Biology 30-1 Flashcards

1
Q

Central Nervous System (CNS)

A

The body’s coordinating centre for mechanical and chemical actions; made up of the brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

A

All parts of the nervous system, excluding brain and spinal cord, that relay information between the central nervous system and other parts of the body.

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3
Q

Glial cell

A

Nonconducting cell important for structural support and metabolism of the nerve cells

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4
Q

Neuron

A

Nerve cell that conducts nerve impulses

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5
Q

Dendrite

A

Projection of cytoplasm that carried impulses toward the cell body

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6
Q

Axon

A

Extension of cytoplasm that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body

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7
Q

Myelin sheath

A

Insulated covering over the axon of a nerve cell

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8
Q

Schwann cell

A

Special type of glial cell that produces the myelin sheath

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9
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Regularly occurring gaps between sections of myelin sheath along the axon

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10
Q

Neurilemma

A

Delicate membrane that surrounds the axon of some nerve cells

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11
Q

Sensory neuron

A

Neuron that carries impulses to the central nervous system; also known as afferent neuron

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12
Q

Sensory receptor

A

Highly modified dendrites of a sensory neuron that are activated by an environmental stimulus

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13
Q

Ganglion

A

Collections of nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system

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14
Q

Interneuron

A

A neuron of the central nervous system that connects with sensory, motor, and other interneurons to integrate sensory input with motor output; also known as association neuron

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15
Q

Motor neuron

A

Neuron that carries impulses from the central nervous system to an effector; also known as efferent neuron

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16
Q

Effector

A

A cell or organ that produces a physiological response when stimulated by a nerve impulse.

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17
Q

Reflex arc

A

Neural circuit through the spinal cord that provides a framework for a reflex action

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18
Q

Action potential

A

The voltage difference across a nerve cell membrane when the nerve is excited

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19
Q

Resting potential

A

Voltage difference across a nerve cell membrane when it is not transmitting a nerve impulse (usually negative)

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20
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Transport of substances across cell membrane down a concentration gradient by a carrier in the membrane; does not use energy

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21
Q

Gated ion channel

A

A pore in the cell membrane that allows ioins to move in and out of the cell by opening and closing

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22
Q

Sodium-potassium pump

A

A transporter in the cell membrane that moves potassium ions into the cytoplasm while simultaneously removing sodium ions from the cytoplasm to the extracellular fluid

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23
Q

Active transport

A

Movement of substances across cell membranes that uses energy; often moves substances against a concentration gradient

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24
Q

Polarized membrane

A

Membrane charged by unequal distribution of positively charged ions inside and outside the nerve cell

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25
Q

Depolarization

A

Diffusion of sodium ions into the nerve cell resulting in a charge reversal

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26
Q

Repolarization

A

Process of restoring the original polarity of the nerve membrane

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27
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

Condition in which the inside of the nerve cell membrane has a greater negative charge than the resting membrane; caused by excessive diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell

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28
Q

Refractory period

A

Recovery time required before a neuron can produce another action potential

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29
Q

Saltatory Conduction

A

Generation of action potentials only at nodes of Ranvier in myelinated axons, resulting in rapid transmission of nerve impulses

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30
Q

Threshold level

A

Minimum level of stimulus required to produce a response

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31
Q

All-or-none response

A

A nerve or muscle fibre responds completely or not at all to a stimulus

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32
Q

Synapse

A

A region between neurons, or between neurons and effectors; also known as the synaptic cleft

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33
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

Chemical messenger released by the presynaptic neuron that binds to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron

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34
Q

Presynaptic neuron

A

Neuron that carries impulses to the synapse

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35
Q

Postsynaptic neuron

A

Neuron that carries impulses away from the synapse

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36
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Neurotransmitter released from vesicles in the end plates of neurons, which makes the postsynaptic membranes more permeable to Na+ ions

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37
Q

Cholinesterase

A

Enzyme, which breaks down acetylcholine, that is released from presynaptic membranes in the end plates of neurons shortly after acetylcholine

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38
Q

Summation

A

Effect produced by the accumulation of neurotransmitters from two or more neurons

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39
Q

Meninges

A

Protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord

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40
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid

A

Cushioning fluid that circulates between the innermost and middle membranes of the brain and spinal cord; it provides a connection between neural and endocrine systems

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41
Q

Cerebrum

A

Largest and most highly developed part of the human brain, which stores sensory information and initiates voluntary motor activities

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42
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

Outer layer of the cerebral hemispheres

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43
Q

Corpus callosum

A

Nerve tract that joins the two cerebral hemispheres

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44
Q

Thalamus

A

Area of brain that coordinates and interprets sensory information and directs it to the cerebrum

