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HESI A2 > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

—– are imaginary lines used for reference

A

the body planes:

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2
Q

3 body planes:

A

median “sagittal” plane: cuts the body in half from head to toe with a left and right side “symmetrical”
coronal “frontal” plane: cuts the body in half making an anterior and posterior (from head to toe)
transverse: cuts the body in superior and inferior sections

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3
Q

—— is a real or imaginary cut made along a plane

A

A section

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4
Q

A cut along the median plane is a ——

A

sagittal section

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5
Q

A cut along the coronal plane is a —-

A

frontal section

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6
Q

A cut through the transverse plane is a

A

cross-section

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7
Q

Anatomic position terms:

A

superior (above)
inferior (below)
anterior (facing forward)
posterior (toward the back)
medial (toward the midline )
lateral (away from the midline or toward the sides)
Proximal (closer to the point of attachment)
distal ( farther away from the point of attachment)

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8
Q

Major body cavities are divided into two types of cavities:

A

Dorsal cavity
ventral cavity

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9
Q

Dorsal cavity includes:

A

cranial and spinal cavities

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10
Q

Ventral cavity includes

A

orbits and the nasal, oral, thoracic, and abdominopelvic cavities

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11
Q

What type of tissue is the framework of the body, providing support and structure for the organs?

A

Connective (most abundant tissue in the body)

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12
Q

Nerve tissue is composed of:

A

neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as neuroglia.

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13
Q

What type of cell division is necessary for growth and repair?

A

Mitosis
Diploid into two identical diploid cells

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14
Q

Where does meiosis take place?

A

Gonads: ovaries and testes

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15
Q

Skin consists of two layers:

A

epidermis and dermis

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16
Q

Composition of epidermis:

A

outermost protective layer made of dead, keratinized epithelial cells

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17
Q

Composition of the dermis:

A

underlying layer of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings, and associated skin structures. (hair follicles and glands)

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18
Q

The dermis rests on the subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to what?

A

superficial muscles

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19
Q

Layers of the epidermis from outer layer to inner layer

A

Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosa
Stratum germinativum (includes stratum basale and stratum spinosum) where mitosis occurs

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20
Q

Epidermal cells contain a protein that protects against radiation from the sun called:

A

melanin

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21
Q

Two types of sweat glands:

A

eccrine and apocrine

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22
Q

What is the most widely distributed glands?

A

Sweat glands (eccrine)

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23
Q

What do eccrine sweat glands do?

A

Regulate body temp. by releasing watery secretion that evaporates from the skin’s surface.

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24
Q

Where are apocrine glands found and what do they secrete?

A

Armpits and groin area: secretions contain bits of cytoplasm from secreting cells. The cell debris attract bacteria = body odor.

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25
Q

Sebaceous glands release an oily secretion (sebum) through where and what is it’s function?

A

Sebum is released through the hair follicles. lubricates skin and prevents drying

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26
Q

Sebum is produced by what type of secretion?

A

Holocrine secretion: whole cells of the gland are part of the secretion.

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27
Q

What are the appendages of the skin?

A

Hair and nails: composed of keratin.

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28
Q

Skeletal system consists of:

A

bones, cartilage, ligaments, and joints

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29
Q

Functions of the skeletal system: (7)

A

-support
-movement
-blood cell formation (hemopoiesis)
-protection of internal organs
-detoxification (removal of poisons)
-provision of muscle attachment
-mineral storage (calcium and phosphorus)

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30
Q

How are individual bones classified?

A

Shape

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31
Q

5 bone shapes:

A

Long
Short
Flat
Irregular
Sesamoid

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32
Q

Which bone shape has an irregular epiphysis at each end, composed mainly of spongy (cancellous) bone, and a shaft/diaphysis, composed mainly of compact bone

A

Long bone

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33
Q

What cells form compact bone?

A

osteoblasts

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34
Q

What happens when osteoblasts become fixed in the dense bone matrix?

A

They stop dividing but continue to maintain bone tissue as osteocytes.

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35
Q

The axial skeleton consists of what bones?

