q

CCK and Secretin

  • why released
  • effects
A

CCK:

  • released when small intestine distends
  • causes pancreas to release digestive enzymes

Secretin:

  • released when chyme enters small intestine from stomach
  • causes pancreas to release bicarbonate ion and other fluid
292
Q

acini

A
  • structures in the pancreas
  • secrete fluid into small intestine that has a high bicarbonate content —> the bicarbonate ions will combine with HCl to produce carbonic acid, which is converted to CO2 and H2O –> will cause the pH in the small intestines to increase
293
Q

Main secretions from pancreas

A
  • insulin and glucagon (from endocrine cells)

- Bicarbonate ion (from acini strucutres)

294
Q

main function of liver

A

-synthesizes bile (which is stored in the gallbladder)

295
Q

bile

  • where synthesized
  • where stored
A
  • synthesized in liver

- store in gallbladder

296
Q

Effects of presence of fat in small intestines

A
  • causes release of CCK by the small intestine
  • CCK release causes gallbladder to contract and sphincter of oddi to relax —> resulting in bile passing into lumen of small intestine
297
Q

What is the major pigment in bile (and what is it)

A

bilirubin - a breakdown product of hemoglobin

298
Q

What are bile salts

A

contained in bile; important in fat digestion and absorption

299
Q

Process of bile release (and what it does afterwards)

A
  • Bile is released from gallbladder and passes through a duct that joins with the pancreatic duct through the sphincter of odd, and empties in the small intestine
  • there it emulsifies fat and helps epithelial cells absorb fat
300
Q

sphincter of oddi

A

a muscular valve that controls the flow of digestive juices between the liver/pancreas and the small intestine

301
Q

Transport proteins in the small intestine

  • where located
  • function
A
  • located on apical (lumen side) and basolateral (blood side) regions of the epithelial cells in the small intestine
  • allow the absorption of many compounds, including Na+, glucose, minerals, etc.
302
Q

Cholera Toxin

A

caused by massive loss of fluid by diarrhea

303
Q

osmosis and the small intestines

A

Water diffuses into the lumen through osmosis

304
Q

Main function of large intestine

A
  • absorb most of water ad ions left in chyme as it passes from the small intestine
  • what’s not absorbed passes in feces
305
Q

Chylomicrons

  • formation of
  • where they go
A
  • fatty acids and glycerol diffuse into intestinal epithelial cells where they are resynthesized into triglycerides - and aggregate into chylomicron structures
  • chylomicrons are released into the basolateral membrane. They enter into lymph and are transported to the veins and eventually the tissues.
306
Q

Where is the water in the human body distributed

A
  • 2/3 of water is in cells (intracellular fluid)

- 1/3 of water is in the interstitial space (extracellular fluid)

307
Q

How is water lost in the human body

A
  • integuement (the skin, via evaporation)
  • GI Tract
  • lungs
  • urinary system
308
Q

The water lost from the body exactly matches _______

A

the water gained by the body by fluid consumption and regulation at the level of the kidneys

309
Q

osmoconformers

A

Organisms that can change internal ionic concentration of its body fluids to meet that of surrounding environment

310
Q

osmoregulators

A

Organisms that DON’T change their internal ionic concentration to meet that of their environment

311
Q

Three main functions of vertebrate kidneys

A

(1) Filtration
(2) Reabsorption
(3) Excretion

312
Q

How does filtration occur in the kidney (high level)

A

through the nephron: the functional unit of kidney. Which consists of a:

  • glomerulus (collection of capillaries that receives blood from an artery terminating at the renal system
  • bowman’s capsule
  • tubular system

*blood is pumped into the glomerulus by the hydrostatic pressure of the heart, and that pressure forces the blood through the capillary walls and into Bowman’s capsule. (the cell-free ultra-filtrate in Bowman’s capsule lacks many of the plasma proteins found in blood

313
Q

How does reabsorption occur in the kidney (high level)

A

Through many of the epithelial cells that line the tubular lumen of the nephron

  • cilia of the epithelial cells propel filtrate through renal tubes
  • glucose, small proteins, amino acids, salts, bicarbonate ions, and water and reabsorbed by the tubes and transported back to the blood
  • epithelial cells can also secrete protons, K+, urea, uric acid, and ammonia
314
Q

Where does blood enter the kidney from

A

-Blood from the descending aorta enters the renal artery and eventually enters the glomeruli

315
Q

Where does blood leave the kidney from?

A

-by the renal vein, which empties into the inferior vena cava.

316
Q

Where does urine exit the kidney from (and where does it go)

A

-the ureter transports urine to the bladder, where it exits via the urethra

317
Q

Cortex vs. Medulla (or kidney)

A
  • Glomeruli and bowman’s capsule are in the cortex, so it is granular in appearance
  • medulla is striated and contains the loop of henle and the collecting ducts (which collect urine and empty into renal pelvis of kidney and then the ureter)
318
Q

As renal artery enters the kidney, what happens to it?

A

It branches and becomes the afferent arterioles - which enter bowman’s capsule and form the glomerulus

319
Q

What leaves the glomerulus and forms capillaries surrounding renal tubules?

A
  • the efferent arteriole
  • the blood that leaves the capillary network does so through a venule which empties into the renal vein that leaves the kidney
320
Q

What extends from Bowman’s capsule (in order)?

A

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
(4) Collecting Duct

321
Q

What is the osmolarity of filtrate in Bowman’s Capsule (and what is it equivalent to)?

