Behavioral Sciences Flashcards
Which researcher was known for ablations, to study brains in the absence of its entirety?
Pierre Flourens
Sir Charles Sherrington introduced the existence of ____
synapses
Paul BRoca studied _____ deficits in people with BRain damage
Behavioral
Hermann von Helmholtz was the first person to measure the speed of a ______ _________
nerve impulse
Functionalism, the study of how mental processes help people adapt, was formed by which two researchers?
William James and John Dewey
Franz Gall is known for the idea that
if a particular trait is well developed, that part of the brain is larger
Constricted pupils and salivation are association with which branch of the autonomic nervous system
Parasympathetic
Which branch of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for transmitting information through skin and muscles?
Somatic
T or F: The Autonomic Nervous System regulates temperature control
True. The ANS is responsible for ‘automatic’ functions
Sensory neurons transmit sensory info from receptors to the brain, and are also called _______ ___________
Afferent Neurons
Motor neurons transmit motor info to the brain and are also called _______ _______
Efferent Neurons
The spinal cord is part of the _______ nervous system
Central
Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for controlling balance and general arousal process (sleeping/waking)
Hindbrain
Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for receives sensory and motor information from the body?
Midbrain (think Motor/Mid)
Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for complex perceptual and cognitive processes?
Forebrain
What are the Four (F) Functions of the Hypothalamus?
-Feeding
-Fighting
-Flighting
-sexual Functioning
When the Lateral Hypothalamus (LH) is removed…
one Lacks Hunger (LH)
When the VentroMedial Hypothalamus (VMH) is removed…
one is Very Much Hungry (VMH)
Frontal lobe is known for ______ function
executive
The parietal lobe is known for
touch, temperature, pain (think: pain/parietal)
The occipital lobe is known for
vision (occ/eyes)
Temporal lobe is known for
Hearing (ears are by temples)
Left brain is known for
analyzing, logic, language
Right brain is known for
creativity, music, etc
Catecholamines (epi, norepi, dopa) all play an important role in the experience of _______
Emotions
This portion of the pituitary gland is what releases hormones
Anterior
The Hypothalamus maintains
Homeostasis (H/H)
These receptors respond to electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum
photoreceptors
These receptors respond to pressure or movement
mechanoreceptors
These receptors respond to painful of noxious stimuli (somatosensation)
nocioceptors
_____ is the minimum amount of a stimulus that renders a difference in perception
threshold
This theory studies how psychological and environmental factors influence thresholds of sensation and perception
signal detection theory
(cones or rods) are for color vision
cones
(cones or rods) function best in reduced light
rods (RODuced light)
The white, visible portion of the eye is known as the
sclera
The ear is responsible for our ______ sense, our ability to sense rotational and linear acceleration and inform our sense of balance
vestibular sense
The cartilaginous outer part of the ear is known as
the pinna
Kinesthetic sense, also called ________ , refers to our ability to tell where ones body is in space
proprioception
_________ processing is essentially when the brain takes the individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is?
bottom- up
__________ processing allows us to quickly recognize objects without needing to analyze their specific parts
top-down
Gestalt principles ….
allow the brain to make a complete picture out of incomplete information
Repeated exposure to the same stimulus can cause a decrease in response, known as ________
habituation
a stimulus to weak to elicit a response is called a _________ stimulus
subthreshold
This type of learning is the creation of an association
Associative learning
The two types of associative learning are
classical conditioning, and operant conditioning
The process of using a unconditioned stimulus to turn a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus is called _______
acquisition
________ refers to the loss of a conditioned response (i.e with Pavlov’s dogs, the bell rings and they don’t get meat, they will stop salivating)
extinction
______ conditioning examines the way in which consequences of voluntary behaviors change the frequency of those behaviors
operant conditioning
______ _______ increases the frequency of a behavior by adding a positive consequence following the desired behavior
positive reinforcement
_______ _________increases the frequency of a behavior by removing something unpleasant
negative reinforcement
____ ______ adds an unpleasant consequence in response to a behavior that reduces that behavior
positive punishment (think getting a ticket for parking illegally)
_____ _________ removes a stimulus in order to cause the reduction of a behavior
negative punishment (no tv because a child was being bad)
if you are encouraging behavior in any way (with a stimulus or with the removal of one) this is______
reinforcement behavior
What reinforcement schedule works best for learning a new behavior & (is very resistant to extinction)
variable- ratio schedule (VI)
This mnemonic technique involves associating each item in a list with a location in a place
method of loci
This type of memory consists of our skills, habits, and conditioned responses
implicit memory
This type of memory refers to memories that require conscious recall
explicit memory
This brain disorder is degenerative thought to be linked to loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to the hippocampus
alzheimers
This is a term that references an increase in dysfunction in the later afternoon and evening
sundowning (in alzheimers patients)
______- syndrome is a form of memory loss caused by a deficiency in thiamine
Korsakoff’s
Piaget’s First Stage of Development
Sensorimotor
This stage of Piaget’s states that include primary circular reactions (continuous actions), and secondary circular reactions (repeated movements/actions)
Sensorimotor
Object Permanence is part of what stage of Piaget’s
Sensorimotor (peek-a-boo)
This stage of Piaget’s lasts from age 2-7 and is characterized by symbolic thinking, and egocentrism
Preoperational Stage
Symbolic thinking, in the preoperational stage, refers to
the ability to play make-believe/have an imagination
At this stage, kids cannot grasp the idea of conservation (tall vase, wide vase, same amount of water problem)
Pre-operational
______ is the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon, and ignore other elements
Centration (present in preopeational years)
This stage of development is when children understand conservation, and can think more about others
Concrete Operational (7-11)
At this stage of development, children cannot yet think abstractly
Concrete Operational
This stage of development includes abstract thinking and problem solving
Formal Operational (11+)
______ bias is the tendency to focus on information that fits an individuals beliefs, while rejecting information that goes against them
confirmation bias
______ bias is the tendency for people to overestimate their ability to predict the outcome that already happened
hindsight bias
this idea is refers to the inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence of the contrary
belief perseverance
These brain waves occur when a person is alert and concentrating
Beta
These brain waves occur when we are awake but relaxed with eyes closed
Alpha
Stage 1 of sleep (known as NREM1) is associated with which brain waves
Theta
In stage 3 of sleep (NREM3), or slow-wave sleep, these waves are seen
Delta
What is a classic example of epigenetics?
