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HESI A2 > Biology and anatomy Online material > Flashcards

Biology and anatomy Online material Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term that describes how phopholipids each have a hydrophilic end and a hydrophopic end?

A

Amphipathic.

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2
Q

Which cellular structure is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondrion
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

ribosomes

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3
Q

How many possible codons are in mRNA?

A

64

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4
Q

How many nucleotides are in each codon and each anticodon?

A

3

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5
Q

How many nucleotides are found in DNA?

A

4

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6
Q

What is a reactant of photosynthesis, fixed to form glucose?

A

CO2

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7
Q

During photosynthesis, when is ATP made and what happens after it is made?

A

Made during the light reactions. Consumed during the Calvin cycle to fix CO2

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8
Q

What nucleotides are purines and what are pyrimidines?

A

Adenine and guanine (purines): (nine and nine = pure)
Cytosine and thymine (pyrimidines). There is a sign and a mine at the pyrimid.

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9
Q

How many carbon nitrogen ring bases do purines have and how many do pyridmidines have?

A

Purines have 2 carbon nitrogen ring bases (9 and 9)
Pyrmidines have 1: (a pyramid has only one base)

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10
Q

What is the basic structure of an amino acid?
A. An amine group, a carboxyl group, and a functional R-group
B. An amine group, a polar side chain, and a non-polar side chain
C An amide group, an alcohol group, and a function R-group
D. An amine group and an amide group

A

A. An amine group, carboxyl group and functional R-group

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11
Q

Amine portion of an amino acid is made up of what?

A

1 nitrogen and 3 hydrogen molecules

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12
Q

carboxyl (acidic) group of an amino acid is made up of what?

A

1 carbon and 2 oxygen molecules

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13
Q

Which organelle likely arose as a result of the endosymbiosis (a symbiotic organisms lives inside of another) of a bacterium inside of a primitive eukaryotic cell?
A. Vacuole
B. Nucleus
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondrion

A

D. Mitochondrion.
Mitochondrion and chloroplast likely arose through separate endosymbiotic events.
A bacteria symbiotically living inside of a primitive eukaryotic host cell become dependent on the hose and the host became dependent on the bacterium. They then became functionally dependent.

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14
Q

Which level of biological organization is the smallest unit that can evolve?
A. Cell
B. organism
C. Population
D. Community

A

C. population:
Cell and organism levels, genetic material is relatively fixed.
Within a population there is genetic variation between individuals = natural selection.
A community includes all of the living species in a particular habitat
Populations within a community may evolve and influence the evolution of each other.

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15
Q

List the levels of biological organization correctly ordered from smallest to largest.

A

Molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organism, population, community, ecosystem

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16
Q

What occurs in the light-independent (dark) reactions of photo synthesis?

A

CO2 is fixed into organic carbon during the Calvin cycle.
The Calvin cycle is the independent light reaction.

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17
Q

The Calvin cycle uses the ATP and NADPH made during the light reactions using what systems?

A

Photosystems I and II
This fuels the fixation of CO2 to make glucose during the Calvin cycle.

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18
Q

During which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

A

B. S phase (synthesis)

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19
Q

What phases are included in interphase?

A

G1: first gap
S: synthesis (DNA replication)
G2: second Gap

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20
Q

What is occurring during both G phases of eukaryotic cell division using meiosis?

A

The cell grows and copies the rest of its contents.

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21
Q

What is M phase?

A

mitotic phase

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22
Q

Consider the cell cycle. If a cell has 10 picograms of DNA during G2 phase, how much DNA does it have during G1 phase?

A

5 picograms. The DNA is being synthesized, therefor it doubles in size from G1 to G2

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23
Q

During which stage of meiosis does the separation of homologous chromosome pairs occur?

A

Anaphase I = 2 haploid cells. with each chromosome still being composed of sister chromatids.

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24
Q

At what stage of meisos are sister chromatids separated?

A

Anaphase II = 4 haploid cells with each chromosome being 1 double-stranded DNA molecule.

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25
Q

How many chromosomes do prokaryotes have?

A

1

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26
Q

How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?