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45
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Area of the brain that coordinates many nerve and hormone functions

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46
Q

Olfactory bulb

A

Area of the brain that processes information about smell; one bulb in each hemisphere

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47
Q

Cerebellum

A

Part of the hindbrain that controls limb movements, balance, and muscle tone

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48
Q

Pons

A

Region of the brain that acts as a realy station by sending nerve messages between the cerebellum and the medulla

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49
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

Region of the hindbrain that joins the spinal cord to the cerebellum; one of the most important sites of autonomic nerve control

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50
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Nerve cells of the autonomic nervous system that prepare the body for stress

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51
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Nerve cells of the autonomic nervous system that return the body to normal resting levels after adjustments to stress

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52
Q

Vagus nerve

A

Major cranial nerve that is part of the parasympathetic nervous system

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53
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

Occurs once you have adjusted to a change in the environment; sensory receptors become less sensitive when stimulated repeatedly

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54
Q

Sclera

A

Outer covering of the eye that supports and protects the eye’s inner layers; usually referred to as the white of the eye

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55
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent part of the sclera that protects the eye and refracts light toward the pupil of the eye

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56
Q

Aqueous humour

A

Watery liquid that protects the lens of the eye and supplies the cornea with nutrients

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57
Q

Choroid layer

A

Middle layer of tissue in the eye that contains blood vessels that nourish the retina

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58
Q

Iris

A

Opaque disk of tissue surrounding the pupil that regulates amount of light entering the eye

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59
Q

Retina

A

Innermost layer of tissue at the back of the eye containing photoreceptors

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60
Q

Rods

A

Photoreceptors that operate in dim light to detect light in black and white

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61
Q

Cones

A

Photoreceptors that operate in bright light to identify colour

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62
Q

Fovea Centralis

A

Area at centre of retina where cones are most dense and vision is sharpest

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63
Q

Rhodopsin

A

The pigment found in the rods of the eye

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64
Q

Accommodation

A

Adjustments made by the lens and pupil of the eye for near and distant objects

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65
Q

Glaucoma

A

Disease of the eye in which increased pressure within the eyeball causes a gradual loss of sight

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66
Q

Cataract

A

Condition that occurs when the lens or cornea becomes opaque, preventing light from passing through

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67
Q

Astigmatism

A

Vision defect caused by abnormal curvature of surface of the lens or cornea

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68
Q

Nearsightedness

A

Condition that occurs when the image is focused in front of the retina

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69
Q

Farsightedness

A

Condition that occurs when the image is focused behind the retina

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70
Q

Pinna

A

Outer part of the ear that acts like a funnel, taking sound from a large area and channeling it into a small canal

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71
Q

Auditory canal

A

Carries sound waves to the eardrum

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72
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

Thin layer of tissue that receives sound vibrations, also known as the eardrum

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73
Q

Ossicles

A

Tiny bones that amplify and carry sound in the middle ear

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74
Q

Oval window

A

Oval-shaped hole in the vestibule of the inner ear, covered by a thin layer of tissue

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75
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Air-filled tube of the middle ear that equalizes pressure between the external and internal ear

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76
Q

Vestibule

A

Chamber found at the base of the semicircular canals that provides information about static equilibrium

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77
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Fluid-filled structures within the inner ear that provide information about dynamic equilibrium

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78
Q

Cochlea

A

Coiled structure of the inner ear that responds to various sound waves and converts them into nerve impulses

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79
Q

Organ of Corti

A

Primary sound receptor in the cochlea

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80
Q

Basilar membrane

A

Anchors the receptor hair cells in the organ of Corti

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81
Q

Dynamic equilibrium

A

Describes any system with constant change in which the components can adjust to the changes without disturbing the entire system

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82
Q

Homeostasis

A

The process by which a constant internal environment is maintained despite changes in the environment

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83
Q

Dynamic equilibrium

A

A state of stability within fluctuating limits

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84
Q

Negative feedback

A

The process by which a mechanism is activated to restore conditions to their original state

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85
Q

Positive feedback

A

The process by which a small effect is amplified

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86
Q

Hormones

A

Chemicals released by cells that affect cells in other parts of the body

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87
Q

Endocrine hormones

A

Chemicals secreted by endocrine glands directly into the blood

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88
Q

Insulin

A

Hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas; insulin is secreted when blood sugar levels are high

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89
Q

Human growth hormone (hGH)

A

Hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates growth of the body; also known as somatotropin (STH)

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90
Q

Epinephrine

A

AKA Adrenaline
Hormone, produced in the adrenal medulla that accelerates heart rate and body reactions during a crisis (Fight or flight)