A

~ 300 milliosomols = that of filtrate in PCT = that of plasma

322
Q

What is dilute urine vs. concentrated urine

A

Dilute urine = osmolarity < that of filtrate in Bowman’s capsule, PCT, and plasma (<300 momols)
Concentrated urine = >300 mosmol

323
Q

What is the PCT, and what are its functions and features

A

= Obligatory section of nephron (b/c it is where ~65% of all reabsorption and secretion occurs)

  • epithelial cells are very metabolically active –> so have active transport
  • many reabsorption methods require Na+
  • All glucose, small proteins, Amino Acids, and Vitamins are reabsorbed here, as are most ions and water
  • little regulation occurs here
324
Q

Segments of Loop of Henle

A

(1) Thin Descending
(2) Thin Ascending
(3) Thick Ascending

325
Q

Function: Thin descending loop of henle

A

Very permeable to H2O, but only relatively permeable to ions and molecules

326
Q

Function: thin ascending loop of henle

A

More permeable to urea, less permeable to H2O

327
Q

Function: thick ascending loop of henle

A
  • Actively transports ions to interstitial fluid from lumen of loop
  • impermeable to urea and water (so filtrate is becoming less dilute)
328
Q

High level: ion and water concentration in kidney medulla (due to loop of Henle)

A
  • loop of henle makes the medulla very SALTY.
  • the ascending loop pumps out the salts
  • the descending loop, which is permeable to water - has water diffuse out since the medulla is salty —> in this way, the saltiness allows water to leave the loop into the medulla
329
Q

Distal Convoluted Tubule:

-segments and functions of each segment

A

(1) segment close to loop –>
- impermeable to urea and H2O, but permeable to ions (Na+, etc.) –> filtrate becoming more dilute

(2) segment close to collecting duct & portion of collecting duct in cortical region of kidney –>
- impermeable to urea
- sensitive to hormone aldosterone and ADH

330
Q

aldosterone

A
  • secreted in cortex by adrenal glands
  • regulates Na+ concentration
  • increased aldosterone –> Na+ is reabsorbed by epithelial cells (and K+ is simultaneously pumped into nephron lumen)
331
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A
  • Produced by hypothalamus and released by posterior pituitary
  • regulates water consumption
  • increases ADH —> water reabsorbed from epithelial cells in collecting duct and passed into interstitial Fluid (concentrates urine, by removing water from the urine)
332
Q

Homeostatic maintenance of Na+ concentration

A

-decreased Na+ ==> cells in adrenal cortex release aldosterone ==> causes DCT and collecting duct to reabsorb Na+

333
Q

Homeostatic water maintenance

A

-decrease in plasma volume ==> decrease in Blood pressure, which is detected by osmoreceptors ==> hypothalamus synthesizes and transmits ADH to posterior pituitary where it is released to blood ==> ADH causes DCT and collecting duct to reabsorb H2O

334
Q

Effects of alcohol use on water homeostasis

A

-Alcohol inhibits ADH

335
Q

Main source of nitrogenous waste in the bod

A

Proteins and nucleic acids

336
Q

3 Ways to remove nitrogen waste (as):

A

(1) Ammonia
(2) Urea
(3) Uric Acid

337
Q

Ammonia vs. Urea vs. Uric Acid

A

Ammonia
-toxic & soluble
-in fish, glutamine is converted to ammonia which combines with a proton and is excreted (mammals can also excrete ammonium)
______________
Urea
-less toxic & soluble
-exreted by mammals (in urine; is a glutamine byproduct)
_______________
Uric Acid
-toxix & insoluble
-excreted by birds and reptiles (ammonia is converted to uric acid)

338
Q

Normal pH of body

A

~7.4

339
Q

How is body pH regulated

A

through buffering system –> H+ bound to buffer (such as HCO3-)

340
Q

Cholera Toxin

A

Acute intestinal infection transmitted in contaminated food/water
-leads to rapid fluid loss

341
Q

What type of hormone is norepinephrine

A

An amine hormone

-specifically, a catecholamine

342
Q

What type of hormone is epinephrine

A

An amine hormone

-specifically, a catecholamine

343
Q

What type of hormone is dopamine

A

An amine hormone

-specifcally a catecholamine

344
Q

What type of hormone is aldosterone?

A

A steroid hormone

  • more specifically, a corticosteroid
  • even more specifically, a mineralocorticoid
345
Q

What type of hormone is insulin?

A

a peptide hormone

346
Q

What type of hormone is glucagon?

A

A peptide hormone

347
Q

What type of hormone is cortisol?

A

A steroid homone

  • more specifically, a corticosteroid
  • even more specifically, a glucocorticoid
348
Q

Two subroups of steroid hormones (and the five subtypes that fit into the two subgroups)

A

(1) Corticosteroids
- Glucocorticoids
- Mineralocorticoids

(2) Sex Steroids
- Androgens (such as testosterone)
- Estrogens
- Progesterone

349
Q

Hypertonic solution

A

Having a higher osmotic pressure than a particular fluid (typically body fluid or intracellular fluid)

350
Q

Water moves from a region of _____ osmotic pressure to a region of _____ osmotic pressure

A

From low —-> high

351
Q

What hormone is responsible for taking fat from the vascular system and facilitating its uptake into adipose tissue

A

Insulin

352
Q

Parietal cells secrete ______ into _____ and also _____ into _______.

A

secrete H+ into the intestinal lumen and bicarbonate into the blood

353
Q

pancreatic cells release bicarbonate into ______ along with _____ into _____

A

Bicarbonate into the intestinal lumen along with H+ into the blood

354
Q

GnRH

A

Gondadatropin releasing hormone, released by the hypothalamus, causes the anterior pituitary to release gonadatropins (which go to the gonads)

355
Q

Gonadatropins

  • what
  • released by what (and why)
  • cause
A
  • Luteinizing Hormone (LH) & Follicle stiulating hormones (FSH)
  • released by the anterior pituitary, caused by release of GnRH by the hypothalamus
  • stimulate the gonads - to produce steroid hormones and germ cells (ova or spermatazoa)
356
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

series of convoluted tubules in testes

-where sperm is produced

357
Q

where are sperm produced (and why?)

