Biology Final Flashcards

0
Q
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is...
A. A somatic cell of a female
B. A sperm
C. An egg
D. A zygote
E. A somatic cell of a male
A

B. A sperm

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1
Q

What is true concerning cancer cells?
A. They do not exhibit density dependent inhibition when growing in a culture.
B. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C. They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D. B and C only
E. A, B, and C

A

E. A, B, and C

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2
Q

Autosome

A

A chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

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3
Q
In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by proteins called...
A. The nuclear envelope
B. Spindle fibers
C. Centrioles
D. Cyclin
A

D. Cyclin

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4
Q

Downs Syndrome

A

3 #21 chromosomes

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5
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A

XXY, XXXY, etc

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6
Q

Jacob’s Syndrome

A

XYY

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7
Q

Trisomy

A

XXX

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8
Q

Turner’s Syndrome

A

Only X for the sex chromosome

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9
Q

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=16?
A. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell
B. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
C. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
D. During the S phase of the cell cycle, there will be 32 separate chromosomes

A

B. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs

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10
Q

If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, the research team would first see the radioactive thymine
A. In the replicated strands of DNA
B. In the telophase
C. In the non-dividing state of interphase
D. In metaphase

A

A. In the replicated strands of DNA

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11
Q

Cell reproduction in prokaryotic cells differs from eukaryotic cells in that

A

Each prokaryotic cell has a circular chromosome but the chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are linearly condensed into chromosomes

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12
Q

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of

A

The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.

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13
Q

Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know what has occurred

A

Crossing over

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14
Q

Chiasmata

A

The points of contact between paired chromatids during meiosis, resulting in a cross-shaped configuration and representing the cytological manifestation of crossing over.

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15
Q

Crossing over

A

Exchange of genes between homologous chromosomes

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16
Q

Sister chromatids

A

Corresponding legs of a chromosome that are bound by a centromere; identical

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17
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A

Chromosome pairs that code for the same trait but have different structures

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18
Q

Chromatin

A

Loosely bound DNA before coiling

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19
Q

Chromosomes

A

Are made of coiled DNA with two chromatids bound by a centromere after replication

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20
Q

Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can best be explained by

A

Environmental factors such as soil pH

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21
Q

Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have what property?

A

Sixteen different phenotypes

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22
Q

Two true breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers. All F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?

A

190

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23
Q

Trait

A

A variant for a character

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24
Q

Character

A

A heritable feature that varies among individuals

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25
Q

Gene

A

A heritable unit that determines a character and can exist in different forms

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26
Q

In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?

A

Thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane

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27
Q

During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?

A

Food to NADH to the ETC to oxygen

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28
Q
Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen is present or absent?
A. Chemiosmosis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation 
C. Electron transport
D. The citric acid cycle 
E. Glycolysis
A

E. Glycolysis

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29
Q

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a byproduct of which of the following?
A. The electron transfer system of photosystem 1
B. The electron transfer system of photosystem 2
C. Splitting of water molecules
D. Forming NADP+

A

C. Splitting of water molecules

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30
Q

A young animal has never had much energy. He is brought to a veterinarian for help and is sent to the animal hospital for some tests. They discover his mitochondria can only use fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. What is wrong?

A

His mitochondria lack the transport protein that moves pyruvate across the outer mitochondrial membrane.

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31
Q

After the second agitation of the membrane vesicles, what must be lost from the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

ATP synthase, in whole or in part

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32
Q

Have sexual spores found in a club shaped cell

A

Basidiomycota

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33
Q

Sexual spores found in sac-like structures

A

Ascomycota

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34
Q

Tough zygospore that can stay dormant for long periods of time

A

Zygomycota

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35
Q

Flagellated spores

A

Chytridomycota

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36
Q

What would happen if mosquitoes disappeared from the Plasmodium life cycle?

A

The Plasmodium life cycle would be interrupted and the infection could not be passed on.

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37
Q

Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P. bursaria?

A

A mix between autotroph and heterotroph

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38
Q

At which location is the mycelium currently absorbing the most nutrients and producing fruiting bodies?