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91
Q

Islets of Langerhans

A

Hormone-producing cells of the pancreas; these cells are part of the endocrine system

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92
Q

Glucagon

A

Hormone produced by the pancreas; when blood sugar levels are low, glucagon promotes conversion of glycogen to glucose

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93
Q

Diabetes

A

Chronic disease in which the body cannot produce any insulin or enough insulin, or is unable to use properly the insulin it does make

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94
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

Found at the core of the adrenal gland, produces epinephrine and norepinephrine

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95
Q

Adrenal cortex

A

Outer region of the adrenal gland that produces glucocoticoids and mineralocorticoids

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96
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Also known as noradrenaline, it initiates the fight-or-flight response by increasing heart rate and blood sugar

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97
Q

Glucocorticoid

A

Any of the steroids produced by the adrenal cortex that help to regulate electrolyte and water balance

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98
Q

Mineralocorticoid

A

Any of the steroids produced by the adrenal cortex that regulate carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism and inhibit the release of corticotrophin

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99
Q

Sex hormone

A

Any hormone that affects the development and growth of sex organs

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100
Q

Cortisol

A

Hormone that stimulates the conversion of amino acids to glucose by the liver

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101
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

Pituitary hormone that promotes cortisol release by the adrenal cortex; also called corticotopin

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102
Q

Tropic hormone

A

Hormone that stimulates a specific target gland to secrete other hormones

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103
Q

Aldosterone

A

Hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that helps regulate water balance by increasing sodium retention and water reabsorption by the kidneys

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104
Q

Thyroxine (T4)

A

Hormone produced by the thyroid gland that increases metabolism and regulates growth

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105
Q

Triiodothyronine (T3)

A

Hormone produced by the thyroid gland that increases metabolism and regulates growth; contains three iodine atoms

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106
Q

Calcitonin

A

Hormone produced by the thyroid gland that lowers calcium levels in the blood

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107
Q

Thyroid gland

A

A two-lobed gland at the base of the neck that regulates metabolic processes

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108
Q

Parathyroid glands

A

Four pea-sized glands in the thyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone to regulate blood calcium and phosphate levels

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109
Q

Goiter

A

Disorder that causes an enlargement of the thyroid gland

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110
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

Hormone produced by the parathyroid glands, which will increase calcium levels in the blood and lower the levels of phosphates

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111
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

A hormone that causes the kidneys to increase water reabsorption

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112
Q

Osmoreceptors

A

Sensory receptors in the hypothalamus that detect changes in the osmotic pressure of the blood and surrounding extracellular fluids (ECF)

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113
Q

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

A

A functional unit near a kidney glomerulus that controls renin release in response to changes in blood pressure

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114
Q

Prostaglandins

A

A group of hormones that act on the cells that produce them in response to cell damage; produced by most cells

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115
Q

Anabolic steroids

A

Substances that are designed to mimic many of the muscle-building traits of the sex hormone testosterone

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116
Q

Testes

A

The male gonads, or primary reproductive organs; male sex hormones and sperm are produced in the testes

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117
Q

Ovary

A

The female gonad, or reproductive organ; female sex hormones and egg cells are produced in the ovary

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118
Q

Fertilization

A

Fusion of a male and female sex cell

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119
Q

Zygote

A

The cell resulting from the union of a male and female sex cell

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120
Q

Embryo

A

The early stages of an animals development

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121
Q

Fetus

A

The later stages of an unborn offspring’s development

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122
Q

Scrotum

A

The sac that contains the testes

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123
Q

Vas deferens

A

Tube that conducts sperm toward the urethra

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124
Q

Ejaculatory duct

A

A tubule formed at the union of the vasa deferentia and the seminal vesicle ducts and opening into the urethra

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125
Q

Semen (seminal fluid)

A

A secretion of the male reproductive organs that is composed of sperm and fluids

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126
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

Coiled ducts found within the testes, where immature sperm cells divide and differentiate

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127
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

Process by which spermatogonia divide and differentiate into mature sperm cells

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128
Q

Spermatogonia

A

Sperm-producing cells found in the seminiferous tubules

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129
Q

Spermatocyte

A

A cell that arises from division of spermatogonia during spermatogenesis

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130
Q

Spermatid

A

An immature sperm cell that arises from a division of a spermatocyte

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131
Q

Somatic cell

A

Any cell in a multicellular organism that is not a reproductive cell

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132
Q

Sertoli cell

A

A cell that provides metabolic and mechanical support to developing sperm cells

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133
Q

Epididymis

A

Structure located along the posterior border of the testis, consisting of coiled tubules that store sperm cells