A

in Testes - which lies in scrotum, which is outside of the body cavity
-b/c sperm formation requires a lower temp (than body temp)

358
Q

What is the process between spermatagonia and spermatazoa

A

starts at basement membrane of semineferous tubules _____

(1) Spermatagonia 1(2n) —mitosis—>
(2) Primary spermatocytes 1(2n) —-meiosis I–>
(3) Secondary spermatocytes 2(1n) —meisosis II–>
(4) Spermatids 4(1n) –transformation–>
(5) Spermatazoa 4*(1n)

359
Q

What are the primary things occurring in the testes?
____
-cells related to each thing

A

(1) Sperm is produced (in semineferous tubules) [by spermatogenic cells]
(2) Leydig Cells synthesize testosterone (outside of tubules)
(3) Sertoli cells promote spermatagenesis and produce inhibin protein hormone (in tubules); sertoli cells are in constant contact with spermatagonic cells

360
Q

Cytoplasmic Bridges in the semineferous tubules

A

Connect the spermatids

361
Q

Acrosome

A
  • tip of sperm

- has digestive enzymes that help gain access to egg interior after fertilization

362
Q

Where are the DNA and mitochondria of the sperm?

A
  • DNA = in head of sperm

- mitochondria = in midsection

363
Q

function of mitochondria in sperm

A

-provides energy to tail so can swim

364
Q

How is testosterone formed

A

Leydic cells convert cholesterol —> testosterone

365
Q

Testosterone’s 2 main roles

A

(1) Can move into target tissues
(2) Can diffuse into Sertoli cells - where it binds to a receptor and is converted to dHT (dihydrotestosterone), which diffuses into nucleus of sertoli cells and instructs DNA to produce RNA (which affect spermatagoneic cells)

366
Q

Function of LH in males

A

-binds to receptor on Leydig Cell, producing secondary signal —> increases conversion of cholesterol to testosterone

367
Q

FSH Function in males

A

-Binds to receptor on Sertoli Cell and induces secondary response –> helps convert testosterone to dHT (and also induces the synthesis of the receptors)

368
Q

How is GnRH inhibited (in males)?

A

-Testosterone inhibits GnRH

369
Q

How is LH inhibited (in males)

A

-Testosterone inhibits LH

370
Q

How is FSH inhibited (in males)

A

-Inhibit inhibits FSH

371
Q

Sperm Travel

A 
SEVEN UP
(1) Seminiferous Tubules
(2) Epididymus
(3) Vans Deferens
(4) Ejaculatory Duct
N=nothing
(5) Urethra
(6) Penis
372
Q

what makes up semen?

A

Small part sperm, the rest is secreted by:
-seminal vesicles
-prostate gland
-bulbourethral glands
(fructose, vitamins, zinc bicarb, prostagalandins, mucus,, etc.)

373
Q

How long can sperm live in the vagina?

A

~48 hours

374
Q

Sperm travel in females

A

(1) Vagina ->
(2) Oviduct (aka fallopian tubes) = site of fertilization.

Once have a fertilized egg:
(3) Egg implants in uterus - in uterine lining - ~1 wk after ovulation. Continues to grouw here until delivery

375
Q

What is the egg called once it implants in the uterus

A

a blastocyst

376
Q

Oogenesis vs spermatogenesis

2 main differences

A

(1) spermatogenesis yields 4 identical sperm, oogenesis yields 1 egg (and 2 polar bodies)
(2) Mitosis ceases within 2-3 months of fetal development in females –> so females are born with all the primary oocytes she’ll ever have (males continue producing primary spermatocytes)

377
Q

What happens to the primary oocytes

A

Most degrade –> called atresia

-the rest will mature

378
Q

Oogenesis (beginning to end)

A

(1) Oogonia 1(2n) –mitosis–>
(2) Primary Oocyte 1(2n) –Meiosis I—arrested in prophase, monthly with a surge of LH continues–>
(3) (first polar body) + Secondary Oocyte 1(1n) —Meiosis II—arrested in anaphase, only after fertilization continues—>
(4) (second polar body) + zygote 1(2n)

379
Q

Primary follicle

A

a primary oocyte surrounded by a layer of follicle cells. Eventually 1 ill start to develop

380
Q

follicular phase

  • what it is
  • how long
A

pre-ovulation, when primary oocyte matures

-lasts up to the ~14th day of woman’s monthly cycle

381
Q

Zona pellucida

A

membrane surrounding primary oocyte - is surrounded by more follicle cells called granulosa cells and thecal cells

382
Q

Theca Cells are the female equivalent of _____, and granulosa cells are the female equivalent of _____.

A 
Theca = leydig
Granulosa = Sertoli
383
Q

What are the main events of the folliclar phase

A

(1) Fluid builds up in the primary follice, forming the antrium
(2) LH surge causes meiosis I - forming secondary oocyte - and production of enzymes that break down membrane on primary follicle
(3) after secondary oocyte is released, ovulation occurs (the beginning of the luteal phase)

384
Q

Luteal phase

-what and when

A

After 14th day of monthly cycle, starts at ovulation and lasts until menstrual flow.

385
Q

Main events of luteal phase

A

(1) Begins at ovulation
(2) Leftover follicle is transformed into corpus luteum which produces estrogen and progesterone
(3) Corpus luteum degenerates if no fertilization and cycle starts again (thus Luteal phase ends at the beginning of menstrual flow)

386
Q

LH and FSH and estrogen levels during woman’s monthy cycle

A

(1) LH levels are flat until LH surge just before ovulation
(2) LH Surge also has an FSH surge with it (although not as much)
(3) estrogen surges before ovulation and then a little afterwards
(4) the increase in estrogen will lead to an increase in LH

387
Q

What do theca cells do?

A

Convert cholesterol to testosterone in females

388
Q

Testosterone in females?