Methylation (the addition of a methyl group)– inhibits activation of a gene
What portion of the brain links the nervous system to the endocrine system
Hypothalamus
The Estrogen secreted from the ovaries before ovulation is enough to stimulate the release of what two other hormones?
GnRH which then stimulates LH to be released ( an ex. of positive feedback)
Progesterone is triggered when it senses that ____ levels are too high
LH
Once progesterone is secreted due to high levels of LH, it works to inhibit further production of
GnRH and thus, LH
The base of Maslow’s hierarchy is ________ needs
Physiological
After physiological needs are met, according to Maslow, we need ______
Safety
This stage of Maslow’s hierarchy is thought of as the ‘social needs’ level, and is above physiological and safety
Love
This is the second to the top of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
Self-Esteem
Reaching your maximum potential would be associated with which level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
Self-Actualization
The Incentive Theory focuses on _____________ ________
Positive Reinforcement
Attitude can be broken down into 3 pieces
Affective (emotion), Behavioral (actions), Cognitive (belief) — The ABC Model of Attitude
The idea that we consider the implications of our actions before we decide how to behave is best known as the …
Theory of Planned Behavior
The Attitude to Behavior theory states that
An event triggers an attitude (an influence on perception), which will then lead to a behavior
Behavior is a function of our past behavior, our attitudes, subjective norms, intentions, willingness, and models– This is best demonstrated by the ____
The Prototype Willingness Model
The tendency to agree to small actions, and over time to agree to larger actions
Foot in the Door phenomenon
How do we deal with cognitive dissonance?
1- Alter via modification, 2- Trivialize the issues, 3- Adding another cognition, 4- Denying cognitions altogether
The _______ Theory states that our childhood experiences and unconscious desires influence our behaviors
Psychoanalytic
_____ is part of our conscious and unconscious mind
The ego
_____ develops around the age of 4, and is our moral compass
superego
If there is a problem with gratification at a particular psychosexual stage, this can cause _____
fixation
The Humanistic Theory focuses on the ________, and that humans are ultimately ______
conscious, good
Rogers states that ________ is nurtured in a “growth-promoting climate”
self-actualization
Growth is nurtured through being ____ and receive ______
genuine, acceptance
Biologic Theory states that our personalities are mostly _____, but are also influenced by ______
inherited, environment
________ ____________ is the degree to which someone assumes mastery and leadership roles in a social situation
Social Potency
This theory states that personality is a result of an interaction between and individual and their environment
Behavioral Theory
This psychologist of behavioral theory is known for coining the term” operant conditioning”- uses rewards/punishments to increase/decrease behavior
Skinner
The Father of Behaviorism
Pavlov
Classical conditioning was coined by _____
Pavlov
To place a neutral stimuli with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger an involuntary response is a description of ____ _____
Classical Conditioning
This Theory is a bridge between behavioral theory and other thinking/mental based theories
Cognitive Theory
This theory identifies personality by patterns of behavior through description
Trait Theory
Cattell theorizes that we each have a subset of traits from a large list of what is possible ( T or F)
False, Allport stated this. Cattell theorizes that we all have all traits, and can be categorized into 16 groupings
_____ traits influence our behavior
Cardinal
This theorist states that we all have 3 major dimensions of personality that encompass all traits, and we express them to different degrees
Eysenck
The three dimensions that Eysenck divides personality into are:
-Extraversion
-Neuroticism
-Psychoticism
The Big 5 Personality traits are:
-Openness
-Conscientiousness
-Extraversion
-Agreeableness
-Neuroticism
(use acronym O.C.E.A.N)
The ___ ______ by Albert Bandura shows that children imitate/mimic what they see
Bobo Doll Experiment
____ _____ ____ is the idea that you can learn a behavior but that doesn’t mean that you will perform that behavior
Learning- Performance Distinction
What are the four components of Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory?
A ttention
M emory
I mitation
M otivation
(AM I Motivated?)