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134
Q

Acrosome

A

The cap found on sperm cells, containing enzymes that permit the sperm cell to move through the outer layers that surround the egg

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135
Q

Seminal fluid

A

The fluid part of the semen, which is secreted by three glands

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136
Q

Seminal vesicle

A

Structure that contributes to the seminal fluid (semen), a secretion that contains fructose and prostaglandins

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137
Q

Prostate gland

A

Structure that contributes to the seminal fluid (semen), a secretion containing buffers that protect sperm cells from the acidic environment of the vagina

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138
Q

Coepwer’s (bulbourethral) gland

A

Structure that contributes a mucus-rich fluid to the seminal fluid (semen)

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139
Q

Primary sexual characteristics

A

Physical characteristics of an organism that are directly involved in reproduction

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140
Q

Secondary sexual characteristics

A

External features of an organism that are indicative of its gender, but are not reproductive organs themselves

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141
Q

Testosterone

A

Male sex hormone produced by the interstitial cells of the testes

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142
Q

Interstitial cells

A

Cells found in the testes surrounding the seminiferous tubules that secrete testosterone

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143
Q

Gonadotropic hormones (gonadotropins)

A

Hormones produced by the pituitary gland that regulate the functions of the testes in males and the ovaries in females

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144
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

In males, hormones that increases sperm production

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145
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

In males, hormone that regulates the production of testosterone

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146
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

Chemical messenger from the hypothalamus that stimulates secretions of FSH and LH from the pituitary

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147
Q

Inhibin

A

A hormone produced by the Sertoli cells that inhibits production of FSH

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148
Q

Ovum (plural ova)

A

Egg cell

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149
Q

Oocyte

A

An immature ovum

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150
Q

Uterus (womb)

A

The hollow, pear-shaped organ located between the bladder and the anus in females

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151
Q

Endometrium

A

The glandular inner lining of the uterus

152
Q

Fallopian tube (oviduct)

A

One of the two tubes that connect the ovaries to the uterus

153
Q

Fibrium (plural fibria)

A

A fingerlike projection at the end of a Fallopian tube

154
Q

Vagina

A

The muscular canal extending from the cervix to the outer environment; the birth canal

155
Q

Cervix

A

A muscular band that separates the vagina from the uterus

156
Q

Oogenesis

A

The formation and development of mature ova

157
Q

Follicle

A

Structure in the ovary that contains the oocyte

158
Q

Granulosa

A

The layer of small cells that forms the wall of a follicle

159
Q

Ovulation

A

Release of the secondary oocyte from the follicle held within the ovary

160
Q

Corpus luteum

A

A mass of follicle cells that forms within the ovary after ovulation; secretes estrogen and progesterone

161
Q

Menstruation (flow phase)

A

The shedding of the endometrium during the menstrual cycle

162
Q

Follicular phase

A

Phase marked by the development of ovarian follicles before ovulation

163
Q

Estrogen

A

Hormone that activates development of female secondary sex characteristics, and increased thickening of the endometrium during the menstrual cycle

164
Q

Ovulatory phase

A

Phase in which ovulation occurs

165
Q

Luteal phase

A

Phase of the menstrual cycle characterized by the formation of the corpus luteum following ovulation

166
Q

Progesterone

A

Hormone produced primarily by the corpus luteum, that induces changes in the endometrium during the menstrual cycle

167
Q

Menopause

A

The termination of the female reproductive years

168
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

In females, a gonadotropin that promotes the development of the follicles in the ovary

169
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

In females, a gonadotropin that promotes ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum

170
Q

Cleavage

A

Cell division of a zygote, in which the number of cells increases without any change in the size of the zygote

171
Q

Blastocyst

A

An early stage of embryo development

172
Q

Implantation

A

The attachment of the embryo to the endometrium

173
Q

Chorion

A

The outer extraembryonic structure of a developing embryo that will contribute to the placenta

174
Q

Amnion

A

A fluid-filled extraembryonic structure

175
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone (hCH

A

An embryonic hormone that maintains the corpus luteum

176
Q

Amniotic cavity

A

The fluid-filled cavity surrounding the developing embryo

177
Q

Extraembryonic coelom

A

Body cavity between the amnion and the chorion

178
Q

Yolk sac

A

A membranous sac that forms during embryo development of most vertebrates; in humans, it does not contain yolk

179
Q

Placenta

A

The site for the exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and fetus

180
Q

Chorionic villi

A

Vascular projections of the chorion

181
Q

Allantois

A

Extraembryonic structure that contributes to the blood vessels of the placenta

182
Q

Umbilical cord

A

Structure that connects the fetus to the placenta

183
Q

First trimester

A

The period during pregnancy from conception until the end of the third month

184
Q

Gastrulation

A

Process by which a gastrula is formed

185
Q

Gastrula

A

Stage of embryonic development in which the embryo is composed of three layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