A
  • synthesized by theca cells from cholesterol

- diffuses into follicle cells and is converted to estrogen, which helps to develop the primary follicle

389
Q

Effect of follicle cell proliferation on estrogen

A
  • follicle cells produce estrogen,
  • just after being converted to the corpus luteum, they lose the ability to produce estrogen briefly - but long enough so that LH levels decrease
  • the corpus luteum becomes an endocrine gland then and synthesizes estrogen and progesterone
390
Q

Estrogen and FSH effects on eachother

A

-Estrogen inhibits FSH (which usually stimulates follicle production).

391
Q

Effect of estrogen and progesterone on LH and FSH

A
  • Estrogen has positive feedback on LH until after the LH surge (but a negative feedback on FSH)
  • After the LH surge, will lose the positive feedback.
  • The corpus luteum will then be produced, and start producing estrogen and progesterone
  • Estrogen and progesterone IN COMBINATION exhibit negative feedback on both FSH and LH (and GnRH) – so primary follicle won’t develop as long as corpus luteum is producing estrogen and progesterone
392
Q

Phases of pregnancy from acrosome digesting secondary oocyte membrane —> placenta formation

A

(1) acrosome digests membrane of secondary oocyte
(2) Zona pellucida receptor sites for sperm prevents cross-species fermentation
(3) Nucleus (and only nucleus) of sperm enters secondary oocyte
(4) Zona pellucida changes and prevents other sperm entry
(5) Secondary oocyte undergoes Meiosis II
(6) Nucleus of sperm and egg fuse to form zygote
(7) Zygote attaches to uterine lining in ~7 days (now called blastocyst)
(8) Placenta begins to form at implantation

393
Q

What prevents cross-species fermentation

A

Zona-pelluicida receptor sites for sperm

394
Q

blastocyst

A

small ball of cells with central fluid filled cavity

395
Q

What happens during the first 3 months of pregnancy

A
  • placenta secretes chorionic gonadatropin, CG, which stimulates the Corpus Luteum
  • Corpus Luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone (which inhibits the Anterior pituitary, so no new primary follicles, ovulation, or menstruation)
  • Anterior Pituitary releases prolactin, stimulating mammalary glands
  • Placenta secretes chorionic somatomammotropin (CS) which stimulates mammary glands also
396
Q

What in the first 3 months of pregnancy stimulates mammary glands

A
  • prolactin (from anterior pituitary)

- chorionic somatomammotropin (from placenta)

397
Q

What happens in the last 6 months of pregnancy

A
  • chorionic gonadatropin is no longer made - so the corpus luteum breaks down
  • instead, placenta synthesizes estrogen and progesterone (and makes much more than did the Corpus Luteum)
398
Q

6 Main stages of development

A

(1) Fertilization
(2) Cleavage
(3) Gastrulation
(4) Neurulation
(5) Neural Crest Formation

399
Q

6 Main stages of development:

(1) Fertilization

A

Union of male and female gametes to form zygote

400
Q

6 main stages of development:

(2) Cleavage

A

Zygote rapidly divides into many cells wihtout changing overall size

401
Q

6 Main stages of development

(3) Gastrulation

A

Cells migrate to form 3 germ layers

402
Q

6 Main stages of development

(4) Neurulation

A

Begin to form nervous system (first organ system to begin to differentiate)

403
Q

6 Main stages of development

(5) Neural crest formation

A

Neural crest cells help form parts of nervous system, skull, and sensory organs

404
Q

6 Main stages of development

(6) Organogenesis

A

Different organs in body are formed

405
Q

Unfertilized frog egg has ___ poles (what are they)

A

2:
-animal pole = upper, mainly cytoplasm
___
-vegetal pole = lower; contains the yolk

406
Q

What happens once sperm enters frog egg

A

Gray Crescent forms opposite site of sperm entry

407
Q

Gray Crescent

  • where located
  • what ends up here
A

In frog egg, forms once sperm enters - forms opposite site of sperm entry

  • located on dorsal side
  • eventually where will have spinal cord and brain
  • middle of gray crescent defines body midline
408
Q

Where does the first cleave occur in frog zygotes?

A

-along midline (so bisecting gray crescent)

409
Q

Blastomeres

A

individual cells involved in zygote cleavage

410
Q

morula

A

solid ball of cells formed at the 32 cell stage of frog development, during cleavage

411
Q

Cleavage stage of development is characterized by _____

A

Cell division that increases a zygote’s mass, with its overall size remaining the same.

412
Q

Blastula

A

Forms during frog gastrulation (after morula forms)

-a hallow ball of cells, with a fluid filled cavity called a blastocoel

413
Q

The events leading up to which phase of development vary widely among animals (but this phase is common to all of them)?

A

gastrulation

414
Q

Phases of gastrulation in frogs

A

(1) Blastopore opens (near gray crescent)
(2) Cells from animal pole migrate in and form second layer of cells below outer layer (blastocoel is reduced in size and ultimately eliminated)
(3) Archenteron (a cavity) forms in place of blastocoel (embryo is now called a gastrula)
(4) Outer cell layer invaginates to form 2 cell layers: ectoderm (outer layer) and endoderm (inner layer); mesoderm will later form in between

415
Q

Developmental fates of the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm

A

ECTODERM = skin, brain, and nervous system
________
ENDODERM = digestive and respiratory tracts (inner linings), and major glands (liver, pancreas, etc.)
________
MESODERM = notochord, heart, skeleton, muscle

416
Q

Neural Plate

A

Above the notochord, the neural plate is a mass of ECTODERM cells that will fold in on itself to form the neural groove (with the edges of the folding fusing to form the neural tube - within which will be the spine)

417
Q

Primordium

A

Neural plate tissue (ectodermal)

418
Q

Neurula

A

name for the embryo during neurulation

419
Q

Neural crest cells

A

Ectodermal cells that don’t fuse to become the neurol tube, and instead move to side and begin to functionalize
-eventually they become sensory cells, adrenal medulla, and more