This type of defense mechanism is one that distorts reality so that a person can deal with the situation
Pathological Defense Mecanism
This type of defense mechanism is one where a person pretends that a situation is actually not occuring
Denial defense mechanism
Projection is an example of a _____ defense mechanism, which is shifting ones own feelings to someone else
immature
If someone has someone elses feelings being projected onto them, and they begin to act in that manner, this is known as
Projective Identification
____ is thedefense mechanism/ idea of convincing ourselves that we are at no fault
rationalization
This defense mechanism is one in which a capable person begins to act like they were at a younger stage of life
Regression
Channeling negative energy into positive energy is a mature defense mechanism known as
sublimation
The pleasure principle is a (immature/mature) way of getting gratification
Immature (“I want it now”) vs,. the Reality Principle (“ I have to wait for this”)
The life drive can be known as _____ and the death drive can be known as _____
Eros, Thanatos
Patterns of abnormal functions are known as
syndromes
“Basic” functions of the nervous system could be grouped into these three categories
- motor
- sensory
- automatic
In a caste system, there is a high amount of social mobility (T or F)
False, they don’t often have any mobility, but they do have social stability
In a meritocracy, there (IS/ IS NOT) a lot of social stability
IS NOT (moving up and down constantly, so alot of social mobility, but not stability)
The idea that we are reproducing the social inequality across generations is known as
social reproduction
The ______ phenomenon essentially says that good things happen to good people and that bad things happen to bad people
the just world phenomenon
Sensory information about pressure is known as
mechanoception
Sensory information about bodies location in space is known as
proprioception
This sort of processing is data driven, and a stimulus influences the perception
Bottom-Up processing
This sort of processing uses past experiences to influence perception
Top-Down processing
Reality is often organized or reduced to simplest form possible is which Gestalt principle
The law of Pragranz
Lines are seen as following the smoothest path, is which Gestalt principle?
The Law of Continuity
The Cornea is protected by the
Conjuctiva
What features in the eye bend the light?
Cornea, lens
What part of the eye is colored?
The Iris
When light hits a rod, what occurs? and what is this known as?
The rod turns off, which then turns on a bipolar cell.. which then turns on a retinal ganglion cell which then goes to the optic nerve and then brain. This is known as the phototransduction cascade.
Cones are able to adapt (fast/slow) to changes in light
Cones adapt FAST to an increase in light, whereas Rods take much longer to adapt
At the Fovea, you have light directly hitting the cones, and not going through axons (T or F)
True
What is the point at which the optic nerves converge?
The Optic Chiasm
The light that hits the (temporal/nasal) side does not cross in the optic chiasm
temporal
The (parvo/magno) pathway looks more blurry and you are still able to make out the image while in motion
Magno pathway
The ______ pathway is a big part of the reward circuit in the brain
mesolimbic
Intoxication is referring to the behavioral and _____ effects on a person
psychological
With Caffeine you (CAN/CANNOT) develop a substance use disorder
Cannot (it doesnt activate the brains reward circuit)
____ attention is illuminating one particular aspect, and ignoring the other aspects
selective
_____- blindness is when you miss something right in front of you
inattentional
____-blindness is when you fail to notice a different from a previous state to a current state
change
_______ is when exposure to one stimulus influences a response to another stimulus
priming
The _________________ is when you hear your name from a conversation far away and become tuned to it, even though you were previously not listening to the conversation
cocktail party effect
long term memory capacity has a limit to how much information it can store (T or F)
False, it is unlimited
_______ is the a encoding technique that groups new information into meaningful units
Chunking
Emotional memories that are vivid and surprising/shocking can be thought of as
flashbulb memories
synaptic ______ is the ability of synapses to change their strength
plasticity
a stronger synapse and increase in strength is called
long term potentiation (the way that learning occurs)
Korsakoff’s Syndrome is related to a lack of ____ in the brain
B1 (thiamine)
The precursor to Korsakoff’s Syndrome is
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Assimilation is..
putting information into the schema you already have…. Think: same schema (aSSimilation)
Accomodation is …
putting information into an old schema or creating a new one (think… aCComodation, change or create)
A ______ in a mental shortcut that allows us to find a solution more quickly to a problem
Heuristic
_________ intelligence is our ability to reason quickly and abstractly
Fluid
If Broca’s area is damaged you get..
Broca’s aphasia, think broken speech
If Wernicke’s area is damaged, you get…
Wernicke’s aphasia, words come out, but not in an order of sense
Vygotsky thought that language and thought were _______ but that they converged through development
independent
The _____ perspective of language development is that children are born with the ability to learn language. _____ is the founder of this idea
nativist, noam chomsky
This theory states that children are not born with language skills, but rather they develop it only through reinforcement
The Learning theory
This theory states that language development is based off the interaction between biological and social factors. Who is associated with this school of thought?
Interactionist Theory, Vygotsky
This stage of Erickson’s stages is from 18months to 3 years
Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
What years of life encompass Erickson’s third stage of Initiative vs. Guilt
3yrs to 6yrs of age
This stage of Erickson’s is from infancy until 18months
Trust vs. Mistrust
This stage of Erickson’s is from ages 6yrs to 12yrs
Industry vs. Inferiority (4th stage)
This stage of Erickson’s is #5, Identity vs. Role Confusion, and this happens at what ages of life?
12yrs to 18yrs
Stage 6 of Ericksons occurs at 18yrs- 35yrs, and is what name?>
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Erickson’s Generativity vs. Stagnation is what ages of life
35yrs to 60 yrs
What is Erickson’s last stage of development
Integrity vs. Despair (60yrs+)
The idea that all memories fade over time is known as
trace decay theory
Difficulties in trusting and depending on others is one of the primary characteristics of an ______ attachment style
avoidant
____ ____ is the our ability to sense perception, and its change over time.
webers law
A/an _________ variable represents the phenomenon that a research study seeks to explain.
dependent
A/an ________ variable explains the variance in the phenomenon observed in a study.
indpendent
_________ _____ theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment
Differential Association Theory
This is a type of long term memory that involves the capacity to recall words, concepts, numbers (typically associated with facts and knowledge)
semantic memory
Fixed Ratio reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after___
a fixed number of behavioral responses
Variable ratio reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after
a variable number of behavioral respones
Fixed interval reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after
a fixed amount of time has elapsed
Variable interval reinforcement schedules mean that reinforcement occurs after
a variable amount of time has passed
Which reinforcement schedule is most prone to extinction?