186
Q

Ectoderm

A

The outer layer of cells in an embryo

187
Q

Mesoderm

A

The middle layer of cells in an embryo

188
Q

Endoderm

A

The inner layer of cels in an embryo

189
Q

Second trimester

A

The period during pregnancy from the fourth month to the end of the sixth month

190
Q

Third trimester

A

The period during pregnancy from the seventh month until birth

191
Q

Teratogen

A

Any medication, chemical, infectious disease, or environmental agent that might interfere with the normal development of a fetus or embryo

192
Q

Parturition

A

The act of giving birth; labour

193
Q

Relaxin

A

A hormone produced by the placenta prior to labour; causes the ligaments within the pelvis to loosen

194
Q

Oxytocin

A

A hormone from the pituitary gland; causes strong uterine contractions

195
Q

Prolactin

A

A hormone produced by the pituitary gland and associated with milk production

196
Q

Cell cycle

A

The sequence of stages through which a cell passes from one cell division to the next

197
Q

Mitosis (M)

A

A type of cell division in which a daughter cell receives the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

198
Q

Cytokinesis

A

The division of the cytoplasm

199
Q

Interphase

A

The time interval between nuclear divisions when a cell increases in mass, roughly doubles the cytoplasmic components, and duplicates its chromosomes

200
Q

Chromatin

A

The complex of DNA and protein that make up chromosomes

201
Q

Centromere

A

The structure that holds chromatids together

202
Q

Sister chromatids

A

A chromosome and its duplicate, attached to one another by a centromere until separated during mitosis

203
Q

Centriole

A

Small protein body found in the cytoplasm of animal cells that provides attachment for spindle fibres during cell division

204
Q

Spindle fiber

A

Protein structure that guides chromosomes during cell division

205
Q

Enucleated

A

The condition where a cell does not contain a nucleus

206
Q

Telomere

A

The cap at the end of a chromosome

207
Q

Meiosis

A

Two-stage cell division in which the chromosome number of the parental cell is reduced by half

208
Q

Haploid

A

Refers to the number of chromosomes in a gamete

209
Q

Diploid

A

Refers to twice the number of chromosomes in a gamete

210
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A

Paired chromosomes similar in shape, size, gene arrangement, and gene information

211
Q

Tetrad

A

A pair of homologous chromosomes, each with two chromatids

212
Q

Synapsis

A

The pairing of homologous chromosomes

213
Q

Crossing over

A

The exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes

214
Q

Gametogenesis

A

The formation of gametes (sex cells) in animals

215
Q

Ootid

A

An unfertilized oovum

216
Q

Nondisjunction

A

The failure of a pair of homologous chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis

217
Q

Polyploidy

A

A condition in which an organism has more than two complete sets of chromosomes

218
Q

Trisomy

A

The condition in which there are three homologous chromosomes in place of a homologous pair

219
Q

Monosomy

A

The condition in which there is a single chromosome in place of a homologous pair

220
Q

Karotype chart

A

A picture of chromosomes arranged in homologous pairs

221
Q

Progeny

A

New individuals that result from reproduction (offspring0

222
Q

Dominant trait

A

A characteristic that is expressed when one or both alleles in an individual are the dominant form

223
Q

Recessive trait

A

A characteristic that is expressed only when both alleles in an individual are the recessive form

224
Q

Allele

A

One of alternative forms of gene

225
Q

Homozygous

A

Having identical alleles for the same gene

226
Q

Heterozygous

A

Having different alleles for the same gene

227
Q

Genotype

A

The genetic complement of an organism

228
Q

Phenotype

A

The observable characteristics of an organism

229
Q

Segregation

A

The separation of alleles during meiosis

230
Q

Phenotypic ratio

A

The ratio of offspring with a dominant trait to the alternative, recessive trait

231
Q

Punnet square

A

A chart used to determine the predicted outcome of a genetic cross

232
Q

Genotypic ratio

A

The ratio of offspring with each possible allele combination from a particular cross

233
Q

Pedigree chart

A

A chart used to record the transmission of a particular trait or traits over several generations

234
Q

Pleiotropic gene

A

A gene that affects more than one characteristic

235
Q

Wild type

A

The most common allele of a gene with multiple alleles

236
Q

Mutant

A

Any allele of a gene other than the wild type allele

237
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

The expression of both forms of an allele in a heterozygous individual in the cells of an organism, producing an intermediate phenotype

238
Q

Codominance

A

The expression of both forms of an allele in a heterozygous individual in different cells of the organism.