A

skull, vertebral column, twelve pairs of ribs, and sternum.

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36
Q

How many bones comprise the skull?

A
  1. 6 paired bones of the ear (ossicles)
    14 facial bones
    14 cranial vault bones
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37
Q

The facial bones include:

A

two nasal bones
two maxillary bones
two zygomatic bones
one mandible (only movable bone of the skull)
two palatine bones
one vomer
two lacrimal bones
two inferior nasal conchae

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38
Q

The bones of the cranium are:

A

single occipital
frontal
ethmoid
sphenoid
paired parietal
temporal
ossicles of the ear (malleus, incus, and stapes)

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39
Q

Vertebral column is divided into 5 sections:

A

7 cervical vertebra
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral (fuses to form the sacrum
coccygeal (tailbone)

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40
Q

Appendicular skeleton includes:

A

girdles and limbs

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41
Q

Upper portion of appendicular skeleton consists of:

A

pectoral or shoulder girdle
clavicle and scapula
upper extremety

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42
Q

What are the bones of the arm?

A

humerus, radius, ulna, carpals (wrist bones), metacarpals (hand bones), and phalanges (finger bones)

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43
Q

Lower portion of appendicular skeleton consists of:

A

pelvic girdle or os coxae
bones of lower extremity

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44
Q

Each of the os coxae consists of:

A

-a fused ilium
ischium
pubis

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45
Q

Bones of the lower extremity includes:

A

femur (thighbone)
tibia and fibula
tarsals (ankle bones)
metatarsals (bones of the foot)
phalanges (toes)

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46
Q

Muscles produce movement how?

A

by contracting in response to nervous stimulation

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47
Q

Muscle contraction results from the sliding together of?

A

actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber

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48
Q

Each muscle cell consists of:

A

myofibrils, made up of smaller units called sarcomeres.

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49
Q

What molecules must be present for muscles to contract?

A

Calcium
adensoine triphosphate (ATP

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50
Q

Nervous stimulation from motor neurons causes the release of calcium ions from where?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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51
Q

Calcium ions attach to what?

A

inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments within the cell.

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52
Q

What happens after calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and has attached to inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments within the cell?

A

Moves them aside so cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments. ATP is used to slide the filaments together to produce a contraction.

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53
Q

What is the bone that makes up the collar bone?

A

Clavicle

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54
Q

What is the bone that makes up the shoulder blades?

A

Scapula

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55
Q

Skeletal muscles must work in pairs. the muscle that executes a given movement is the —– whereas the muscle that produces the opposite movement is the ——

A

prime mover
antagonist

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56
Q

Other muscles known as —- may work in cooperation with the prime mover

A

synergists

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57
Q

Muscles can be classified according to the movements they elicit:

A

Flexors: reduce the angle at the joint
extensors: increase the angle at the joint
abductors: draw a limb away from the midline (aliens)
adductors: return the limb back toward the body

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58
Q

Nervous system consists of:

A

brain, spinal cord, and nerves

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59
Q

Examples of perception:

A

seeing, tasting, hearing, smelling, touching

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60
Q

What are the functional units of the nervous system?

A

Neurons/ nerve cells
System is dependent on them for transmission of nerve impulses

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61
Q

Parts of a neuron are:

A

cell body, axon, dendrites.

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62
Q

—– transmit the impulse toward the cell body

A

dendrites

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63
Q

—– transmit the impulses away from the cell body

A

axons

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64
Q

Nervous system divided structurally into:

A

Central nervous system (CNS)
Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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65
Q

CNS is comprised of:

A

spinal cord and brain

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66
Q

PNS is comprised of:

A

all neurons in the body.

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67
Q

Sensory (afferent) neurons transmit nerve impulses where?

A

toward the CNS

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68
Q

Motor (efferent) neurons transmit nerve impulses where?

A

Away from the CNS toward effector organs such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs

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69
Q

Major parts of the brain (3)

A

cerebrum (movement and sensory input)
cerebellum (muscular coordination)
medulla oblongata (vital functions such as respiration and heart rate)

70
Q

How long is the spinal cord and where does is extend from and to?