Fixed interval
Which reinforcement schedule is most resistant to extinction? (and produces the highest response rate)
Variable ratio
When Freud refers to Id, he is referring to
the part of us related to instinct (repulsion, impulse, pleasure)
When Freud refers to superego, he is referring to
the judgemental, and morally correct aspect of personality
When Freud refers to ego, he is referring to
our concious personality, that mediates between our id and our superego and makes decisions
Freud coined this theory, and it encompasses id, superego, and ego
Psychodynamic/Psychoanalytic theory
Esterification is the reaction in which a _____ and an acid produce an ester and water
an alcohol
The James-Lange Theory of emotion is:
stimulus–> physical reaction–>emotion (think, it takes a long (lange) time to get to the emotional response, have to wait for the physical)
The ___________theory of emotion that is stimulus –> cognitive appraisal–>physical reaction & emotion
Lazarus Theory of emotion
The __________ theory of emotion is one that is stimulus –> physical reaction & emotion
Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion (think: cannon goes boom; everything happens at once)
The Schacter-Singer Theory of Emotion is :
(think t”wo factor Schacter”)
stimulus –> physical reaction –> cognitive appraisal –> emotion
The idea of : seeing a snake–> and feeling fear and heart rate increase occur at the same time
This demonstrates the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion
The idea of: seeing a bear –> HR increases–> feeling fear
This demonstrates the James-Lange Theory of emotion
This area of the brain is involve in forming and retrieving memories
Hippocampus
The Malthusian Theory argues what about population growth?
That population growth will eventually outstrip all resources, leading to poverty and famine
If researchers pose as patients in a study, this would be an example of a…
embedded field study
a ___ variable is one that explains the relationship between two other variables
a mediating variable
a _______ variable is one that modulates the intensity of a certain relationship
a moderating variable
Endorphins are produced where in our body?
Anterior Pituitary
in regard to drug withdrawal, what is a typical pupillary response?
pupillary dilation
This person is known for a study he published on the genetics of personality
Hans Eysenck
_______ bias refers to the way in which participants drop out of a long term study over time
attrition
This type of stress can be defined as neutral, and it has not impact on your body, whether good or bad
neustress
An informal norm that governs society can best be thought of as a
folkway
The Kinsey Scale ( a measure of sexual behavior) goes from 0-6, what do 0,3, and 6 represent
0: exclusively heterosexual
3: Bisexual
6: exclusively homosexual
When asking someone to recall information word for word in real time while other stimuli are going–this is an example of
shadowing
language processsing occurs in the ____ hemisphere
left
The phenomena that suggests we best remember the first and last items in a list (and not so much the middle) is known as
the serial position effect
glycolysis produces how many moleucles of ATP per one glucose ?
2
This derivation of lymphocyte can recognize and kill cancer cells
natural killer cells
______- is the intensity a stimulus must have in order to be accurately deteceted at least 50% of the time
absolute threshold
_____- is the intensity a stimulus must have in order to be sensed by the body
threshold
____ states that the threshold for detecting a change in stimulus is a constant ratio
Weber’s Law
What are Lawrence Kohlbergs therories of moral development?
Level 1: Preconventional Morality
Level 2: Conventional Morality
Level 3: Postconventional Morality
This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is devoted to avoiding punishment/ in ones own self interest
Level 1: Preconventional morality
This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is devoted to adhering to social norms/social approval
Level 2: Conventional Morality
This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is beahvior that is driven by a balance of social order and/or an internal moral compass
Level 3: Postconventional morality
cholesterol is the precursor to what in the digestive tract?
bile salts
The exocrine pancreas releases its contents into the ___
digestive tract
The endocrine pancreas release is contents into the ______
bloodstream
What part of the digestive tract is where initial protein digsetion occurs
the mouth and stomach
What part of the digestive tract is where most of the nutrient digestion and absorption occur?
small intestine
This part of the digestive tract is thought to be a reservoir for healthy gut bacteria
appendix
Lipids are broken down into fatty acids by
glycerol
carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides by
amylase
once fatty acids are broken down, they are absorbed by _______
enterocytes, and incorporated into chylomicrons
chylomicrons are found in which circulatory system
lymphatic system (they are too large to enter the bloodstream)
The citric acid cycle occurs in the
mitochondrial matrix
fatty acids undergo beta oxidation, which occurs in the
mitochondrial matrix
What is the intermediate that links glycolysis, the krebs cycle, and fatty acid oxidation?
Acetyl-coA
Disulfide linkages affect which stages of protein folding?
Tertiary + Quartenary structures
How are polypeptides degraded into their residues (and amino and carbonyl groups are released)
Via Hydrolysis (water is added, and
what is the difference between a germ and somatic cell?
somatic cells are any cell not involved in the production of gametes, germ cells produce gametes
Viruses require _______ to reproduce
a host cell
a form of bacterial replication that requires a sex pilus and transfer throught that to another bacteria is known as
conjugation (it is dependent on the F factor [fertility factor])
What is the formula for calculating the period of a wavelength?
T(period)= 1/f (freq.)
What are the exponents in a second order reaction?
They must add up to equal 2
A Higher Ka value indicates what?
A stronger base (ability to lose protons more easily)
An indicator for titrations change color within how much change of their pka
1
What equation is used to calculate the pKa of something?q
Henderson Hasslebalch (pH = pKa + log([Conjugate Base]/[Acid])
At the Half-Equivalence point (the point at which half of the acid in the buffer has reacted with the titrant), the buffering capacity is ______ and the pH is _____ to the pKa
maximal, equal to
at the equivalence point, the number of moles of added acid _______ to the number of moles of added base
is equal to
The number of peaks on a proton NMR is equal to the number of sets of ______ hydrogens
equivalent (if all hydrogens are in the same environments, there will be just one peak on the NMR)
polar protic solvents (like ethanol) are most conducive to what sort of organic reaction?