239
Q

Selective breeding

A

The crossing of desired traits from plants or animals to produce offspring with both characteristics

240
Q

Inbreeding

A

The process whereby breeding stock is drawn from a limited number of individuals possessing desirable phenotypes

241
Q

Polygenic trait

A

Inherited characteristics that are determined by more than one gene

242
Q

Epistatic gene

A

A gene that masks the expression of another gene or genes

243
Q

Dihybrid cross

A

A genetic cross involving two genes, each of which has more than one allele

244
Q

Autosome

A

A chromosome not involved in sex determination

245
Q

Linked genes

A

Genes that are located on the same chromosome

246
Q

Sex-linked trait

A

Trait that is determined by genes located on the sex chromosomes

247
Q

Recessive lethal

A

A trait that, when both recessive alleles are present, results in death or severe malformation of the offspring. Usually, recessive traits occur more frequently in males.

248
Q

Barr body

A

A small, dark spot of chromatin located in the nucleus of a female mammalian cell

249
Q

Linkage group

A

A group of linked genes on a chromosome

250
Q

Locus (plural loci)

A

A specific location along a chromosome where a particular gene is found

251
Q

Marker gene

A

A gene that confers an easily identifiable phenotype and is used to trace the inheritance of other genes that are difficult to identify; it must be located on the same chromosome, and ideally, at a very small distance from the gene being followed.

252
Q

Continuity of life

A

A succession of offspring that share structural similarities with those of their parents

253
Q

Bacteriophage

A

A virus that infects bacteria

254
Q

Isotope

A

One of two or more atoms of the same element containing the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons

255
Q

Radioisotope

A

An unstable isotope that decays spontaneously by emitting radiation

256
Q

Nucleotide

A

A molecule having a five-carbon sugar with a nitrogenous base attached to its 1’ carbon and a phosphate group attached to its 2’ position

257
Q

Nitrogenous base

A

An alkaline, cyclic molecule containing nitrogen

258
Q

Phosphate group

A

A group of four oxygen atoms surrounding a central phosphorus atom found in the backbone of DNA

259
Q

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod

A

Demonstrated that DNA was the transforming principle of pneumococcus bacteria

260
Q

Erwin Chargaff

A

Discovered that in the DNA of numerous organisms the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to that of cytosine

261
Q

Alfred Hershey

A

Used radioactively labelled viruses, infected bacterial cells; observed that the infected bacterial cells contained radioactivity originating from DNA of the virus, suggesting that DNA is hereditary material

262
Q

Rosalind Franklin

A

Produced an X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA that suggested it was the shape of a double helix

263
Q

James Watson and Francis Crick

A

Deduced the structure of DNA using information from the work of Chargaff, Franklin, and Maurice Wilkins.

264
Q

Who discovered the double helix DNA structure?

A

Watson and Crick

265
Q

Complementary base pairing

A

Pairing of the nitrogenous base of one strand of DNA with the nitrogenous base of another strand

266
Q

Antiparallel

A

Parallel but running in opposite directions; the 5’ end of one strand of DNA aligns with the 3’ end of the other strand in a double helix

267
Q

DNA replication

A

The process whereby DNA makes exact copies of itself

268
Q

Semiconservative replication

A

Process of replication in which each DNA molecule is composed of one parent strand and one newly synthesized strand

269
Q

Template

A

A single-stranded DNA sequence that acts as the guiding pattern for producing a complementary DNA strand

270
Q

DNA helicase

A

The enzyme that unwinds double-helical DNA by disrupting hydrogen bonds

271
Q

DNA polymerase III

A

The enzyme that synthesizes complementary strands of DNA during DNA replication

272
Q

Leading strand

A

The new strand of DNA that is synthesized towards the replication fork and continuously during DNA replication

273
Q

Lagging strand

A

The new strand of DNA that is synthesized away from the replication fork and in short fragments, which are later joined together

274
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

An enzyme that removes RNA primers and replaces them with the appropriate nucleotides during DNA replication

275
Q

DNA ligase

A

An enzyme that joins DNA fragments together

276
Q

Gene expression

A

Conversion of a gene into a specific trait through the production of a particular polypeptide

277
Q

Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

A

A nucleic acid consisting of nucleotides comprised of the sugar ribose and nitrogenous bases.

