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Content Review > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

______ signaling is a way of cellular specialization where one group of cells can influence another group of cells to differentiate

A

Inductive

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2
Q

The three basic tenets of cell theory are that all living things are composed of cells, the cell is the basic functional unit of life and _____

A

Cells arise only from pre-existing cells

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3
Q

The fourth tenet added to the cell theory later on is that

A

Cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA and is passed on from parent to daughter cell

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4
Q

Eukaryotic are single celled or multi celled organisms?

A

They can be both single or Multi-cellular

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5
Q

Prokaryotic organisms are aways _____ cellular

A

single

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6
Q

________ cellular organisms do not contain a nucleus

A

prokaryotic

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7
Q

The nucleus is surrounded immediately by the ______

A

nuclear membrane/envelope

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8
Q

________ __________ allow for selective two-way exchange of material the cytoplasm and nucleus

A

nuclear pores

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9
Q

What are the proteins called that DNA is wound around?

A

Histones

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10
Q

This section of the nucleus is where RNA is synthesized

A

The nucleolus

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11
Q

Which membrane of the Mitochondria contain the cristae?

A

The Inner Membrane (this contains the molecules and enzymes of the ETC)

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12
Q

The space inside of the inter Mitochondrial membrane is known as

A

Mitochondrial Matrix

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13
Q

Lysosomes often function in collaboration with _______ to help transport, ________, and sort cell material

A

Endosomes, package

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14
Q

Which ER has ribosomes

A

Rough ER

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15
Q

Ribosomes, on the rough ER, permit the ________ of proteins destined for secretion directly into its lumen

A

translation

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16
Q

Primary function of the smooth ER

A

lipid synthesis

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17
Q

T or F, a function of the rough ER is to detox certain drugs and poisons

A

F, smooth ER does this

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18
Q

Materials from the ER are transferred to the ______ in vesicles

A

Golgi

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19
Q

What is a primary function of perioxosomes?

A

breakdown of very long chain fatty acids via beta oxidation

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20
Q

Microfilaments are made of _____

A

solid actin

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21
Q

Microtubules are made of ______

A

hollow tubulin

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22
Q

Actin can use ____ to generate force for movement by interacting with _____ during muscle contraction

A

ATP, myosin

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23
Q

_____ plays a role in cytokinesis

A

Microfilaments

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24
Q

During Mitosis, the ____ ______ is formed by Microfilaments

A

cleavage furrow

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25
Q

Motor proteins Kinesin and _____ carry vesicles on a pathways made of _______

A

Dynein, Microtubules

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26
Q

T or F, cilia are used for the movement of the cell itsef

A

F, that is flagella

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27
Q

Cilia are used for the movement of ___

A

materials along the surface of a cell

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28
Q

Cilia and Flagella share a common structure known as the_____

A

9+2 structure (9microtubules in a ring, with 2 in the center)

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29
Q

During mitosis, _______ migrate to the opposite poles of the dividing cell and form the mitotic spindle

A

Centrioles

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30
Q

Centrioles are made up of ________

A

microtubules

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31
Q

Epithelial cells are often polarized (T or F)

A

True, one sides faces a lumen or the outside world, and the other faces blood vessels/structural cells

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32
Q

Simple epithelia have ____ layer(s) of cells

A

1

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33
Q

Stratified epithelia have _____ layer(s) of cells

A

Multiple

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34
Q

Pseudostratified epithelia have _____ layer(s) of cells

A

1, though appear to have many d/t differences in cell height

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35
Q

Cuboidal vs. Squamos cell Type

A

cuboidal are cubed, squamos are flat

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36
Q

Bacteria are prokaryotes or eukaryotes?

A

prokaryotes

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37
Q

All bacteria contain ______ and _______

A

cell membrane and cyotplasm

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38
Q

Rod-Shaped Bacteria

A

bacilli

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39
Q

Sprial-Shaped Bacteria

A

spirilii

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40
Q

Spherical shaped bacteria

A

cocci

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41
Q

A Gram negative cell wall is

A

pink/red

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42
Q

A Gram Positive cell wall is

A

purple

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43
Q

A Gram (+/-) cell wall has a thick layer of peptidoglycan

A

gram positive

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44
Q

In addition to a singular circular chromosome, many bacteria also contain

A

plasmids, which often carry genes that may provide antibiotic resistance

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45
Q

_______ are a subset of plasmids capable of integrating into the genome of the bacteria

A

episomes

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46
Q

What are the three bacterial genetic recombination processes?