A

18 inches
extends from base of skull (foramen magnum) to L1 or L2.

71
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves exist within the spinal cord?

A

31

72
Q

What are simple (spinal) reflexes?

A

Those in which nerve impulses travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain.

73
Q

Most reflex pathways involve impulses that travels where?

A

To and from the brain in ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord.

74
Q

Where do sensory impulses enter?

A

The dorsal horns of the spinal cord

75
Q

Where do motor impulses leave through?

A

the ventral horns of the spinal cord

76
Q

Functions of the endocrine system:

A

-assists nervous system in homeostasis
-growth
-sexual maturation

77
Q

Where do the nervous system and the endocrine system meet?

A

Hypothalamus and pituitary gland.

78
Q

How is the hypothalamus controlled?

A

Feedback by hormones within the blood

79
Q

Hormones/ chemical messengers control what?

A

pituitary gland; growth; differentiation; metabolism of target cells

80
Q

two major groups of hormones:

A

steroid and nonsteroid

81
Q

Steroid hormones do what?

A

enter the target cells and have direct effect on the DNA in the nucleus.

82
Q

Some nonsteroid hormones are protein hormones, many of which act on a cell how?

A

They remain at the cell surface and act through a second messenger (adenosine monophosphate (AMP)).

83
Q

Most hormones affect cell activity by althering the rate of what?

A

protein synthesis

84
Q

What other organs produce hormones?

A

stomach, small intestine, kidneys, thyroid, gonads

85
Q

What does cortisol do and where is it released from?

A

reduces inflammation
raises blood sugar level
inhibits release of histamine

released from adrenal cortex

86
Q

Two parts of the pituitary gland:

A

Posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)
Anterior lobe (adenohypophysis)

87
Q

The pituitary gland is nicknamed what?

A

The master gland

88
Q

What attaches the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus?

A

Infundibulum: a stalk)

89
Q

Hormones of the adenohypophysis (anterior lobe) are called tropic hormones because they mainly act on other endocrine glands. They include the following:
FSALT: all hormones related to life

A

Somatotropin hormone (STH) or growth hormone (GH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)

90
Q

Hormones released from the neurohypophysis (posterior lobe of the pituitary): (2)

A

oxytocin (labor)
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

91
Q

Composition of whole blood?

A

55% plasma
45% formed elements

92
Q

What are the formed elements? (3)

A

erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets

93
Q

Where are all the formed elements of the blood produced?

A

Stem cells in red bone marrow

94
Q

What is oxygen bound to in the blood?

A

Pigmented protein hemoglobin in erythrocytes

95
Q

How are leukocytes distinguished?

A

size, appearance of nucleus, staining properties, and presence/absence of visible cytoplasmic granules

96
Q

White cells active in phagocytosis (2)

A

neutrophils and monocytes

97
Q

White blood cells active in antibody formation

A

lymphocytes

98
Q

Composition of plasma:

A

10% proteins, ions, nutriens, waste produce and hormones
all disolved in suspended water

99
Q

The heart is a double pump that sends blood to the lungs for oxygenation the the what?

A

pulmonary circuit

100
Q

The heart sends blood to the rest of the body through what circuit?

A

Systemic circuit

101
Q

Where is blood received in the heart and where does it go?

A

Atria to ventricle to artery

102
Q

Valves between the atria and ventricles includes:

A

tricuspid (right side) (try to do what is right)
Bicuspid on the left: By cussing you are listening to the left sided “angel”

103
Q

Where are semilunar valves found?

A

at the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and the aorta. Blood leaves through the moon

104
Q

Blood is supplied to the hear muscle (myocardium) by what?

A

Coronary arteries.

105
Q

Blood drains from the myocardium directly into the right atrium through what?

A

The coronary sinus

106
Q

The heart has an intrinsic beat initiated by what?