278
Q

Transcription

A

The process of converting DNA into messenger RNA

279
Q

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

The product of transcription of a gene; mRNA is translated by ribosomes into protein

280
Q

Translation

A

The process of synthesizing a specific polypeptide as coded for by messenger RNA

281
Q

Promoter

A

Sequence of DNA that binds RNA polymerase in front of a gene

282
Q

Template strand

A

The strand of DNA that the RNA polymerase uses as a guide to build complementary mRNA

283
Q

Termination sequence

A

Sequence of bases at the end of a gene that signals the RNA polymerase to stop transcribing

284
Q

Codon

A

Sequence of three bases in DNA or complementary mRNA that serves as a code for a particular amino acid

285
Q

Start codon

A

Specific codon (AUG) that signals the start of translation

286
Q

Stop codon

A

Specific codon that signals the end of translation

287
Q

Ribosome

A

An organelle composed of RNA and protein located in the cytoplasm that carries out protein synthesis

288
Q

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

The form of RNA that delivers amino acids to a ribosome during translation

289
Q

Anticodon

A

Group of three complementary bases on tRNA that recognizes and pairs with a codon on the mRNA

290
Q

Recombinant DNA

A

Fragment of DNA composed of sequences originating from at least two different sources

291
Q

Genetic transformation

A

Introduction and expression of foreign DNA in a living organism

292
Q

Restriction endonuclease

A

An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA into fragments at a specific sequence; aka restriction enzyme

293
Q

Recognition site

A

A specific sequence within double-stranded DNA that a restriction endonuclease recognizes and cuts

294
Q

Palindromic

A

Reading the same forwards and backwards

295
Q

Sticky ends

A

Fragment ends of a DNA molecule with short single-stranded overhands, resulting from cleavage by a restriction enzyme

296
Q

Blunt ends

A

Fragment ends of a DNA molecule that are fully base paired, resulting from cleavage by a restriction enzyme

297
Q

Methylase

A

An enzyme that adds a methyl group to one of the nucleotides found in a restriction endonuclease recognition site

298
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

A technique for amplifying a DNA sequence by repeated cycles of strand separation and replication

299
Q

Vector

A

A vehicle by which foreign DNA may be introduced into a cell

300
Q

Transgenic

A

A cell or an organism that is transformed by DNA from another species

301
Q

Plasmid

A

A small double-stranded circular DNA molecule found in some bacteria

302
Q

Multiple-cloning site

A

A region in a vector that is engineered to contain the recognition site of a number of restriction enzymes

303
Q

Point mutation

A

A mutation at a specific base pair

304
Q

Gene mutation

A

A mutation that changes the coding for amino acids

305
Q

Silent mutation

A

A mutation that does not result in a change in the amino acid coded for

306
Q

Missense mutation

A

A mutation that results in the single substitution of one amino acid in the polypeptide

307
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

A mutation that converts a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon

308
Q

Deletion

A

The elimination of a base pair or group of base pairs from the DNA sequence

309
Q

Insertion

A

The placement of an extra nucleotide in a DNA sequence

310
Q

Frameshift mutation

A

A mutation that causes the reading frame of codons to change

311
Q

Translocation

A

The transfer of a fragment of DNA from one site in the genome to another location

312
Q

Inversion

A

The reversal of a segment of DNA within a chromosome

313
Q

Spontaneous mutation

A

A mutation occurring as a result of errors made in DNA replication

314
Q

Mutagenic agent

A

An agent that can cause a mutation

315
Q

Induced mutation

A

A mutation caused by a chemical agent or radiation

316
Q

Phylogeny

A

Proposed evolutionary history of a species or group of organisms

317
Q

Allele frequency

A

The proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

318
Q

Fixed frequency

A

The frequency of an allele within a population when only a single allele is present for a particular gene (100%)

319
Q

Genetic drift

A

Changes to allele frequency as a result of chance

320
Q

Founder effect

A

Genetic drift that results when a small number of individuals separate from their original population and find a new population

321
Q

Bottleneck effect

A

A dramatic, often temporary reduction in population size, usually resulting in significant genetic drift

322
Q

Gene flow

A

The movement of alleles from one population to another through the movement of individuals or gametes

323
Q

Sexual selection

A

Differential reproductive success that results from variation in the ability to obtain mates; results in sexual dimorphism and mating and courtship behaviours

324
Q

Sexual dimorphism

A

Striking differences in the physical appearance of males and females not usually applied to behavioural differences between sexes

325
Q

Fecundity

A

Number of offspring

326
Q

Population size

A

The number of individuals of a specific species occupying a given area/volume at a given time

327
Q

Population density

A

The number of individuals of the same species that occur per unit area or volume

328
Q

Ecological density

A

Population density measured in terms of the number of individuals of the same species per unit area or volume actually used by the individuals

329
Q

Population dispersion

A

The general pattern in which individuals are distributed through a specified area