SN1 (anything that will stabilize a carbocation will favor SN1 over SN2)
SN1 reactions proceed via ___ ___
carbocation intermediates
What is the rate limiting step of SN1 is
the formation of a carbocation
An SN2 reaction will do what to the configuration
It will invert it
The existence of unpaired electrons causes (paramagnetism/ diamagnetism)
paramagnetic
_______ is the process in which triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids
saponification
1/f = 1/do + 1/di
this is the equation for
The thin lens equation
This equation: n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2 is snell’s law. what do each of the components stand for?
n1 is the index of refraction of the incident medium, n2 is the index of refraction of the refractive medium, and θ1 and θ2 are the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction, respectively.
How are phospholipids and glycolipids different
Glycolipids: contain a glycerol, 2 fatty acids and a sugar portion
Phospholipids: contain a glycerol, 2 fatty acids, and a phosphate portion
700 nm wavelength is what color? and what color would it appear?
Red; green
The wavelength of ____ light is between 400 and 500 nm
blue light
_____ always occurs at the anode
oxidation
_____ always occurs at the cathode
reduction
What is the equation for kinetic energy?
KE = (1/2)mv2
The Total Energy is made up of Potential Energy +
Kinetic Energy
What is the equation for potential energy?
PE = mgh
The four assumptions of the Ideal Gas Law:
- the volume of gas molecules is negligible
- all collosions are perfectly elastic
- there are no intermolecular interactions
- the temperature is proportional to the kinetic energy of the gas molecules
PCC oxidizes primary alcohols to their respective…
aldehydes
Molecules with trigonal bipyramidal geometries have how many sigma bonds?
5 σ-bonds (think: sp3d)
sp3 hybridized correspond to
tetrahedral geometries
What is the pathway for a cardiac muscular contraction?
SA node–> AV node–>bundle of His –> Purkinje Fibers
What is in the space known as the ‘node of ranvier’
Na+ and K+ channels (which regenerate th action potential) which helps the nerve impulse to propogate much faster
What would happen if nodes of ranvier were not present along an axon
The action potential would travel much slower
One cycle of the citric acid cycle yields…?
1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2CO2
one glucose molecule powers how many turns of the CAC?
2
_____ pin adjacent cells together, ensuring that even cells that stretch will remain connected, they also provide anchorage sites for intermediate filaments
desmosomes
____ junctions create a watertight seal, blocking water and ions
tight junctions
_____ junctions act like tunnels for water and ions
Gap junctions
The idea that material culture often changes faster than non-material culture is thought of as
cultural lag
The idea of things we think to be immutable: race, gender, sex, class are products of human definition shaped by cultural and historical contexts
social constructionism
What theory states that language development is driven by the desire of children to interact with their enviroment
social interactionist theory
What theory states that children have an innate ability to speak language
The Nativist theory (coined by Chomsky)
The learning Theory of language, also known as the ____- theory, is known for what
Behaviorist, language is acquired through operant conditioning, a trial and error of sorts
This theory is one that believes that personalities consist of consistent and relatively stable traits
The Trait Theory of Personality
The idea that our personality is fluid, changes over time, and is dependent on who we are around is known as the
social cognitive perspective
This theory of personality states that our brains and components of them are what create our personality
Biological perspective of personality
This theory views personality as shaped by the reinforcements and consequences outside of ourseves
The Behavioral Theory of personality
a _____ ______ is a graphical representation of interconnected concepts
semantic network
This concept, related to semantic networks, is the idea where activation of one concept spreads to the other nodes/concepts in the network
Spreading activation
Explicit memory is a type of _____ memory
long term
this type of memory includes the intentional recalling of information, facts, or concepts
explicit memory
This type of memory is not stored purposefully, and is unintentionally memorized
implicit memory (think: childhood TV songs etc)
What are the two categories of explicit memory?
- episodic (specific personal experiences)
- semantic (factual information)
What are the four types of implicit memory and something about each of them?
- Priming
- Procedural (ex: riding a bike)
- Associative
- Nonassociative
Our working memory can best be thought of as
a “mental workspace”myregis
Which is more tightly condensed (heterochromatin or euchromatin)
heterochromatin is more tightly condensed
Is heterochromatin or euchromatin more accessible for transcription?
Euchromatin
What is the main enzyme in charge of synthesizing new DNA
DNA polymerase II
In DNA replication, this enzyme is in charge of extending the RNA primers and replacing them with newly synthesized DNA
DNA polymerase I
How are microRNAs and gene expression related?
miRNAs bind to a specific untranslated region of RNA to suppress translation of the sequence (so, involved in post-transcriptional modifications)
snRNA bind with ribonucleoproteins to form a ________
spliceosome (these remove introns in post-transcriptional modifications)
lead batteries are reliable sources that often have a (high/low) current
HIGH current (downfalls: limited life, heavy and toxic)
_____ batteries are commonly used as rechargeable batteries. During charging, the anode is oxidized, producing electrons
nickel-cadmium
What is the value of “R” in PV=nRT
8.314 J/K mol (when pressure is in kPa) OR 0.08206 Latm/molK (when pressure is in atm)
The idea that the total pressure of a gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases is best known as
Daltons law (Said differently, the partial pressure of an individual gas is equal to the total pressure multiplied by the mole fraction of that gas)
When calculating absolute configuration, you assign priority to atoms around the chiral carbon based off of what?
the higher the atomic #, the higher the priority
Things to keep in mind when assigning absolute configuration to a compound
-Always make sure lowest priority group (typically H) is in the back. If its in the front, configuration is then opposite
What is the difference between R and S isomers?