A

At the outer line of the circle

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39
Q
Which type of fungi have a mutualistic relationship by breaking down nutrients for plants?
A. Parasitic fungi
B. None of the choices
C. Truffles
D. Lichen
A

B. None of the choices

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40
Q

Which of these are mutualistic partnerships that involves a protist and a host organism?
A. Cellulose digesting protists: wood eating termites
B. Zooxanthellae: coral reefs
C. Giardia: humans
D. All except C

A

D. All except C

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41
Q
Which of these structures are most likely to be a component of both Chytrid zoospores and motile animal cells?
A. Flagella
B. Haustoria
C. Pseudopods
D. Cilia
E. Pellicle
A

A. Flagella

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42
Q
The Ascomycetes get their name from which aspect of their life cycle?
A. The shape of their spore
B. The type of vegetative mycelium
C. Vegetative growth form
D. Sexual spores
E. Asexual spore production
A

D. Sexual spores

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43
Q

Paramecium

A

Ciliophora

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44
Q

Plasmodium

A

Sporozoa

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45
Q

Red algae

A

Rhodophyta

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46
Q

Brown algae

A

Phaeophyta

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47
Q

Common molds

A

Zygomycota

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48
Q

Club fungi

A

Basidiomycota

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49
Q

Spirogyra

A

Chlorophyta

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50
Q

Diatoms

A

Chrysophyta

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51
Q

Euglena

A

Euglenophyta

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52
Q

Volvox

A

Chlorophyta

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53
Q

Dinoflagellates

A

Pyrrophyta

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54
Q

What is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes a high mortality rate in its host?

A

The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal

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55
Q

If the vertical axis refers to Darwinian fitness then what is the most valid and accurate measure of fitness?

A

Number of generations per unit of time

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56
Q

If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently increasing the prevalence of the beneficial mutations in the population over the course of generations is

A

Binary fission

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57
Q

The thermoacidophile, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius, lacks peptidoglycan. What is likely true of this species?

A

Archaean, optimal pH of enzymes lies below 7, could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs

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58
Q

Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we place them in different taxa. What observation comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa well before relevant data from molecular systematics became available?

A

Their cell walls are composed of very different biochemicals

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59
Q

What is true about prokaryotes?

A

They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis

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60
Q

What molecule makes up the viral envelope?

A

Glycoproteins

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61
Q

The sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes associated with allergies are caused when

A

Mast cells release histamines

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62
Q

What differentiates T cells and B cells?

A

T cells but not B cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens

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63
Q

Which of the following might be a child with Bruton’s disease (underdeveloped B cells)?
A. John- immature T cells, missing CD4 receptors
B. Denise- low level of antibody response
C. Jeff- no plasma cells
D. Susan- no evidence of a thymus gland

A

C. Jeff- no plasma cells

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64
Q

Some viruses can undergo latency (dormancy), the ability to remain inactive for some period of time. Which of the following is an example?

A

Herpes simplex viruses whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional stress in the host

65
Q

When will helper T cells be activated?

A

When an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell

66
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide move across respiratory membranes by

A

Simple diffusion

67
Q

Why is double loop circulation better for larger, more active animals than single loop?

A

It is difficult for single pump to force blood through the entire system of a large animal

68
Q

What is the simplest form of a nervous system?

A

Nerve net

69
Q

True or False: mollusks have an open circulatory system where blood flows freely through open spaces called lacunae and sinuses.

A

True

70
Q

Chitin

A

A polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of crustaceans

71
Q

Carapace

A

Hard exoskeleton found in crustaceans

72
Q

Endoderm

A

Inner layer of the germ layers

73
Q

Karyotype

A

A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

74
Q

What takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?

A

Separation of sister chromatids

75
Q

What occurs in meiosis and not mitosis?

A

Synapsis

76
Q

Synapsis occurs during

A

Prophase 1

77
Q

Independent assortment occurs during

A

Metaphase 1

78
Q

True or false: the controls on cell division can be turned on and off

A

True

79
Q

Only _____ can cause genetic diversity in asexual reproduction.

A

Mutations

80
Q

There are _____ the number of centromeres as chromatids.

A

Half; example: 20 chromatids=10 centromeres

81
Q

After telophase 1, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

A

Haploid; two chromatids

82
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

When the chromosome pairs don’t separate during anaphase

83
Q

What results from nondisjunction during meiosis 1?

A

Two n+1 gametes and two n-1 gametes

84
Q

What results from nondisjunction in meiosis II?

A

Two normal, one n-1, and one n+1

85
Q

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?

A

To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled or breaking

86
Q

What happens during meiosis?

A

Reduction division, Synapsis, independent assortment, crossing over

87
Q

The daughter cells at the end of mitosis have ______ number of chromosomes and _______ amount of DNA as their parent cell during G1.

A

The same; the same

88
Q

Oncogenes

A

BAD

89
Q

Proto-oncogenes

A

GOOD

90
Q

Chromosomes form tetrads during

A

Prophase 1 of meiosis

91
Q

If a p53 is mutated, the cell will

A

Continue to divide

92
Q

P53 is like

A

The brake

93
Q

If spindle fibers are disrupted, cell cycle will stop at

A

Metaphase

94
Q

What could result in a tumor?

A

Over division of cells and lack of appropriate cell death

95
Q

Substitution

A

One base is changed to another

96
Q

Deletion

A

One base is deleted

97
Q

Insertion

A

One base is inserted

98
Q

Frameshift mutations

A

Result in all of the following codons being changed

99
Q

What fuses in middle of plant cell during cytokinesis?