A

22
1 pair of sex chromosomes
makes up a full chromosome (23)

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27
Q

—– refers to all of the DNA that a cell contains

A

Genome

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28
Q

—– refers to the genetic makeup of a cell (which alleles of various genes a cell has)

A

Genotype

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29
Q

—– is the group of genes inherited together from a single parent

A

haplotype

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30
Q

If two individual both having the genotype AaBb are crossed, what proportion of their offspring do you expect to have the dominant A phenotype combined with the recessive b phenotype?
A. 9/16
B. 1/4
C. 3/16
D. 1/16

A

Two individuals who both have the same genotype AaBb is a dihybrid cross.
9 would have AB
3 Abb
3 with aaB
1 with aabb

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31
Q

What term refers to 2 chromosomes that have the same genes in the same order but not necessarily the same alleles of each gene?

A

Homologous

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32
Q

A chromosome pair is composed of?

A

homologous chromosomes: one from each parent.

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33
Q

—– chromosomes are two chromosomes that are not members of the same chromosome pair

A

nonhomologous chromosomes

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34
Q

—- refers to an individual’s genotype having two copies of the same allele for a given gene

A

Homozygous

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35
Q

—– refers to an individual’s genotype having two different alleles for a given gene

A

Heterozygous

36
Q

Which type of atom is found in both proteins and nucleic acids, but not in fats or carbohydrates?
A. N
B. P
C. O
D. S

A

N.
All contain C, H, and O
Nucleic acid contain P atoms
Proteins contain S atoms.

37
Q

What bond is formed between the 5’ phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3’ OH group of the sugar on an adjacent nucleotide?

A

Covalent or phophodiester bond

38
Q

Which DNA sequence signlas the initiation of transcription?

A

Promoter: where RNA polymerase binds to DNA and begins using DNA as a template

39
Q

Where does DNA replication begin?

A

The location of DNA called the origin

40
Q

Where is the start codon located?

A

mRNA (3 nucleotide grouping) that signals start of translation

41
Q

——- is a short piece of nucleic acid (RNA) that is used during initiation of DNA replication by DNA polymerase to which to add nucleotides.

A

A primer

42
Q

Which level of protein structure refers to the association of the various subunits of a multi-subunited protein into a three-dimensional functional protein?

A

Quaternary

43
Q

——– of a protein refers to the identity and order of amino acids in a polypeptide strand

A

The primary structure: determined my DNA sequence of a gene

44
Q

——– refers to small localized fold or structures within a polypeptide due to hydrogen bonding of the polypeptide backbone.

A

Secondary structure

45
Q

——- refers to more extensive folding of a polypeptide due to chemical interactions between their side chains.

A

Tertiary structure.

46
Q

—– is a significant structural and catalytic component of ribosomes that does not contain any codons

A

rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

47
Q

Where are anticodons found?

A

tRNA

48
Q

Which enzyme complex is responsible for linking together nucleotides during the process of replication?

A

DNA polymerase

49
Q

What enzyme links together RNA nucleotides during the process of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase

50
Q

What makes a short RNA primer during replication, providing a 3’ OH group to which DNA polymerase can start adding DNA nucleotides to synthesize DNA?

A

Primase: each RNA primer is removed and replaced with DNA nucleotides

51
Q

What organelle in eukaryotic cell organizes and guides chromosomal movement during cellular reproduction?

A

Centriole

52
Q

Make up of triglycerides:

A

glycerol backbone with three fatty acid groups attached (carboxyl group) CO2H

53
Q

What other lipid has a carboxyl group besides triglycerides?