The way in which they rotate plane-polarized light!
What is a racemic mixture?
Made up of 50% R enantiomers, and 50%S enantiomers- rotate light oppositely, so overall, the mixtures is optically INactive
What is the process called of separating a racemic mixture?
chiral resolution
______ are non identical stereoisomers having the same molecular formula and same connectivity but differing in their spatial arrangement
diastereomers (these can be optically active, but are not always)
This theory in psychology accounts for the actions of other group members and the complex decisions of taking them into account
game theory
_____ are informal rules and norms that are expected to be followed but not also not punishable
folkways
____ are norms that structure the difference between right and wrong, and often have severe consequences
mores (think: more centered around MORality)
The idea that our art is better, our values are more superior, our food is of higher quality than Theirs
ethnocentrism
The opposite of ethnocentrism is _____
cultural relativism
The idea that our culture is ours, theirs is theirs and one is not superior to the other
cultural relativism
This ______ sef is often put on when a person knows that they are being watched, and their actions are subject to judegment
front stage self
This version of self is still on a performance, but only in front of peers and colleagues, and therefore things are let pass that would be unacceptable in front of an audience
back stage self
This law states that if A and B are in thermal equillibrium, and B and C are in thermal equilibrium, then A and C are
The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
the second law of thermodynamics states that
the entropy (disoder) of a system is constantly increasing or staying the same (never decreasing)
this branch of the autonomic nervous system is in charge of the GI system
Enteric Nervous System (it is embedded in the lining of the GI system)
____ describes two or more variant forms of a specific DNA sequence that occurs among different individuals of a population
polymoprhisms
What are the genetic results of inbreeding?
a decline in survival and reproductive fitness
This refers to the mating of individuals from different populations, breeds, or species
Outbreeding
This idea refers to very few people starting a new colony of sorts, which can lead to large numbers of a specific gene expressed in a population
The Founders Effect
A bottleneck in genetics leads to
reduced genetic variation
(gap/tight) junctions allow for communication and passage of small molecules
gap junctions
If K is >1 and Delta G is <0, what occurs?
the reaction will proceed in the forward direction until equilibrium is reached, there will be more products at equilibrium
If K<1 and Delta G is >0
the reaction will shift in the reverse and there will be more reactants at equilibrium
a (-) Delta G, means a reaction will shift forwards or backwards?
the reaction will shift forwards
Boyles law state that pressure is ______ proportional to volume (at a constant temperature )
inversely
Charles Law states that volume is ______ proprotional to temperature (at a constant pressure)
directly
This theory states that population growth is exponential, and all resources will be used at a certain point, and this will trigger a population decline
Malthusian theory
This refers to the tendency of an animal to revert to unconcious and automatic behavior
instinctive drift
The idea that we are selfish even in our interpersonal relationships (seeking to maximize selfish gain, minimize cost)
Social Exchange Theory
electrons in the same orbital have _____ spins
opposite (pauli exclusion principle)
This occurs when an ionic compound comes into contact with a substance sharing a common ion and thus reduces the solubility of the ionic compound
The Common Ion Effect
This reaction is when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react (in acidic conditions) to form an ester
Transesterification
_____ enzymes rely on inhibtitory molecules that bind to an enzyme at their allosteric site
allosteric enzymes
This occurs when a molecule binds to a site other than the active site, and inhibits the substrate from fitting in the active site
allosteric inhibition
This occurs when a molecule binds to a site other than the active site and this alters the active site so that the substrate can fit
allosteric activation
Pepsin is secreted in it’s inactive form (pepsinogen) from the pancreas, and is converted to its active form in the stomach. This type of enzyme is known as
a zymogen
When an enzyme gets phosphorylated, and this changes the conformation of its active site to active/inactive, this is known as a
covalently modified enzyme
Fatty acid oxidation is the process of breaking down fatty acids into ______ units
acetyl Co-A
Which enzyme initially breaks down fatty acids, and then which enzyme breaks them down in the stomach?
lingual lipase; gastric lipase
Beta oxidation is a (anaerobic/aerobic) process
aerobic
explain the process of anabolism of fatty acids (fatty acid synthesis)
citrate –>acetyl Co-A–>palmitic acid–>triglycerides
we know protein synthesis uses a template (mRNA), what does fatty acid synthesis use? what about polysaccharide synthesis?
it does not have a template (known as “non-template synthesis”) **gluconeogenesis (polysaccharide synthesis) also does not use a template
Coding of the same amino acids from codons that only differ in their third nucleotide is known as
wobble base pairing
Histone acetylation leads to ….
acetyl groups have a negative charge, which reduces the positive charge on a histone, reducing its interaction wtih phosphate groups- leading to the histone to be more unwound, and more accessible to transcription
Histone methylation leads to …
makes transcription not as accessible, by tightening the histone wrapping (condensed state)
What is the difference between histone methylation and DNA methylation?
histone methylation: histone is a condensed state, not accessible to transcription
DNA methylation: genes “turned off”
Sin of (0 degrees)=
0
Sin of (30 degrees)=
.5
Sin of 45 degrees =
.7
Sin of 60 degrees =
.9
Sin of 90 degrees=
1
Sin of 180 degrees =
0
Cos of 0 degrees=
1
Cos of 30 degrees
.9
Cos of 45 degrees
.7
Cos of 60 degreees
.5
Cos of 90 degrees
0 degrees
Cos of 180 degrees
-1
This type of enzyme inhibition occurs when the inhibitor can bind the enzyme whether or not the enzyme has already bound thes substrate
Mixed Inhibition
The Jacob-Monod model of the operon is what?
genes are transcribed together (an operon) under the control of a single promoter
what is the difference between pluripotent and multipotent cells?
pluripotent: can become any cell except for embryonic cell structures (think placental cells etc)
multipotent cells: can become any cell within the diffferentiation pathway/lineage
____ is the ability of a bacterial cell to detect chemical stimuli and move toward food or away from toxins
chemotaxis
Negative chemotaxis: away from toxins
Positive chemotaxis: towards food
How do retroviruses work?