A

sinoatrial node, which is transmitted along a conduction system through the myocardium; what’s measured on an electrocardiogram (ECG)

107
Q

——- is the period from the end of one ventricular contraction to the end of the next ventricular contraction

A

cardiac cycle

108
Q

Vascular system is composed of:

A

arteries, veins and capillaries.

109
Q

Which of the vessels has thinner and less elastic walls?

A

Veins, arteries have the thickest and most elastic.
Veins carry blood under low pressure

110
Q

ECG do not represent systole and diastole of the heart chambers but represent what?

A

Electrical activity that precedes the contraction-relaxation events of the myocardium. It is the gun fired (action potential) passing over the muscle cells that signals contraction

111
Q

Components of the respiratory system:

A

nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs with alveoli, diaphragm, and muscles surrounding ribs.

112
Q

Respiration is controlled by what in the brain?

A

The respiratory control center in the medulla of the brain

113
Q

—— refers to the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli

A

external respiration

114
Q

—– refers to the exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells

A

internal respiration

115
Q

Where are the passageways that conduct gases to and from the lungs?

A

passageways between the nasal cavities and the alveoli

116
Q

What are the functions of the upper passageways of the respiratory system?

A

-warm, filter, and moisten incoming air.

117
Q

Inhalation requires contraction of the diaphrgam which does what?

A

Enlarges the thoracic cavity and draws air into the lungs.

118
Q

Exhalation is a passive process during which what occurs?

A

The lungs recoil as respiratory muscles relax and the thorax decreases in size

119
Q

When is oxygen released from hemoglobin

A

As the concentration of oxygen drops in the tissues.

120
Q

What happens to carbon dioxide?

A

Some is carried in solution or bound to blood proteins, but most is converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells.

121
Q

Carbon dioxide, when converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells releases hydrogen ions, therefor carbon dioxide is what?

A

A regulator of blood pH

122
Q

—— is the digestive tube

A

Alimentary canal

123
Q

What does the alimentary canal consist of?

A

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus

124
Q

What are the accessory organs of the digestive system?

A

Liver, pancreas and gallbladder

125
Q

How many salivary glands exist in the mouth?

A

3

126
Q

What forces the bolus into the upper portion of the esophagus?

A

constrictive muscles of the pharynx

127
Q

Digestive tract has four main layers from innermost to outermost:

A

mucous membrane
submucous layer
muscular layer
serous layer

128
Q

What does the pancreas contribute to the small intestine to aid in acid neutralization?

A

water to dilute chyme
bicarbonate ions to neutralize acid from stomach

129
Q

Most of the fats are absorbed into the lymphy by what?

A

lacteals

130
Q

Small fingerlike projections called —- greatly increase the surface area of the intestinal wall

A

villi

131
Q

Order of large intestine:

A

cecum> ascending colon> transverse colon> descending colon> sigmoid colon> rectum> anus (opening for defecation of expelling stool)

132
Q

Physical break down of food in the mouth is called

A

mastication

133
Q

What do the physical breakdown of food in the mouth and stomach do for digestion?

A

Increases surface area of food to be broken down by enzymes

134
Q

Urinary system consists of:

A

two kidneys; two ureters; urinary bladder; urethra

135
Q

Functional units of the kidneys are:

A

nephrons

136
Q

Nephrons are small coiled tubes that filter waste materials out of the blood brought to the kidney by the?

A

renal artery.

137
Q

Where does the filtration process occur?

A

The glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule of the nephron

138
Q

What components are reabsorbed in the nephron by diffusion, thereby reentering the blood

A

water, glucose, ions

139
Q

Where is water reabosrbed?

A

The tubules of the nephron

140
Q

Central role of the kidneys

A

Serve as regulators of our internal environment.

141
Q

Where do most chemical exchanges with blood occur?

A

in the kidneys

142
Q

Two functions of the gonads:

A

production of gametes (sex cells) and production of hormones

143
Q

What controls function of the gonads?

A

Tropic hormones from the pituitary gland (anterior lobe)

144
Q

Where do spermatozoa develop?

A

Within the seminiferous tubules of each testis.