A

Transformation, conjugation, and transduction

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47
Q

This process of recombination results from the integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome

A

transformation

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48
Q

This process of recombination is when a bridge is formed that facilitates the transfer of genetic material

A

Conjugation

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49
Q

This process of recombination requires a vector

A

Transduction (duct/duck=vector)

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50
Q

A ________ is a virus that specifically targets bacteria

A

bacteriophage

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51
Q

T or F, viral genomes can be made of either single or double stranded DNA or RNA

A

True

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52
Q

Single Stranded DNA can be either ____ sense or _______ sense

A

positive, negative

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53
Q

_____ sense implies that the genome may be directly translated to functional proteins (like mRNA)

A

positive

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54
Q

_____ sense RNA acts as a template for synthesis of a complementary strand, which is then used as a template of protein synthesis

A

negative

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55
Q

_______ are infectious proteins that trigger misfolding of other proteins

A

prions

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56
Q

Where does fertilization typically occur

A

in the ampulla of the fallopian tube

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57
Q

________ _______ is when the first sperm penetrates , it causes a release of calcium ions (preventing more sperm from fertilizing) and increases the metabolic rate

A

the cortical reaction

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58
Q

These type of twins results from the fertilization of two eggs by two sperm

A

Fraternal (Dizygotic)

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59
Q

Before the placenta is established, the embryo is supported by the

A

yolk sac

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60
Q

This germ layer becomes much of the musculoskeletal, circulatory, and excretory systems, including gonads.

A

Mesoderm

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61
Q

This germ layer becomes epidermis, hair, nails, and anal canal

A

Ectoderm

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62
Q

This germ layer becomes epithelial linings of respiratory and digestive tracts

A

Endoderm

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63
Q

The development of the Nervous System is known as

A

Neurulation

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64
Q

The neural tube turns into _____

A

Central Nervous System

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65
Q

These type of stem cells are ablet o differentiate into all cell types, including the three germ layers and placental structures

A

Totipotent (think Total cells)

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66
Q

These stem cells are able to differentiate into the three germ layers and derivatives

A

Pluripotent

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67
Q

These stem cells are able only to differentiate into a specific subset of cell type

A

Multipotent

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68
Q

Uterine contractions are coordinated by

A

oxytocin and prostaglandins

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69
Q

Like all other cells (besides RBC), neurons have _____

A

a nucleus (found in the cell body)

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70
Q

The cell body of a neuron is also known as a _____

A

soma

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71
Q

appendages emanating from the soma are known as ______

A

dendrites

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72
Q

Dendrites receive incoming messages, and information is transmitted through the cell body before it reaches the _______

A

axon hillock

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73
Q

The axon hillock ______ incoming signals

A

integrates

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74
Q

Most nerve fibers are insulated by ______

A

myelin

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75
Q

Myelin is produced by _____ in the CNS and by _______ in the PNS

A

oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells

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76
Q

At the end of an axon is the _____

A

nerve terminal

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77
Q

These are found along the axon membrane (small breaks in the myelin sheath)

A

nodes of Ranvier

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78
Q

In the CNS, axons may be bundled together to form a

A

tract

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79
Q

Multiple neurons can be bundled together to form a ____ in the PNS

A

nerve

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80
Q

These cells ingest and break down waste products in the CNS

A

microglia

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81
Q

For neurons, a cells resting membrane potential is

A

-70 mV

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82
Q

The concentration of Na+ is ______ outside the cell

A

higher, therefore there is a driving force pushing it into the cell

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83
Q

The concentration of K+ is ______ outside the cell

A

lower, therefore there is a driving force to move K+ out of the cell

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84
Q

If an axon hillock receives enough excitatory input to be depolarized to the threshold value, what will happen?