420
Q

More hormone released by adrenal medulla

A

adrenaline - which prepares animal to fight

-increases blood sugar, hr and bp

421
Q

Somites

A

Segments of mesodermal tissue that form during organogenesis

-will eventually give rise to vertebrae and connective tissue and muscle

422
Q

Morphogenesis

A

Last phase of development for a frog

  • tadpole changes to sexually active organism
  • grows limbs, develops lungs, and loses tail and gills
423
Q

What triggers frog tadpole to grow limbs, develop lungs, and lose tail and gills

A

-the release of thyroxin from the thyroid gland

424
Q

Indirect vs direct development

A

Direct = care is given to post-embryonic organism by mother

425
Q

2 classes of interaction associated with differentiation

A

(1) intracellular interactions = interactions between components within the cells themselves (usually result in setting up a prepattern)
(2) intercellular interactions = interactions between cells , usually undergo developmental induction

426
Q

what establishes direction in an egg

A

sperm entry

427
Q

Hans Speemann Gray Crescent Experiment

A
  • showed development of gray crescent*
  • took 2 eggs and tied string around - 1 bisected gray crescent, and 1 egg had all gray crescent on one side
  • when bisected, 2 embryos formed from each side
  • when all of the gray crescent was on one side –> 1 embryo forms (and once mass of cells formed)
428
Q

Dorsal lip in frog

A

Area where cells from animal pole begin to invaginate into the blastula –> leads to formation of blastopore and development of archenteron

429
Q

Hilde Mangold experiment

A
  • *showed dorsal lip’s function as an organizer in frog embryos**
  • removed a section of dorsal lip from an embryo and transplanted it into belly of another
  • a second embryo formed at site of transplant
  • dorsal lip formed a notochord which induced formation of a neural plate and neural tube
430
Q

Function of Dorsal Lip in tadpole embryo

A

acts as an organizer

431
Q

Embryonic induction

-and how to do with froy embryo

A

Induce a second embryo to form in another embryo (in frog embryos, by transplanting a dorsal lip into it)

432
Q

Hans Spemann eye experiment

A
  • *indicates a hierarchy of development stages**
  • studied successive inductions leading to eye formation
    (1) in forebrain, 2 protrusion extending to the ectoderm
    (2) when protrusions contact the ectoderm, the ectoderm invaginates and pushes into growing the optic stalk
    (3) the optic stalk creates the optic cup
    (4) the lens develps from ectoderm that’s in contact with edges of optic cup
    (5) as lens pulls away remaining ectoderm becomes the cornea
    (6) the rest of optic cup develops into the retina
433
Q

cells surrounding the blastocyst; the other cells

A

trophoblast; other cells are the inner cell mass

434
Q

chorion

A

layer of cells between trophoblast and fetal blood vessules

435
Q

Placenta

A

the whole blood exchange apparatus (with human embryos)

436
Q

Changes that the inner cell mass undergoes (in humans)

A

–Forms a cavity within itself - the amniotic cavity (ectoderm cells line it, and endoderm is below it) —> now inside the ball have 2 components: (1) amniotic cavity (2) rest of cells important for chorion and placenta

437
Q

Amniotic Cavity

different to frog embryos

A

2 Layered (endoderm and ectoderm) sheet that will develop into the fetus (unlike frog embryos, only this portion of the inner cell mass will become the fetus, not the rest of the cells)

438
Q

Primative streak

A

Human analog to frog’s neural plate

-cells in primative streak migrate to form mesoderm; its formation is the beginning of gastrulation

439
Q

beginning of gastrulation in humans

A

formation of primative streak

440
Q

Human equivalent of the neural plate

A

primative streak

441
Q

Chorionic Gonadatropin

A

Secreted by trophoblastic cells, causes Corpus Luteum to continue to produce estrogen and progestereone

442
Q

What is it that causes the uterus to first contract; then what causes continued contraction

A

Increasing ratio of estrogen to progesterone (placenta secretes both)lead to beginning of contraction –> causes stress on uterine wall –> signals hypothalamus –> signals posterior pituitary to release oxytocin —> oxytocin induces more contractions and stimulates production of prostaglandins –> prostaglandins further induce contractions

443
Q

Parturition

A

the birth process

444
Q

How/why is milk produced (in humans)

A

Suckling —> hypothalamus releases PRH (prolactin releasing hormone) –> anterior pituitary releases prolactin —> epithelial cells in breast (comprise milk glands) are stimulated)

445
Q

How/why is milk ejcted (in humans)

A

Suckling —> hypothalamus —> posterior pituitary releases oxytocin —> causes contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast —> milk gets squezeed out

446
Q

The sequence in which info travels from the CNS to the periphery:

A

-Cerebral Corte -> Spinal Cord -> efferent neurons -> interneurons -> motor neurons -> muscle tissue

447
Q

Examples of catecholamines

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

448
Q

Effect of chloride ion efflux in action potential generation and activation of actin-myosin cross-lins during muscle contraction

A

(none)

449
Q

What is neuron depolarization characterized by?

A

Rapid influx of Na+ into the neuron

450
Q

Effect of Ca2+ on muscle activation

A

Muscle activation requires release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to cause a mechanical response in the muscle

451
Q

spinal cord transection

A

condition in which the nerves that run inside the vertebral column are damaged (so signals can’t pass from brain to muscles)

452
Q

What are frameshift mutations

A

Adding of deleting a bas

453
Q

Potential effects of frameshift mutations

A 
Can cause (in translated protein) different amino acids starting with the one corresponding to the affected triplet all the way to the end of the protein.
-It can also possibly cause the protein to be longer or shorter
454
Q

Metastasis

A

Development of secondary malignant growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer (only occurs once you already have cancer)

455
Q

What is the size of a complete set of human DNA

A

~3 bilion nucleotides

456
Q

Osmotic gradient of ocean water when swallowed by humans

A

-Ocean water has a high Na+ and Cl- content, so it has a higher osmolarity if swallowed by humans –> so, will pull water out of the body’s cells, leading to dehydration

457
Q

What is a peptide bond?