They use single stranded DNA and reverse transcriptase to convert it to cDNA in order to integrate it into the host DNA genome (using an enzyme named integrase)
(prions/viroids) are single stranded RNA particles
viroids
_____ are proteins with a defective structure that also trigger other proteins to adopt this misfolded structure
prions
the ascending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to _____ not, _____
salt, not water
The descending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to ________, not ______
water, not salt
where is urine concentrated in the kidney?
in the collecting duct
this is where filtration of blood occurs in the kidney?
Bowman’s capsule (glomerulus is inside of this capsule)
______ are the precursors to steroids
terpenes/terpenoids
**also to note, terpenes contain 2,3,4,or 6 isoprene units
______’s law states that the concentration of gas in liquid is directly proportional to the solubility and ______ of that gas
Henry’s Law, partial pressure
In regard to the Decibel Scale, every 10x increase in sound adds +____ on the decible scale. Give an exampleof this if you have +20 on the decibel scale
+10, and if you have +20 on the decible scale that would be (10x10=100)
Alkaline Earth metals have _____ ionization energy, _____ electron affinity, and ________ electronegativity
low ionization energy
low electron affinity
low electronegativity
what is the oxidation number of alkaline earth metals
+2
What is the oxidation state/number of alkali metals?
+1
Halogens have _____ ionization energy, _____ electron affinity, and ________ electronegativity
high ionization energy
lhigh electron affinity
high electronegativity
Alkali metals have ______ ionization energy _______ electron affinity and
______ electronegativity
low ionization energy
low electron affinity
low electronegativity
Oxidation state of Noble Gases?
0
Noble gases can also be though of _____ gases
inert
when its cold, the erectile musculature in our skin contracts, causing body hair to stand up, which does what?
helps to trap the air, providing for better insulation
the two types of bone tissue are cancellous and _____
cortical
cortical: forms the extremely hard outer of our bones
cancellous: forms the inner, more spongy portion
what are the functions of troponin and tropomyosin?
Troponin: Promotes muscle contraction
Tropomyosin: Blocks muscle contraction
When calcium is bound to troponin, this then signals what (in regard to muscle contractinon)
this makes the myosin binding site exposed, which then frees it up to bind to actin
These are hormones created at a site where an injury or other issue occurs
Prostaglandins
Glycogen is made, stored, and broken down in the ….
liver
Cholinesterase inhibitors function to _______ the breakdown of acetylcholine
decrease
Skeletal and Cardiac muscle contain _______ muscle fibers
striated
This type of deviance includes things such as burping loudly, picking your nose,
Informal deviance
The theory that what is considered deviant changes over time and across culture is known as
The Labeling Theory
Classical conditioning is when a conditioned Stimulus = conditioned response by way of
an unconditioned stimulus and neutral stimulus are used to create a conditioned response
In classical conditioning,. ____ _____ occurs after extinction when animal or person will all of a sudden produce the conditioned response again
spontaneous recovery
_______ links the rate of a chemical reation proportional to the concentrations of the reactants and products
The Law of Mass Action
These are molecules that relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules inside the cell
Secondary messengers
This enzyme diassociates molecules, breaks covalent bonds without using water, oxidation, or reduction
Lyase (ex: decarboxylase)
This enzyme joins two molecules together via covalent bonding
Ligase (ex: DNA Ligase)
This enzyme rearranges bonds of a molecule
Isomerase (ex: phosphoglucose isomerase)
This enzyme transfers a functional group from one molecule to another
Transferase (Ex: Kinase, phosphorylase)
This enzyme uses water to cleave a molecule by breaking the covalent bond
Hydrolase (ex: hydrolase, phosphatase)
This enzyme transfers electrons from one molecule to anothe
Oxidoreductase (ex: lactate dehydrogenase)
What is a proteins solvation layer? and what is the purpose of it?
The water molecules that surround the protein
-The pupose is to have fewer unfavorable interactions with hydrophobic residues (have more favorable with hydroPHILLIC)- which Maximizes the entropy of a system
This is the point at which the net charge of a protein equals zero
Isoelectric point
____ _____ is used to determine a proteins isoelectric point
isoelectric focusing
SDS Page separates proteins ONLY by
molecular mass
In a hydrolysis reaction, is a water added to the reaction, or is it expelled from the reaction
added (how a polypeptide breaks into its amino acids)(hydration is when a water molecule mixes with a substance)
_____ ___- recognize specific DNA sequences and cut them in a predictable manner/specific spot (these make gene cloning possible)
restriction enzymes
In humnas, extranuclear DNA and organelles are inherited from the _____
mother
cytoplasmic and extranuclear DNa includes…
the cytoplasm, cell membrane, and mitochondria
______ is any agent that directly increases the incidence of cancer
a carcinogen
______ is an agent that causes mutations in the DNA of the cell
mutagens
_____ describes the process of converting an electrical stimulus from the neurons into a mechanical response that facilitates muscle movement
ECC (excitation contraction coupling)
In cardiac muscle, ECC is based on a phenomenon called CICR (Calcium Induced Calcium Release) which is the influx of calcium ions into
the cell (when then triggers further release of ions into the cytoplasm)
What is the order of embryogenesis?