A

an action potential will be triggered

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85
Q

When no amount of stimulation can cause another action potential to occur, this is known as

A

absolute refractory period

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86
Q

When there must be greater than normal stimulation to cause an action potential, this is known as

A

relative refractory period

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87
Q

_____ neurons ascend in the spinal cord towards the brain

A

afferent

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88
Q

_______ neurons exit the spinal cord on their way to the rest of the body

A

efferent

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89
Q

Is the (grey/white) matter of the brain myelinated?

A

white

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90
Q

what are the four sections of the spinal cord

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral

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91
Q

_____ summation refers to the integration of multiple signals near each other in time

A

temporal

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92
Q

______ summation refers to the addition of multiple signals near each other in space

A

spatial

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93
Q

The refractory period occurs when the axon is ______

A

hyperpolarized

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94
Q

What typically passes through our cell membrane?

A

Small, nonpolar molecules (i.e. gases, O2 or CO2) via passive diffusion

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95
Q

This small, polar molecule passes through the cell membrane very slowly because it is _____

A

Water (H2O), polar

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96
Q

Large, nonpolar molecules (CAN/CANNOT) pass through our cell membrane?

A

CAN, but slowly (think: benzene)

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97
Q

Large, polar molecules (CAN/CANNOT) pass through our cell membrane?

A

CANNOT

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98
Q

Charged particles (CAN/CANNOT) pass through our cell membrane?

A

CANNOT

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99
Q

Phospholipids are made up of

A

-2 Fatty Acids
-Glycerol
-Phosphate group (polar head group)

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100
Q

What are the components found in our cell membrane?

A

-Phospholipids
-Cholesterol (inserts itself between phospholipids, maintains fluidity of cell membrane)
-Proteins (integral/transmembrane and peripheral)

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101
Q

These membrane proteins span the entire cell membrane

A

Integral

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102
Q

Channel proteins generally (DO/ DO NOT) require energy for ions to cross

A

DO NOT(think; they are just a tunnel, not a carrier protein that changes shape)

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103
Q

T or F, Carrier proteins can help ions go against the concentration gradient

A

T

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104
Q

A chain of sugars attached to any membrane proteins

A

a Glycoprotein

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105
Q

The purpose of glycoproteins are

A

for signaling

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106
Q

The three main factors that affect membrane fluidity

A
  1. temperature
  2. cholesterol
  3. unsaturation
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107
Q

phospholipids at a low temperature do not have alot of energy, and huddle close together, and therefore have (high/low) fluidity

A

low fluidity

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108
Q

As temperature increases, phospholipids are more spread out, and have (decreased/increased) fluidity

A

increased

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109
Q

The presence of cholesterol in a membrane at low temps (increases/decreases) distance between phospholipids, and therefore the fluidity is (increased/decreased)

A

increases, increased

110
Q

the presence of cholesterol in a membrane at high temps causes (increased/decreased) fluidity and why

A

decreased fluidity, since the phospholipids were already spread out due to high temp, the cholesterol actually draws them closer together, decreasing fluidity

111
Q

If we have an unsaturated fatty acid, double bonds (ARE/ ARE NOT) present

A

ARE, causing kinks/bends, therefore causing increased distance between phospholipids, thus, increasing fluidity

112
Q

the process of moving a phospholipid from the outside of the membrane to inner cell membrane is known as

A

transmembrane diffusion, or “flip flop”. this is uncatalyzed movement, and is slow

113
Q

the process of a phospholipid moving in any direction around it

A

lateral diffusion, an uncatalyzed movement, and it is fast

114
Q

A flip of phospholipids from the outside to inside with the use of a catalyst is called

A

Flipase (fast process)

115
Q

A flop of phospholipids from the inside to the outside with the use of a catalyst is called

A

Flopase (fast process)

116
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that brings a phospholipid from the outer to inner membrane, and then another from inner to outer is known as ____

A

scramblase (fast process)

117
Q

T or F, facilitated diffusion requires the input of energy

A

false, but it is able to transport polar molecules and larger ions (as there are a membrane transport channel: glycoproteins)

