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Bio/Biochem > [Biology] Ch.2: Reproduction > Flashcards

[Biology] Ch.2: Reproduction Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference between the number of copies of chromosomes in autosomal and germ cells

A

Autosomal cells are diploid (2n), germ cells are haploid (n)

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2
Q

In humans what is the number of chromosomes in autosomal and germ cells

A

Autosomal = 46, germ = 23

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3
Q

Why might derangement of the cell cycle lead to the formation of cancer

A

It can lead to unchecked cell division

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4
Q

What are the four stages of the cell cycle for actively dividing cells

A

G1, S, G2, and M

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5
Q

Which stages of the cell cycle are known as interphase

A

G1, S, and G2

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6
Q

What types of cells spend time in G0

A

Cells that do not divide

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7
Q

What do cells do in G0

A

They just live and serve their function without preparation for division

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8
Q

What do cells do during the G1 phase (2 things)

A
  • Create organelles for energy and protein production (mitochondria, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum)
  • Increase their size
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9
Q

What do cells do during the S stage

A

Replicate genetic material so that each daughter cell will have identical copies

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10
Q

In the S phase a single chromatid replicates to form two [ 1 ]

A

Sister chromatids

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11
Q

What quality control checks are done in the G2 stage

A
  • Ensuring there is enough organelles and cytoplasm to divide between two daughter cells
  • Ensuring DNA replication proceeded correctly
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12
Q

The M stage consists of [ 1 ] and [ 2 ]

A

1) mitosis and 2) cytokinesis

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13
Q

What are the four phases of mitosis

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

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14
Q

What is cytokinesis

A

The splitting of the cytoplasm and organelles into two daughter cells

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15
Q

What is the p53 protein’s role in control of the cell cycle

A

It is the main protein responsible for putting the cell into arrest if there has been damage to DNA (the arrest lasts until the DNA has been repaired)

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16
Q

What are cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases

A

Molecules responsible for the cell cycle

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17
Q

Concentrations of the various [ 1 ] increase and decrease during [ 2 ] of the cell cycle

A

1) cyclins 2) various parts

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18
Q

What is the relationship between cyclins and CDKs

A

Cyclins bind to CDKs to form the CDK-cyclin complex that then goes on to phosphorylate transcription factors

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19
Q

[ 1 ] promote transcription of genes required for the next stage of the cell cycle

A

Transcription factors

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20
Q

One one of the most common mutations found in cancer is mutation of the gene that produces [ 1 ]

A

p53 (gene is TP53)

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21
Q

What types of cells undergo mitosis

A

Somatic cells (cells not involved in sexual reproduction)

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22
Q

What is the first step in prophase

A

The condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

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23
Q

In prophase, once centrioles migrate to opposite poles of the cell they begin to form [ 1 ] which are made of [ 2 ]

A

1) spindle fibers 2) microtubules

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24
Q

What happens to the nuclear membrane during prophase

A

It dissolves (allowing the spindle fibers to contact the chromosomes)

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25
Q

What are the kinetochores that appear on the centromeres

A

Protein structures that serve as an attachment point for specific fibers of the spindle apparatus (kinetochore fibers)

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26
Q

What happens during metaphase

A

Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (equatorial plate)

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27
Q

What happens during anaphase

A

Sister chromatids separate

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28
Q

Telophase is essentially [ 1 ]

A

The reverse of prophase

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29
Q

What happens during telophase (3 things)

A
  • The spindle apparatus disappears
  • Nuclear membrane reforms
  • Chromosomes uncoil
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30
Q

How many cell divisions can human somatic cells undergo before programmed cell death

A

Usually between 20 and 50

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31
Q

Meiosis consists of [ 1 ] round of replication followed by [ 2 ]

A

1) one 2) two rounds of division

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32
Q

What is the difference between meiosis I and II

A
  • Meiosis I results in homologous chromosomes being separated
  • Meiosis II results in separation of sister chromatids
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33
Q

Which meiosis is most similar to mitosis and why

A

Meiosis II because sister chromatids are being separated

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34
Q

What is the difference between homologous pairs and sister chromatids

A

Homologous pairs are considered separate chromosomes (you get one from mom and one from pop) but sister chromatids are exactly identical strands of DNA connected at the centromere

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35
Q

What is the major difference between prophase and prophase I

A

Homologous chromosomes come together and intertwine in a process called synopsis in prophase I