A

Phospholipids (CO2H)
one is replaced by a phosphate group (OPO3^2-)

54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding chemiosmosis in mitochandria is NOT correct?
A. ATP synthase is powered by protons flowing through membrane channels
B. Energy from ATP is used to transport protons to the intermembrane space
C. Energy from the electron transport chain is used to transport protons to the intermembrane space
D. An electrical gradient and a pH gradient both exist across the inner membrane

A

B. Energy from ATP is used to transport protons to the intermembrane space
Proteins in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion accept high energy electrons from NAD and FADH2, then transports protons from the matrix to the intermembrance space. High proton concentration in the intermemrance space creates a gradient, harnessed by ATP synthase to produce ATP

55
Q

Which chemicals are responsible for conveying an impulse along a nerve cell?
A. sodium and potassium
B. Calcium
C. Actin and myosin
D. Phosphorus

A

A sodium and potassium

56
Q

What type of genetic mutation occurs when a piece of DNA breaks off the chromosome and attaches to a different chromosome?
A. Nondisjuntion
B. Translocation
C. Deletion
D. Crossing over

A
57
Q

What is the purpose of capping the 5 ‘ mRNA strand?

A

To protect the end of the strand from degradation

58
Q

During what process does hydrolysis occur to provide electrons to chlorophyll, which subsequently absorbs energy?

A

Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis

59
Q

In photosynthesis, high-energy electrons move through the electron transport chains to produce ATP and NADPH. Which of the following provides the energy to create high energy electrons?
A. NADH
B. NADP+
C. water
D. light

A

D. light

60
Q

Which plant hormone causes fruit to ripen?
A. Auxins
B. Cytokinins
C. Ethylene
D. Abscisic acid

A
61
Q

What is the purpose of stigma?
A. To gather pollen
B. To attract pollinators like birds and bees
C. To nourish the fertilized ovum
D. To produce pollen

A
62
Q

Which of the following plants is most likely to perform CAM photosynthesis?
A. mosses
B. grasses
C. deciduous trees
D. Cacti

A

D. Cacti

63
Q

What are the first life forms to colonize a new area called?
A. Primary producers
B. Pioneer species
C. Primary consumers
D. Primary succession

A

B. Pioneer species

64
Q

Which of the following fibers is NOT found in the cytoskeleton?
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Glycoproteins
D. Intermediate filaments

A
65
Q

What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated/increased?

A

cardiac output
Blood pressure rises and goose bumps

66
Q

Which structure is located on the sternum

A

xiphoid process

67
Q

What epidermal derivative is involved in temperature homeostasis?

A

Sweat glands/ eccrine glands (merocrine glands)

68
Q

Aqueous humor is watery fluid in which part of the body?

A

‘Eye (in front of eye, between the lens and cornea)

69
Q

What stimulates chemoreceptors to function?

A

Rise in Co2 fall in O2

70
Q

Function of golgi apparatus?

A

packaging proteins for secretion and transports lipids around the cell
synthesizes carbs and glycoproteins

71
Q

Fertilization occurs in the?

A

fallopian tubes / oviduct

72
Q

When drawing blood from antecubital region, which blood vessel is used to obtain blood?

A

Median cubital

73
Q

Function of hypothalamus?

A

Thermoregulation
Balance

74
Q

Which muscle(s) is included in the quad femoris group?

A

Vastus lateralis
Vastus medialis
Vastus intermedius
Rectus femoris

75
Q

Which structure is responsible for normal respiratory function?

A

Medulla oblongata

76
Q

Client has a large pituitary tumor. What are the effects?

A

Low blood pressure
Sickness
Head hurting
Vision problems

77
Q

The tympanic membrane is located between which structures?

A

External auditory canal & middle ear

78
Q

Urinary system in the human body primary task is to?

A

Expel waste

79
Q

What bones are formed first during intramembranous ossification?

A

Flat bones of the skull, the mandible, and the clavicles

80
Q

Diffusion is:

A

Movement of molecules or particles along a concentration gradient, high to low concentration

81
Q

Fibrous joints are?

A

Stationary and held together by ligaments only

82
Q

Cartilaginous is?

A

Connection between articulating bones made up of cartilage

83
Q

Synovial joints are?

A

Freely mobile

84
Q

What is the eustachian tube?

A

Links the nasopharynx to the middle ear

85
Q

What parts of the respiratory system are in the lower respiratory?

A

bronchioles
alveolar ducts
alveoli

86
Q

The top of the sternum is called?

A

Manubrium

87
Q
A

HESI A2 (8 decks)

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