118
Q

Transport that directly uses ATP for energy is considered …

A

primary active transport

119
Q

…. moves multiple molecules across the membrane, powering uphill movement of molecules, with the downhill movement of others

A

secondary active transport

120
Q

A Potassium leak channel allows K+ out via what sort of transport

A

passive (facilitated diffusion, no energy required, as K+ flows from high to low concentration gradient_

121
Q

The different types (4) of passive transport are:

A

-diffusion
-osmosis
-filtration
-facilitated diffusion

122
Q

An example of secondary active transport is

A

a Na+, and Glucose Symport (using a gradient set up using energy, so indirectly using ATP)

123
Q

In antiport, the two molecules move in the same direction (T or F)

A

False, they move in opposite directions

124
Q

A chloride channel is an example of

A

facilitated diffusion, and the protein goes through a conformational change to bring the Cl- from the outside to the inside of the cell

125
Q

Whatever there is more of in a solution / what does the dissolving is referred to as

A

the solvent

126
Q

______ is the movement of particles from high concentration to the low concentration

A

Diffusion

127
Q

A solution with a high concentration of solute is also known as

A

hypertonic

128
Q

Osmolarity is the flow of water or solute

A

water

129
Q

A solvent will flow from an area of (hyper/hypo) tonic solution to a (hyper/hypo) tonic solution

A

Hypotonic (less solute= more water) to hypertonic (more solute= less water)

130
Q

The Equilibrium Potential of K+ is -92mV, and occurs when…

A

the net movement of K+ is equal

131
Q

The ion that has a membrane potential of +67 mV is

A

Na+

132
Q

The ion that has a membrane potential of -86mV is

A

Cl-

133
Q

The ion that has a membrane potential of +123mV is

A

Ca2+

134
Q

Cardiac muscle contains what type of cell junctions

A

Gap Junctions (common in cells that require propagation of electrical signal)

135
Q

What is the name of the transmembrane ion channel that open/closes in response to the binding of a ligand

A

Ligand-Gated Ion Channels

136
Q

These channels rely on the difference in membrane potential

A

voltage gated channels

137
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are an example of what kind of receptor

A

Enzyme-linked receptor

138
Q

T or F, receptor Tyrosine kinases occur in pairs

A

True, they come together and form a “cross-linked” dimer, and phosphorylate each other

139
Q

Enzyme linked receptors function how,

A

by turning an extracellular chemical signal into enzyme activity inside the cell

140
Q

Lipid Destruction is a function of what organelle

A

Perioxisome

141
Q

where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

142
Q

where do post - translational modifications of proteins occur?

A

rough endoplasmic reticulum

143
Q

What is the stack of Golgi referred to as that is closest to the ER

A

The Cis Golgi

144
Q

The secretory pathway includes which organelles

A

ER, golgi, lysosomes and cell membrane

145
Q

Crinophagy is when lysosomes…

A

digest excess secretory products

146
Q

The alveoli are lined with (simple/stratified) epithelium and why?

A

simple, so that carbon dioxide and oxygen are able to diffuse easier across one layer of cells

147
Q

epithelial cells are attached to the

A

basement membrane

148
Q

how do epithelial cells get nutrients, since they are avascular?

A

from the basement membrane beneath epithelial cells

149
Q

A map of your body in your brain is known as

A

the somatosensory homunculus

150
Q

Our ability to sense pain is known as

A

nociception

151
Q

A chemical signal that is released by one member of a species, and is sensed by another member of hte species and it triggers an innate response

A

Pheromones

152
Q

T or F, each taste bud contains all of the cells with abilities to detect each of the five tastes

A

True

153
Q

Sweet, umami, and bitter rely on

A

G Protein Coupled receptors

154
Q

Sour and Salty taste cells rely on

A

Ion Channels

155
Q

Which waves have a lower frequency, alpha or beta?

A

alpha

156
Q

Who said that dreams represent our unconscious wishes, urges, and feelings

A

Freud

157
Q

Four main groups of psychoactive drugs

A

-depressants
-stimulants
-hallucinogens
-opiates

158
Q

Depressants and stimulants (CAN/CAN’T) cancel each other out

A

Cannot

159
Q

Drugs that lower your bodies basic functions and neural activity

A

Depressants

160
Q

Benzodiazepines (enhance/inhibit) your brains response to GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

A

enhances

161
Q

Which method of drug entry is the fastest?