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36
Q

What process important to increasing genetic diversity occurs during prophase I

A

Genetic recombination

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37
Q

True or False: crossing over can occur between sister chromatids

A

False

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38
Q

What happens during metaphase I

A

Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate

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39
Q

What happens in anaphase I

A

Homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

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40
Q

At the end of telophase I, each chromosome still consists of [ 1 ] joined at the centromere

A

Two sister chromatids

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41
Q

What product is produced by completion of meiosis II

A

Up to four haploid daughter cells

42
Q

What are carriers

A

Females carrying a diseased allele on an X chromosome but not exhibiting the disease

43
Q

What does the SRY (sex-determining region Y) on the Y chromosome code for

A

A transcription factor that initiates testis differentiation (and thus formation of the male gonads)

44
Q

In the absence of the Y chromosome all zygotes will be [ 1 ] and in it’s presence a zygote will be [ 2 ]

A

1) female 2) male

45
Q

What are the two functional components of the testes

A

The seminiferous tubules and the interstitial cells (of Leydig)

46
Q

Sperm are produced in the highly coiled [ 1 ] where they are nourished by [ 2 ]

A

1) seminiferous tubules 2) Sertoli cells

47
Q

What do the cells of Leydig do

A

Secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones (androgens)

48
Q

Where are the testes located

A

In the scrotum (external pouch that hangs below the penis)

49
Q

What happens when sperm pass through the epididymis after they are formed

A

Their flagella gain motility and they are stored until ejaculation

50
Q

Seminal fluid is produced through a combined effort by the [ 1 ], [ 2 ], and [ 3 ]

A

1) seminal vesicles 2) prostate gland 3) bulbourethral gland

51
Q

What components of seminal fluid come from where

A
  • Fructose —> seminal vesicles
  • Mildly alkaline properties —> seminal vesicles and prostate gland
  • Clear viscous fluid that clears out urine and lubricates the urethra —> bulbourethral (cowper’s) gland
52
Q

What is spermatogenesis and where does it occur

A

Formation of haploid sperm through meiosis; occurs in the seminiferous tubules

53
Q

What are spermatogonia

A

Diploid stem cells in males

54
Q

Why is the midpiece of sperm filled with mitochondria

A

To generate the energy to be used as sperm swim to reach the ovum in the fallopian tubes

55
Q

Recite the mnemonic to remember the pathway of sperm through the reproductive system

A

SEVE(N) UP

  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Epididymis
  • Vas deferens
  • Ejaculatory duct
  • (Nothing)
  • Urethra
  • Penis
56
Q

Ovaries produce [ 1 ] and [ 2 ]

A

1) estrogen 2) progesterone

57
Q

What are ovarian follicles

A

Multilayered sacs that contain, nourish, and protect immature ova (eggs)

58
Q

One egg per month is ovulated into the [ 1 ] which lines the abdominal cavity. It is then drawn into the [ 2 ]

A

1) peritoneal sac 2) Fallopian tube / oviduct

59
Q

Why is the Fallopian tube lined with cilia

A

To propel the ova/egg forward

60
Q

The external female anatomy is known collectively as the [ 1 ]

A

Vulva

61
Q

True or False: by birth all of the oogonia have already undergone DNA replication and are considered primary oocytes

A

True

62
Q

One primary oocyte per month will complete [ 1 ] to produce a secondary oocyte and a polar body

A

Meiosis I

63
Q

Secondary oocytes are arrested in [ 1 ] and do not complete the remainder of meiosis II unless [ 2 ] occurs

A

1) metaphase II 2) fertilization

64
Q

What are the zona pellucida and the corona radiata

A

The two layers that surround oocytes

65
Q

What is the difference between the zona pellucida and the corona radiata

A
  • The zona pellucida surrounds the oocyte itself and is an acellular mixture of glycoproteins and compounds necessary for sperm cell binding
  • The corona radiata lies outside of the zona pellucida and is a layer of cells that adhered to the oocyte during ovulation
66
Q

What is the fate of polar bodies

A

They get broken down

67
Q

What is the relationship between the hypothalamus and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) prior to puberty

A

The hypothalamus restricts production of GnRH prior to puberty

68
Q

When the hypothalamus releases GnRH it triggers the [ 1 ] to synthesize and release [ 2 ] and [ 3 ]