145
Q

What cells produce testosterone and where are they located?

A

The interstitial cells between the seminiferous tubules.

146
Q

What does testosterone do?

A

influences sperm cell development and produces male secondary sex characterists

147
Q

One sperm are matured, where are they stored?

A

Epididymis

148
Q

What is the ejaculation pathways

A

vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra.

149
Q

Along the ejaculatory pathway are glands that produce the transport medium or semen. This includes:

A

seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands.

150
Q

What two anterior pituitary hormones controls testicular activity?

A

FSH: sperm production
Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) or LH stimulates interstitial cells to produce testosterone

151
Q

What does FSH do for women?

A

causes eggs to mature within the ovarian follicles in the ovary

152
Q

What does estrogen do and where is it produced

A

initiates preparation of endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy
produced by the ovarian follicle

153
Q

What occurs at approximately day 14 of the menstration cycle?

A

Surge of LH is released from anterior pituitary which stimulates ovulation and conversion of follicle to corpus luteum.

154
Q

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

A

Progesterone and estrogen- stimulates development of endometrium.

155
Q

Corpus luteum has two fates:

A

Remain functional if pregnancy occurs
Degenerates if it doesn’t occur and menstruation begins.

156
Q

What forms the placenta?

A

maternal and embryonic tissues

157
Q

What maintains the endometrium during pregnancy?

A

Hormones from the placenta; also prepares mammary glands for breast milk production

158
Q

If you wanted to separate the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity, which plane would you use?
A. Sagittal
B. Transverse
C. Frontal
D. Coronal

A

Transverse
Thoracic is the ribs
abdominal is the abdomen

159
Q

The epidermis is classified as a(n):
A. Cell
B. Tissue
C. Organ
D. System

A

B. Tissue

160
Q

What is the role of progesterone in the female reproductive system?
A. stimulates ovulation
B. Conversion of the follicle to the corpus luteum
C. stimulates the development of the endometrium
D. Stimulates the start of menstruation

A

C. Stimulates the development of the endometrium

160
Q

Which of the following epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function?
A. Simple squamous epithelium - secretion or absorption
B. Stratified squamous epithelium -changes shape when stretched
C. stratified squamous epithelium - diffusion
D. simple columnar epithelium- secretion or absorption

A

D. Simple columnar epithelium- secretion or absorption

161
Q

Which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy?
A. FSH
B. Estrogen
C. LH
D. Progesterone

A

B. Estrogen

162
Q

Blood vessels enter and exit bones through:
A. Foramina
B. Facets
C. Fovea
D. fossa

A

A. Foramina: allows cranial nerves, arteries, and veins to pass through solid structures

163
Q

What type of bone is the sternum?

A

Flat

164
Q

Examples of irregular bones:

A

vertebrae and sacrum

165
Q

Examples of sesamoid bones:

A

patella, 4 in each hand, 2 in each foot

166
Q

Describe the functions of osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.

A

Osteogenic cells are undifferentiated progenitor cells that undergo mitosis to make new cells. They differentiate into osteoblasts.
Osteoblasts makes and secretes collagen and calcium salts that then calcifies into bone tissue, trapping the osteoblast.
Osteocyte is an osteoblast that has differentiated once trapped within the ostium.
Osteoclasts breaks down bone to be reabsorbed by the body as calcium.

167
Q

Which chemicals are responsible for conveying an impulse along a nerve cell?
A. sodium and potassium
B. calcium
C. actin and myosin
D. phosphorus

A

A. sodium and potassium
The ions move in and out of the cell to generate an action potential to convey the impulse.

168
Q

What occurs once an impulse reaches the end of a neuron?

A

Calcium channels open to allow calcium to rush into the synaptic space.

169
Q

Which of the following fibers is NOT found in the cytoskeleton?
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Glycoproteins
D. Intermediate filaments

A

C. Glycoproteins

Microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments are all types of fibrous proteins that are found in the cytoskeleton and provides structural support
They also assist in the transport of materials and aid in cell motility.

HESI A2 (8 decks)

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