A

Intravenous (few seconds), whereas inhalation is (approx 10 seconds)

162
Q

This biological molecule accompanies oxidation reactions

A

NADP+ (an electron acceptor)

163
Q

Coimmunoprecipitation is a common technique used to

A

identify interactions between two proteins

164
Q

Thin Layer Chromatography is often used in organic chemistry for

A

testing the progress of a reaction

165
Q

a decarboxylation reaction is the removal of

A

CO2 ( a carboxyl group)

166
Q

Binding between the enzyme and substrate is strongest at what point

A

during the transition state

167
Q

a (n) _____ site is any binding site outside of the active site

A

allosteric site

168
Q

what is the first immune cell present at the site of infection

A

neutrophils, as they are the primary rapid innate host defense

169
Q

T or F; neutrophils display MHCII on their surface?

A

False

170
Q

Because B cell receptors and T cell receptors are created at random, this puts us at higher risk for

A

autoimmune diseases

171
Q

Catalysts (do/do not) impact the end product of a reaction

A

do not

172
Q

Increased levels of T3 and T4 would lead to

A

increased levels of basal metabolic rate (they are metabolism hormones)

173
Q

The FLATPEG mnemonic for hormones from the Anterior Pituitary are:

A

F: FSH (follicle stimulating)
L: LH (luteinizing)
A: ACTH (adreocorticotropic)
T: TSH (thyroid stimulating)
P: PRL (prolactin)
E: endorphins
G: GH (growth)

174
Q

epinephrine is secreted from the adrenal ______

A

medulla

175
Q

when a naive B cell encounters an antigen that fits into its membrane-bound antibody, it quickly divides to become __ or ___

A

a memory B cell Or an effector B cell(plasma cell)

176
Q

What has to be guranteed to happen in order to set off B cell differentiation

A

The antigen must effectively bind to the naive B cell’s membrane bound antibody

177
Q

A effector B cell is also known as a

A

plasma cell

178
Q

Plasma B cells are capable of

A

secreting antibodies

179
Q

B cells also express a specialized receptor known as ______ that plays an important role in signaling pathwasy

A

B Cell Receptor (BCR)

180
Q

T cells are formed in the ____ and then migrate to the _____ to become mature T cells

A

bone marrow; thymus

181
Q

In the thymus, T-cells begin forming these receptors

A

T-Cell Receptors (TCR)
CD4
CD8

(all T-cells express TCR, and either CD4 or CD8, not both)

182
Q

T cell receptors can only recognize antigens bound to certain receptor molecules known as

A

MHCI and MHCII

183
Q

When a T cell undergoes positive selection, what is happening?

A

The T cell is testing MHCI and MHCIIs ability to distinguish between self and non-self proteins

184
Q

When a T cell undergoes negative selection, what is happening?

A

The T cell is testing binding capabilities of CD4 and CD8

185
Q

After a T cell undergoes selection processes, what are the three possible outcomes?

A

-Helper T Cells (CD4)
-Cytotoxic T Cells (CD8)
-T Regulatory Cells (CD4 and CD25)

186
Q

What are the two types of immunity that the adaptive immune system provides?

A

-Humoral
-Cell-Mediated

187
Q

This type of immunity is from antibodies produced by plasma cells (effector B cells)

A

humoral immunity

188
Q

This type of immunity is acquired through T cells from someone who is immune to the disease or infection

A

cell-mediated immunity. it is carried out by cytotoxic cells

189
Q

T cells and B cells are part of which type of immunity (adaptive/innate)

A

Adaptive

190
Q

what are they phagocytic cells ?

A

neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells

191
Q

Phagocytes are all (what type of cell)

A

white blood cells/leukocytes

192
Q

Phagocytes are specific or non-specific responses to the immune system?