A

Amide linkage between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid of another group

458
Q

Why is the peptide bond that forms the backbone of proteins especially stable?

A
  • B/c it exhibits RESONANCE STABILIZATION:

- between the lone pair of the Nitrogen and the double bond in the carbon group

459
Q

What is the 5’ GTP cap?

  • Where is it formed?
  • What is its function?
A
  • Formed on the mRNA of eukaryotes ONLY
  • functions to regulate nuclear export, prevent degradation (by exonucleases), promote translation, and promote 5’ proximal intron excision
460
Q

What is hybridization?

A

The process of binding through complementary nucleotides.

461
Q

Polymerization vs. hybridization vs. Elongation

A

Polymerization = adding nucleotides together to form a single-strand of RNA (or analogous for other molecules)
________
Hybridization = binding through complementary nucleotides
________
Elongation = adding subunits to make a longer strand of macromolecule

462
Q

adsorption

A

the adhesion of atoms, ions, or molecules from a gas, liquid, or dissolved solid to a surface

463
Q

Posphorous and Sulfur in DNA and Proteins

A

DNA = has P but not S
____
Proteins = has S but not P

464
Q

Transduction

A

The process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus

465
Q

transformation

A

the genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous genetic material from its surrounds through the cellular membrane

466
Q

bacterial conjucation

A

the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or via a bridge-like connection between two cells

467
Q

translation

A

protein synthesis carried out on the ribosomes of cells

468
Q

DNAse enzymes catalyze _______

A

the hydrolysis of the phosphodiester linkages of nucleotides in DNA

469
Q

What is the most common capsid shape among viruses?

A

Icosahedral structure

470
Q

What are some capsid shapes (for viruses)?

A
  • icosohedral (most common) = a shape with 20 faces
  • complex = rare, contains 2+ elements of other capsid shapes
  • helical = a set of n 1-D molecular helices related by an n-fold axial symmetry; in many rod-shaped and filamentous plant viruses
  • prolate = similar to icosahedron, but elongated along the fivefold axis. Comprised of a cylinder with a cap at either end
471
Q

what is a capsid

A

protein shell of virus (it is NOT an envelope)

472
Q

Genetic Drift

A

variation in the relative frequency of different genotypes, owing to the chance disappearance of particular genes

473
Q

Gene flow

A

movement of alleles between populations due to migration

474
Q

Founder effect

A

Loss of genetic diversity when a new population is founded with a small population

475
Q

2 Reasons why the Y chromosome is more susceptible to mutation

A

(1) Sperm undergoes many divisions during gametogenesis *more replicative rounds than during oogenesis
(2) females have crossing over events to restore function to damaged X chromosomes

476
Q

Dilation of pupils = sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathetic

477
Q

Aldoseterone

  • where released and why
  • function
A

-released from adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure
____
-Primary function is to increase Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubule - the pump brings in 3 Na+ ions back in for every 2 K+ ions pumped out, so aldosterone also increases the gradient that favors water reabsorption

478
Q

ADH and Aldosterone —> and their effects on water

A

Both cause water reabsorption
____
-ADH - increases aquaporin channels in collecting duct
-Aldosterone - increases Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct, and water follows

479
Q

Telomeres during mitosis

A

as cell undergoes mitosis, telomeres get progressively shorter - eventually the DNA loses telmoeres entirely and is unable to reproduce - the cell then dies, undergoing apoptosis

480
Q

telomeres

A

the caps at the end of each strand of DNA that protect our chromosomes;
(are repetitive sequences)

481
Q

autoclaving

A

the most effective technique for sterilizing used lab material
- an autoclave brings the materials to a temp >120 degrees celsius and a pressure > 2 atm (which is enough to kill almost anything)

482
Q

Mitochondria are found in the _____ of cells

A

Cytoplasm

483
Q

Mitosis vs. meiosis - which is cyclical

A

mitosis

484
Q

double crossover event

A

one in which chromosomal arms of homologous chromosomes cross over in 2 different places along the arm –> resulting in a section in the middle of each chromosome being exchanged

485
Q

of arms (1 or 2) of a chromosome affected by -single and -double crossover events

A

both only affect one arm of each chromosome

486
Q

Cathode vs. Anode

A

Cathode = negative electrode –> cations and more basic molecules will migrate towards it
_____
Anode = negative electronde –> anions and more acidic molecules will migrate towards it
_____
**Note: in an electochemical cell, “AnOX Red Cat” - Anode is where oxidation occurs, and cathode is where reduction occurs, so e- are flowing from anode to cathode

487
Q

Which amino acids have basic side chains (at neutral pHs)

A

(1) Arginine
(2) Lysine
(3) Histidine

488
Q

Troponin - which muscles require it for muscle conraction

A

skeletal and cardiac (but NOT smooth muscle)

489
Q

Partial double bond character of peptide bonds

A

delocalization of electron density from the peptide (amide) and nitrogen through the peptide carbonyl carbon and onto the peptide carbonyl oxygen

490
Q

What configuration is the peptide bond nearly always in (and why?)