A

1) anterior pituitary 2) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 2) luteinizing hormone (LH)

69
Q

When the hypothalamus releases GnRH it triggers the [ 1 ] to synthesize and release [ 2 ] and [ 3 ]

A

1) anterior pituitary 2) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 2) luteinizing hormone (LH)

70
Q

What do FSH and LH do

A

They trigger the production of other sex hormones that develop and maintain the reproductive system

71
Q

Where is testosterone produced

A

The testes

72
Q

For males testosterone increases dramatically during puberty and [ 1 ] begins

A

Sperm production

73
Q

Contrast the effects of FSH and LH on the male gonads

A
  • FSH stimulates Sertoli cells and triggers sperm maturation

- LH causes interstitial cells to produce testosterone

74
Q

Aside from developing and maintaining the reproductive system what does testosterone do

A

Results in the development of secondary sex characteristics

75
Q

What type of feedback does testosterone exert on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

A

Negative feedback

76
Q

Estrogens are secreted in response to [ 1 ]

A

FSH

77
Q

What do estrogens result in

A

The development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics

78
Q

What is estrogen’s role in the menstrual cycle

A

It leads to thickening of the lining of the uterus (the endometrium)

79
Q

What is the corpus luteum

A

The remnant follicle that remains after ovulation

80
Q

What does the corpus luteum do

A

It secretes progesterone in response to LH

81
Q

What is the relationship between progesterone and the endometrium

A

It it involved in development and maintenance of the endometrium (but not in the initial thickening of it)

82
Q

Can you develop and maintain an endometrium capable of supporting a zygote with only estrogen or progesterone

A

No. They are both needed

83
Q

What changes in progesterone secretion by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy

A

Progesterone is supplied by the placenta and the corpus luteum atrophies and ceases to function

84
Q

Recite the mnemonic to distinguish the role of estrogen and prgesterone

A

Estrogen established and progesterone protects the endometrium

85
Q

When does the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle begin

A

When the menstrual flow begins

86
Q

In the follicular phase [ 1 ] secretion from the hypothalamus increases in response to [ 2 ]

A

1) GnRH 2) decreased concentrations of estrogen and progesterone

87
Q

Increased [ 1 ] secretion causes increased secretion of [ 2 ] and [ 3 ]

A

1) GnRH 2) FSH 3) LH

88
Q

What happens immediately after FSH and LH levels increase

A

The follicles begin to produce estrogen which has a negative feedback effect and causes GnRH, LH, and FSH concentrations to level off

89
Q

What happens as follicles secrete higher and higher concentrations of estrogen late in the follicular phase

A

Estrogen concentrations reach a threshold that results in positive feedback and GnRH, LH, and FSH levels spike

90
Q

What is ovulation

A

The release of the ovum from the ovary into the abdominal cavity

91
Q

What induces ovulation

A

The spike in LH

92
Q

What happens in the luteal phase

A

LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone

93
Q

High levels of progesterone cause [ 1 ] feedback on [ 2 ], [ 3 ], and [ 4 ]

A

1) negative 2) GnRH 3) FSH 4) LH

94
Q

Why is negative feedback necessary in the luteal phase

A

To prevent the ovulation of multiple eggs

95
Q

What happens when implantation does not occur

A

The corpus luteum loses its stimulation from LH, progesterone levels decline, and the uterine lining is sloughed off

96
Q

If fertilization occurs the zygote will develop into a [ 1 ] that will implant into the uterine lining

A

1) blastocyst

97
Q

Why do blastocysts secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone

A

It is an analog of LH (similar chemically) and can stimulate LH receptors

98
Q

Why does hCG production decrease by the second trimester

A

The placenta has grown to a sufficient size to secrete progesterone and estrogen by itself (the high levels serve as negative feedback to prevent further GnRH secretion)

99
Q

As a woman ages her ovaries become less sensitive to [ 1 ] and [ 2 ], resulting in [ 3 ]

A

1) FSH 2) LH 3) ovarian atrophy

100
Q

Why does the endometrium atrophy as a woman ages

A

Estrogen and progesterone levels drop

101
Q

Why are low estrogen and progesterone levels relevant to menopause

A

The negative feedback control on FSH and LH is gone leading increase in the blood levels of the two hormones

Bio/Biochem (24 decks)

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