330
Q

Clumped dispersion

A

The pattern in which individuals in a population are more concentrated in certain parts of a habitat

331
Q

Uniform dispersion

A

The pattern in which individuals are equally spaced throughout a habitat

332
Q

Random dispersion

A

The pattern in which individuals are spread throughout a habitat in an unpredictable and patternless manner

333
Q

Natality

A

The number of births per unit of time

334
Q

Mortality

A

The number of deaths per unit of time

335
Q

Immigration

A

The number of individuals that move into an existing population per unit of time

336
Q

Emigration

A

The number of individuals that move away from an existing population per unit of time

337
Q

N

A

A variable describing the number of individuals in a population

338
Q

∆N

A

A variable describing the change in the number of individuals in a population

339
Q

Growth rate (gr)

A

The change in population size per unit of time

340
Q

Per capita growth rate (cgr)

A

The change in population size relative to the initial size of the population, per unit time

341
Q

Open population

A

A population in which change in number and density is determined by natality, mortality, immigration,, and emigration

342
Q

Closed population

A

A population in which change in size and density is determined by natality and mortality

343
Q

Exponential growth

A

A pattern of population growth in which the population size increases by a fixed rate per a fixed unit of time

344
Q

r

A

A variable indicating the rate of increase of a population experiencing exponential growth; r is limited only by the biotic potential of the organisms in the population

345
Q

Doubling time

A

The time needed for a population that is growing exponentially to double

346
Q

Environmental resistance

A

Any factor that limits a population’s ability to realize its biotic potential when it nears or exceeds the environment’s carrying capacity

347
Q

Logistic growth

A

A model of population growth describing growth that levels off as the size of the population approaches its carrying capacity

348
Q

Lag phase

A

The initial stage in which population growth rates are slow as a result of a small population size; characteristic of geometric, exponential, and logistic population growth

349
Q

Log phase

A

The stage in which population growth rates are very rapid; characteristic of geometric, exponential, and logistic growth

350
Q

Stationary phase

A

The phase in which population growth rates approach zero as the population size reaches the carrying capacity and stabilizes; the defining characteristic of logistic population growth

351
Q

K

A

A variable indicating the number of individuals in a population at the carrying capacity of an environment

352
Q

Biotic potential

A

Reproductive capability

353
Q

Environmental resistance

A

All factors causing death in a population

354
Q

Density-dependent factor

A

A factor that influences a population at a particular density

355
Q

Intraspecific competition

A

An ecological interaction in which individuals of the same species compete for resources in their habitat

356
Q

Predation

A

An ecological interaction in which a predator (a member of one species) kills and consumes prey (usually a member of another species)

357
Q

Minimum viable population size

A

The smallest number of individuals needed for a population to continue for a given period of time

358
Q

Density-independent factor

A

A factor that has the same influence on a population at any population density

359
Q

K-selected organism

A

An organism that is adapted to survive at or near the carrying capacity of its environment

360
Q

r-selected organism

A

An organism that is adapted to increase population size rapidly

361
Q

Symbiosis

A

Various interactions in which two species maintain a close, usually physical association; includes parasitism, mutualism, and commensalism

362
Q

Interspecific competition

A

Competition between individuals of different species

363
Q

Interference competition

A

Interspecific competition that involves aggression between individuals of different species who fight over the same resources

364
Q

Exploitative competition

A

Interspecific competition that involves consumption of shared resources by individuals of different species, where consumption by one species may limit resource availability to other species

365
Q

Competitive exclusion

A

The concept that, if resources are limited, no two species can remain in competition for exactly the same niche indefinitely; aka Gause’s Principle

366
Q

Resource partitioning

A

Avoidance of, or reduction in, competition for similar resources by individuals of different species occupying different non-overlapping ecological niches

367
Q

Mutualism

A

A symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit; as neither is harmed, it is categorized as a +/+ relationship

368
Q

Commensalism

A

A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and he other organism is unaffected; it is categorized as a +/0 relationship

369
Q

Parasitism

A

A symbiotic relationship in which the parasite benefits at the expense of its host which is often harmed but usually not killed; it is categorized as a +/- relationship

370
Q

Social parasite

A

A parasite that completes its life cycle by manipulating the social behaviour of its hosts

371
Q

Succession

A

The slow, progressive replacement of one community by another during the development of vegetation in any area

372
Q

Climax community

A

The final, relatively stable community reached during successional stages

373
Q

Primary succession

A

The occupation, by plant life, of an area not previously covered by vegetation

374
Q

Secondary succession

A

Succession in an area that was previously covered by vegetation and still has some soil

375
Q

Pioneer community

A

The first species to appear during succession