A

-the trans configuration, for steric reasons

491
Q

Ionizability of the carbonyl oxygen and amide nitrogen of the peptide linkage at physiological pH

A

-both are stable and not ionizable at physiological pH

492
Q

Urea - effects on protein

A

affects higher levels of protein structure but does NOT disrupt peptide bonds

493
Q

3 Main effects of insulin

A

(1) Body stops making more sugar (decreased gluconeogenesis)
(2) body stores the sugar as glycogen (so increased glycogenesis)
(3) body builds up fatty acids into fats for storing energy (so increased esterification of fatty acids)

494
Q

Oxidation change with additing water

A

-No next oxidation b/c add 2 protons and 1 oxygen

495
Q

What happens if fatt acid oxidation is stunted

A

body will rely more on glucose as source of ATP

496
Q

Hardy Weinberg equilibrium

A 
allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in a population, and you can calculate the genotype frequencies by knowing the allele frequencies:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Allele frequences: p + q = 1
\_\_\_\_\_\_
Genotype frequences: p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
497
Q

Pentose phosphate pathway

A

parallel to glycolysis:

A process of glucose turnover that produces NADPH

498
Q

What is the primary former of secondary structure

A

Hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms

499
Q

what holds quaternary structure together

A

things like hydrophobic interactions and disulfide bridges

500
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

a substitution in the nucleotide sequence that causes a new, premature stop codon to be inserted in the mature sequene

501
Q

The 3 stop codons in RNA

A

UGA, UAA, and UAG

502
Q

Fungi vs. bacteria vs. archae —- which have nuclei

A

Fungi have nuclei (are eukaryotes) and bacteria and archae do NOT have nuclei

503
Q

Analogous vs. homologous structures

A

Analogous structures = structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function.
_________
Homologous structures = structures that have a similar evolutionary history (arising from the same source) even if they now have different functions

504
Q

Most eukaryotic viruses are surrounded by what?

A

An “envelope” = a lipid bilayer

505
Q

pH of endosomes

A

low (acidic)

506
Q

Positive vs. negative single stranded RNA

A

Positive = can directly be translated into proteins (negative must first be converted to a positive by RNA polymerase)

507
Q

Where is DNA polymerase primarily found

A

in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells

508
Q

What are the 3 ways in which bacteria can acquire genes?

A

(1) transduction (2) transformation (3) conjgation

509
Q

translocation

A

the exchange of a DNA segment from one chromosome with a DNA segment from another chromosome within a single cell (not considered a gene transfer)

510
Q

ligases

A

enzymes that catalyze the formation of a bond between two large molecules (such as the formation of phosphodiester bonds between okazaki fragments during DNA replication)

511
Q

pepidases

A

enzymes that cleave peptide bonds in proteins to formsmaller peptide chains

512
Q

effect of having a “higher binding affinity” on Km and Vmax

A

Won’t affect Vmax, but will lower Km

513
Q

“upstream” means towards which end

A

5’ end

514
Q

Three stages of transcription

A

(1) initiation = RNA polymerase binds to promoter region of DNA, and then RNA polymerase unwindsDNA at the beginning of the gene
(2) Elongation = RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to 3’ end of strand
(3) Termination = transcription stops and mRNA polymerase and the new mRNA transcript are released from DNA

515
Q

What are the only 2 factors which DIRECTLY affect blood pressure

A

(1) Cardiac output

(2) Peripheral resistance

516
Q

Effects of Angiotensin II

A

Increases aldosterone secretion

517
Q

glycogenolysis

vs. glycolysis
vs. gluconeogenesis
vs. glycogenesis

A

Glycogenolysis = breakdown of glycogen to release glucose
_____
Glycolysis = breakdown of glucose to pyruvate
_____
Gluconeogenesis = synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate prcursors (such as proteins)
____
Glycogenesis = synthesis of glycogen from glucose subunits

518
Q

Effect of channel density on action potential initiation

A

-It doesn’t affect action potential initiation

resting potential is established by ion concentration NOT by channel density

519
Q

Codominance vs. incomplete dominance

A

Codominance = when both alleles are simultaneously expressed and the phenotype has both traits fully present
_____
incomplete dominance = both alleles are expressed but the phenotype is an average of the two possible phenotypes

520
Q

epigenetic factors

A

those beyond the DNA sequence that influence gene expression

521
Q

allosteric modulators - how do they function?

A

by binding to a site other than the active site on a protein, causing a conformational change in the enzyme’s 3-D structure (which alters the enzyme’s affinity for its substrate)

522
Q

What is the first amino acid in many proteins

  • and why?
  • and what terminal is it on
A

Metionine

  • the start codon for translation codes for methionin
  • on the end of the N-terminus
523
Q

What does the fact that an amino acid has a hydroxyl group tell yo?

A

the amino acid is polar

524
Q

polar amino acids

A
  • serine
  • threonine
  • asparagine
  • glutamine
  • histadine
  • tyrosine
525
Q

Hydrophobic amino acids

A
  • alanine
  • valine
  • leucine
  • isoleucine
  • proline
  • phenylalanine
  • trptophane
  • cysteine
  • methionine
526
Q

Typically for phosphorylation and dephosphorylation to occur, the amino acid’sside chain must contain ____

A

a hydroxyl group

527
Q

gene knockdown

A

the artificial manipulation of gene expression

528
Q

Noncoding RNA

A

RNA molecules that regulate gene expression, but is not translated into a protein

529
Q

Coding RNA

A

mRNA transcripts that are translated to polypeptides and proteins and typically do NOT directly regulate gene expression

530
Q

alternative splicing

A

when different introns are spliced out of an mRNA transcript to generate differential gene produces (so, occurs after transcripton, but before translation)

531
Q

Missense mutation

A

results in a change in the amino acid sequence

532
Q

Initiation mutations

A

mutations in the initiation codons (in a DNA, which signal for transcription to start), or addition of a new start site

533
Q

Hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve: what does moving curve right or left mean

A

moving curve right –> reduced affinity, so need a higher O2 pressure to get the same level of saturation

534
Q

karotype

A

a picture of isolated and stained chromosomes

535
Q

elevated CO2 in the blood –> effects on pH

A

decreases pH (increased blood acidity) b/c increases [H+], b/c the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in RBCs catalyzes the interconversion of CO2 and H2O into bicarbonate ions and protons.