A

non-specific

193
Q

Gel filtration separates proteins based off

A

size

194
Q

Ion exchange chromatography separates proteins based off

A

charge

195
Q

SDS-Page is a technique used to separate proteins based off of

A

size

196
Q

A reaction that has a Keq > 1 is _____

A

exergonic (releases energy)

197
Q

The process by which nucleic acids are transferred from viruses to cells is known as

A

Transduction

198
Q

________ is the exchange of nucleic acids between bacteria.

A

Conjugation

199
Q

__________ is the process that transfers genetic material from the environment into bacteria.

A

Transformation

200
Q

contraction of the diaphragm results in (inhalation/exhalation)

A

inhalation

201
Q

Inhalation results in increased/decrease intrathoracic pressure

A

decreased

202
Q

____ is the initial velocity of an enzymatic reaction

A

V0

203
Q

_____ is the maximum velocity of a reaction

A

VMax

204
Q

The cells that display MHCI and II are

A

macrophages, part of the innate immune system

205
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are part of

A

the innate immune system

206
Q

These cells produce antibodies

A

B cells ( part of the humoral immunity)

207
Q

( B or T) cells mature in the bone marrow and then spleen

A

B cells

208
Q

(B or T) cells mature in the thymus

A

T cells

209
Q

These specific T cells are known as CD 4, and attach to which MHC

A

Helper T Cells. and MHC II

210
Q

These specific T cells are known as CD8 and attach to which MHC

A

Cytotoxic, and MHC I

211
Q

An antigen-presenting cell capable of phagocytosis + this cell secretes cytokines, signaling both innate and adaptive immune responses

A

dendritic cell

212
Q

Proteolytic Cleavage is what type of chemical reaction?

A

Hydrolysis

213
Q

Cartilage is vascular or avascular

A

ALL cartilage is Avascular (which means no blood vessels or lymphatic vessels, and it is not innervated)

214
Q

fibrous connective tissue that binds muslce to bone

A

a tendon

215
Q

pieces of fibrous tissue that binds bone to bone

A

a ligament

216
Q

Tor F; both prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain mitochondria

A

F; mitochondria are only found in eukaryotes

217
Q

T or F; both prokayotes and eukaryotes contain cell walls

A

T; they both can have cell walls, but not all do

218
Q

This form of reproduction _______ is the sexual reproduction form in prokaryotes

A

conjugation (think- sex pilus, F-factor)

219
Q

This is one of the key differences between mitosis and meiosis, and it occurs during anaphase

A

the splitting of centromeres (when sister chromatids separate); this occurs during mitosis, and during meisois 2 anaphase 2

220
Q

This ______ is released by the posterior pituitary, and increases collecting duct permeability

A

ADH

221
Q

This _____ stimulaties resorption of Na+ and Water, goal being for BP to increase

A

Aldosterone

222
Q

The antagonist of Aldosterone

A

ANP

223
Q

This ______ stimulates excretion of Na+ and Water

A

ANP

224
Q

This model used in the field of psychology integrates the influence of biological predispositions and the environment, and attempts to explain a disorder, or its trajectory

A

the diathesis-stress model

225
Q

Langerhans cells are _____ cells

A

dendritic (specialized immune cells in the skin and mucous membranes)

226
Q

The role an individual takes in society during a period of illness can be described as :

A

The sick role (the societal role a sick individual takes, think: Sick; Societal)

227
Q

The subjective experience of a sick individual can be described as:

A

The Illness Experience (think: Illness; Individual)

228
Q

The speed of sounds is most fast in a what form of material?

A

solid (due to the strong bonds and close proximity of molecules)

229
Q

what are the two main autonomic (subset of peripheral ns) neurotransmitters?

A

acetylcholine and norepinephrine

230
Q

Transformation (bacterial replication) is done via what process

A

incorporation of genetic fragments

231
Q

Thick, myelinated fibers (increase/decrease) conduction velocity

A

increase

232
Q

macrophages are filled with ______ and this fulfills their primary purpose of phagocytosis

A

lysosomes

233
Q

MH2 are found EXCLUSIVELY on ______

A

antigen presenting cells

234
Q

What kind of inhibitors bind to the active site

A

competitive

235
Q

Which region of a sarcomere will not change in size during a muscle contraction?