A

Golgi apparatus vesicles

100
Q

______ wraps DNA into _______.

A

Histone; nucleosomes

101
Q

During what stage does coiling occur?

A

Prophase

102
Q

3:1 ratio suggests

A

Heterozygous parents

103
Q

Roan coats are an example of

A

Codominance

104
Q

To get 1 red: 2 roan: 1 white

A

Roan x roan

105
Q

A cross between individuals heterozygous for a single character

A

Mono hybrid cross

106
Q

A cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and homozygous recessive individual

A

Testcross

107
Q

ETC pumps H+ ions into

A

The mitochondrial intermembrane space

108
Q

What requires ATP?

A

Calvin Cycle

109
Q

What produces oxygen?

A

The light reactions

110
Q

Produces NADPH?

A

Light reactions

111
Q

Requires carbon dioxide?

A

Calvin Cycle

112
Q

Produces three carbon sugars

A

Calvin cycle

113
Q

Requires glucose

A

Neither the light dependent or Calvin cycle

114
Q

_____ carbons produced by each turn of the citric acid cycle.

A

2

115
Q

How much ATP is generated by each turn of the citric acid cycle?

A

1

116
Q

In cellular respiration, where are the proteins of the ETC located?

A

Mitochondrial inner membrane

117
Q

End products of glycolysis?

A

ATP, NADH, and pyruvate

118
Q

Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from what?

A

Chemiosmotic phosphorylation

119
Q

The splitting of carbon dioxide occurs

A

Never!! Neither in photosynthesis nor in respiration

120
Q

What occurs during Calvin cycle?

A

Regeneration of carbon dioxide acceptor, oxidation of NADPH, consumption of ATP, and carbon fixation

121
Q

Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved?

A

Found in cytosol, doesn’t involve oxygen, present in most organisms

122
Q

NADH makes _______ ATP

A

3

123
Q

FADH2 makes _______ ATP

A

2

124
Q

RNA and ATP are both

A

Nucleotides

125
Q

Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules while cellular respiration…

A

Releases it

126
Q

During cellular respiration, oxygen

A

Acts as a receptor for electrons and hydrogen

127
Q

1 molecule of glucose broken down during cellular respiration makes ______ ATP

A

36-38

128
Q

Krebs cycle occurs in

A

Mitochondrial matrix

129
Q

When yeast do through fermentation, _____ is produced.

A

Ethanol (alcohol)

130
Q

In photosynthesis, chemiosmosis translocates protons from

A

The stroma to the thylakoid space

131
Q

Carbon dioxide is released during

A

The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA

132
Q

Substrate level phosphorylation

A

Making ATP without ATP synthase

133
Q

Find photosystem II…

A

Test for liberation of oxygen in the light

134
Q

Trypanosoma and Plasmodium both

A

Can frequently change their surface proteins

135
Q

Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and

A

Cyanobacteria or green algae

136
Q

Fungi and Protists

A

Are eukaryotes

137
Q

Fungi and bacteria

A

Can both go through extracellular digestion

138
Q

Protists exchange genetic material during

A

Conjugation

139
Q

Sporozoans are

A

Parasitic

140
Q

_________ would benefit most if their fungi competitors died.

A

Prokaryotes

141
Q

Amoebas feed by

A

Phagocytosis

142
Q

Plasmodium is

A

A sessile organism

143
Q

Which Protists get nutrients from absorbing molecules from other organisms through their cell walls and membranes?

A

Water molds

144
Q

This phylum includes yeast and penicillin species

A

Ascomycota

145
Q

All fungi are

A

Heterotrophic eukaryotes

146
Q

Cytoplasmic projection

A

Pseudopod

147
Q

True or false: Yeast are multicellular fungi.

A

False; unicellular

148
Q

What is the basic structure of a virus?

A

DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat

149
Q

Photoautotrophs use

A

Light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source

150
Q

Can survive with oxygen or without oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobes

151
Q

Must have oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes

152
Q

Can’t be in the presence of oxygen

A

Obligate anaerobes

153
Q

What three characteristics classify prokaryotes?

A

Shape, movement, how they get energy

154
Q

Rabies

A

Example of zoonosis

155
Q

Which is an example of a vector and the disease it spreads?

A

The deer tick and Lyme disease

156
Q

The body’s most important nonspecific defense is

A

The skin

157
Q

HIV kills

A

Helper T cells

158
Q

Four types of animal tissue are

A

Nervous, epithelial, muscle, and connective

159
Q

What do scientists rely on to classify animals?

A

Embryological development and adult body plans for ALL animals

160
Q

A coelom is a body cavity completely lined with

A

Mesoderm