536
Q

When are ketone bodies produced

A

when the liver metabolizes fat

537
Q

pH effects of ketone bodies

A

increases acidity — ketones are acidic due to their alpha hydrogen and the resonance stability of the resulting enolate

538
Q

cDNA

A

complementary DNA, a double stranded DNA synthesized from a single stranded RNA (so reverse transcribing of matrue mRNA, thus it lacks introns)

539
Q

the three main hormones produced by ovaries

A

(1) estrogen
(2) progesterone
(3) testosterone

540
Q

where is the majority of testosterone produced in females

A

the ovaries

541
Q

DNA supercoiling

A

the over- or under-winding of DNA strand; one reason it happens is the strain caused by the unwinding of double stranded DNA

542
Q

chromatin remodeling

A

a process that occurs as part of DNA organization in the nucleus

543
Q

Gibb’s Free energy and protein stability

A

the more stable a protein is, the lower its Gibbs free energy

544
Q

Peroxisome

A

a small, membrane enclosed organelle that contains enzymes involved in a variety of metabolic rxns (including several aspects of energy metabolism; some of the enzymes it contains are oxidases)

545
Q

Hypothyroidism and the immune system

A

-Hypothyroidism affects metabolism but does NOT directly affect immune system

546
Q

Composition of bacterial cell walls vs. fungal cell walls

A

-Bacterial cell walls = composed of peptidoglycan; fungal cell walls = composed of chitin

547
Q

Effect of noncompetitive inhibitor on Vmax and Km

A

Reduces Vmax, Km is unaffected

548
Q

Positive control vs. negative control

A

Positive control = a trial in which an effect is expected to occur
__
Negative control = a trial in which no effect is expected

549
Q

Southern Blot vs. Northern Blot vs. Western Blot

A 
Southern Blot = measures DNA
\_\_\_\_\_\_
Northern Blot = measures RNA
\_\_\_\_\_\_
Western Blot = measures protein (so is a direct measurment of protein expression)
550
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone

A

> increases the # of aquaporins transport enzymes in the collecting tubule of the nephron (aquaporins reabsorb water). So, more water is reabsorbed.

551
Q

Catalysts - what they affect and what they do not affect

A
  • Affect: rxn velocity and activation energy

- Do not affect: deltaG, euilibrium constant

552
Q

lacteals

A

structures in the intestines associated with absorbing fat into the lymphatic system

553
Q

epiglottis

A

a flap of cartilage at the root of the tongue, which is depressed during swallowing to cover the opening of the windpipe

554
Q

What are the viable autosomal Trisomies

A

Triosmy 21, 18, and 13

555
Q

what are the viable autosomal Monosomies

A

(there are NONE)

556
Q

Acrocentric Chromosome

A

a chromosome in which the centromere is located quite near one end of the chromosome (humans have 4)

557
Q

how many chromosomes do humans have

A

46 (23 pairs)

558
Q

baroreceptors

A

a subclass of mechanoreceptors located in the walls of blood vessels as well as the atrial ventricular walls of the right side of the heart (detect stretch - signaling changes in luminal pressure)

559
Q

Arachidonic Acid

  • what it is
  • what it is aprecursor for
A

an important precursor for the biosynthesis of the eicosanoid signaling molecues: prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes

560
Q

Catecholamines

A

A class of molecules derived from tyrosine

561
Q

Structure of formaldehyde

A

H2C = O

562
Q

Structure of Methanol

A

CH3OH

563
Q

What type of protein are most transmembrane proteins

A

glycoproteins

564
Q

Phospholipids

-what and where they are

A

located on the cell surface (don’t typically extend through the bilayer)
–are a structural component

565
Q

Glycolypids

-what they are and where they are

A

Located on the cell surface (don’t usually extend through entire bilayer)
-act to provide energy and also searve as markers for cellular recognition

566
Q

what is the largest amino acid and how large is it

A

tryptophan, 204 Da

567
Q

Types of synapses in parasympathetic nervous system (and why)

A

Primarily chemical synapses, because the response is not as fast as the fight-or-flight

568
Q

IF the structure of an inhibitor is different than the substrate, it is not likely a _____ inhibitor (and why)

A

NOT a competitive inhibitor - because if the structure is different, it probably isn’t binding to the same site

569
Q

siRNA

A

binds to other RNA strands and prevents them from being translated

570
Q

Results of Meiosis I

A

2 haploid cells, each with 23 chromosomes of 2 sister chromatids per chromosome

571
Q

result of meiosis vs. mitosis

A

Meiosis –> results in haploid cells

572
Q

X- and Y-intercept of Lineweaver-Burk Plot

A 
X-intercept = -1/Km. So if Km increases (due to a competitive inhibitor), the X-intercept will become closer to zero.
Y-intercept = 1/Vmax. So if Vmax decreases (due to a non-competitive inhibitor), 1/Vmax will increase, so the intercept will become further from zero
573
Q

Effect of competitive inhibitor on Lineweaver Burk Plot

A

X-intercept is closer to 0, Y-intercept is the same

574
Q

Effect of noncompetitive inhibitor on Lineweaver Burk Plot

A

X-intercept is same, Y-intercept is further from 0

575
Q

Nucleoside vs. Nucleotide

A

Both are a nitrogenos base + five carbon sugar
____
Nucleotide also has 1-3 phosphate groups

576
Q

What are the most common nucleosides and nucleotides

A

Nucleosides = cytidine, uridine, adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, inosine, etc.
_____
Nucleotides = IMP, GTP, etc.

577
Q

what is hypoxanthine

A

a nitrogenous base

578
Q

What germ layer is the nervous system derived from

A

ectoderm

579
Q

mesoderm gives rise to what structures

A

bone, cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, and tissues involved in the exretory and reporductive systems

580
Q

what are ribosomes made of

A

RNA

MCAT (14 decks)

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