A

The A Band

236
Q

This type of hormone is known to diffuse through the cell membrane of their target cell

A

steroid hormone

237
Q

This type of hormone is known to rely on secondary messenger systems

A

peptide hormone

238
Q

The descending limb of henle is ______ permeable to water and ________ permeable to ions

A

highly; barely

239
Q

The ascending limb of henle is _______ permeable to water, and _______ permeable to ions

A

barely; highly

240
Q

The ventral roots are composed of _____ neurons

A

motor

241
Q

The dorsal roots are composed of ______ neurons

A

sensory

242
Q

The idea of taking a long time to decipher the word”blue”written in red writing is an example of

A

The Stroop Effect

243
Q

The idea that performance increases with emotional arousal (up to a point) is an example of

A

Yerkes-Dodson Law

244
Q

operant condition is reward based (T or F)

A

true (rewards or punishments)

245
Q

This is how well a study measures what it intends to do

A

internal validity

246
Q

This is how well a study could be applied to other populations or societies

A

external validity

247
Q

when a door opens and changes shape from a rectangle to a line, this is known as

A

perceptual constancy

248
Q

electrons always frow from the ___ode to the ____ode

A

from the anode to the cathode (think alphabetical; A to C)

249
Q

for electrolytic cells, the cell potential is ____

A

negative, meaning a potential input greater than the magnitude of the cell potential must be present for electrolysis to occur

250
Q

galvanic/voltaic cells have a _____ cell potential

A

positive, thus, no input is required for these cells

251
Q

The _____ has the highest reduction potential (and lowest oxidation potential )

A

the cathode

252
Q

The ______ has the highest oxidation potential, and the lowest reduction potential

A

the anode

253
Q

The ability of our brain to sort through a lot of stimuli to discern what is important information is known as

A

feature detection

254
Q

What is the basic tenet of the theory of general intelligence?

A

Intelligence relies on a single ‘g factor’, which underlies performace in all cognitive domains.

255
Q

What are the three tenets of the Triarchic Theory of Intelligence?

A

Analytical Intelligence (problem solving), practical intelligence (adapting to everyday life) , and creative intelligence (fostering insight)

256
Q

_______ theory argues that behavior is primarily extrinsically motivated (people are more likely to act in a certain way if they know they are getting a reward)

A

Incentive Theory

257
Q

_____ theory is the idea that people are motivated by their unfulfilled needs

A

needs based theory

258
Q

Bandura created the social learning theory, that is most associated with which phrase of thought

A

“reciprocal determinism” which is cognition, behavior and context are all influencing each other

259
Q

The idea that people perform simple tasks better when in the presence of other people is known as

A

social facilitation

260
Q

The Elaboration Likelihood Model proposes ____ major routes to persuasion

A

2 (central and peripheral route to persuasion)

261
Q

The _____-route of the elaboration likelihood model is one that is logic driven and uses facts as as means fo persuasion

A

central route

262
Q

The _____ route of the elaboration likelihood model is one that uses peripheral cues to suggest positivity towards the message (think celebrity endorsement or positive emotions)

A

peripheral route

263
Q

The idea that we tend to cut ourselves a break, while holding others 100% to their actions is known as

A

fundamental attribution error

264
Q

_____ ______ are properties of compounds that are altered by the amount of substance present

A

colligative properties

265
Q

________ are a group of genes that cause normal cells to become cancerous when they are mutated

A

proto-oncogenes (these play a crucial role in cell proliferation, and the cell cycle- so when mutated, it will be increasing cell proliferation of tumor cells)

266
Q

The altered version of a protooncogene is known as

A

an oncogene

267
Q

p53 is an example of a

A

tumor suppressor gene (keep the cell cycle in check- cancerous cells try to suppress these)

268
Q

In order for an ______ ________ reaction to proceed spontaneously, the cell potential Ecell° for the net reaction must be positive

A

oxidation­­–reduction

269
Q

Does a lighter or heavier molecule of gas diffuse faster?

A

a LIGHTER one

270
Q

D-Glucose and D-Galactose are examples of

A

epimers

271
Q

porphyrin is composed of

A

four pyrroles (fyi- heme contains a porphyrin ring)

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