morula–>blastulation –> gastrulation –>neurulation –> implantation (My Baby Gdows Nicely)
Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed compartments filled with ________ enzymes that are used for the controlled intracellular digestion of ________
hydrolytic; macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids)
do glial/neuroglial cells conduct nerve impulses?
they don’t, but they support, nourish, and protect the neurons
schwann cells, oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes are all types of
glial cells
______ are segments of DNA that can move and allow genes to be transferred to a host organism’s chromosome
transposons
What is backcrossing in genetics
Mating with a parent and offspring to preserve the paretnal genotype
What is the solid line that goes down the center of a sarcomere called?
M line
The H band is made up ony of …
Myosin
____ marks the boundary of a sarcomere
Z- line
The I band of the sarcomere is made up of what?
Only actin (think thIn, actiIn)
The A band is made up of what?
actin AND myosin
“wave and say HI, Z you lAter” is a mnemonic for what components of the sarcomere?
HI are shortened, Z at the ends, A unchanged
Which L-amino acid does not have an ‘R’ configuration?
cysteine (S)
What is an example of a non-enzymatic protein involved in protein
Hemoglobin
What is an example of a non-enzymatic protein that is a peptide hormone?
Insulin!
antibodies are ______ that help recognize and destroy foreign pathogens
proteins
The somatic Nervous system (a branch of the efferent PNS) is voluntary/involuntary control?
voluntary
dopamine inhibits ______ release
prolactin
which hormone is responsible for triggering ovulation?
LH (lutenizing hormone)
This hormone stimulates the development of egg cells and sperm cells
FSH
The main hormone associated with the luteal phase is
progesterone
When is progesterone highest in the menstrual cycle?
The time after ovulation and before the start of the period(luteal phase)
Vasodilation functions to _______- heat loss
facilitate (by getting more blood closer to the surface, this allows heat to be lost this way)
This is the name of the circulatory system found inside of bones
Haversian canals
In Eurkaryotes, where does translation occur?
The Cytoplasm
A broad stretch around 3,200 on the IR spectroscopy signifies what functional group
alcohol (o-H)
A sharp peak around 2,200 on the IR Spectroscopy signifies what functional group (s)?
C-C Triple bond, and C-N triple bond
A sharp peak around 1,700 on the IR spectroscopy represents what functional group(s)?
An Aldehyde/ketone (carbonyl groups)
A broad stretch around 3,400 on IR Spectroscopy reprensents what functional group(s)?
N-H bonds
The Addition of a phosphate group makes some (more/less) polar? how will this affect the Rf factor in thin layer chromatography?
more polar (and less polar molecules do not adhere as well to the silica gel and thus travel further up the gel= a larger Rf factor)
How do you calculate sterocenters when you know how many chiral centers there are?
We use the rule of 2^n (where n=# of chiral centers)
a faraday is equal to how many moles of electric charge?
1 mol
Primary alcohols are oxidized to _____
aldehydes
Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ______
ketones
Tertiary alcohols are resistant to oxidation (T or F) and why?
True, because the carbon that is attached to the OH group does not have any of its own Hydrogens attached, and therefore has difficulty forming a double bond with the oxygen
In SN1 reactions, tertiary alcohols are favored…why?
Tertiary alcohols have the most carbocation stability (carbocation stability increases with resonance as well as wtih increasing substitution of the carbon, hence why tertiary alcohol is favored)
In SN2, primary alcohols are favored…why?
SN2s (which occur via backside attack) often dont proceed if there is steric hindrance, primary alcohols have the least steric hindrance
A sulfonate is a type of ______, which tosylates and mesylates are a type of. With these compounds, alcohol acts as a nucleophile
ester
Info to know about Mesylates and Tosylates
-They are good leaving groups
-They are also good protecting groups
T or F; prokaryotes lack organelles
True (they have no ER, golgi, mitochondria or chloroplasts)
This phase of the cell cycle is when DNA Replication occurs
The S Phase
Insulin decreases glycogenisis (T or F)
False, it INCREASES glycogenesis
Insulin increases glycolysis ( T or F)
True
Insulin promotes fatty acid (synthesis or breakdown)
synthesis
Cortisol increases/decreases blood sugar levels
increases!
Excessive accumulation of ____ can lead to damaging oxidative stress
ROS (reactive oxygen species)
Of the four complexes in the electron transport chain, which one does not pump protons?
Complex II
Complex I (in the ETC) is the point at which ________ enters the ETC
NADH
______ are short vessels that directly connect arterioles and venules at opposite ends of the bed, allowing for bypass of capillaries
vascular shunt
Capillary beds can/cannot vasodilate/constrict
cannot
similarity IS/IS NOT a gestalt principle?
Is
stronger hydrogen bonds migrate slower or faster on paper chromatography?
strong H bonds (very polar) migrate slower
The solute concentration will affect the _____ of the spots on a paper chromatograph (does not affect the migration rate)
size
T or F; Tertiary alcohols readily dehydrate?
True (tertiary dehydrate most rapidly, then secondary, then primary) this is due to how stable the carbocation in the tertiary alcohols is
In anaerobic conditions, oxygen is no longer the terminal electron acceptor, but rather _________ is
pyruvate
In gas-liquid chromatography, the first peak to emerge is….
the LEAST polar, and the most volatile (if a molecule has dipole-dipole or H-bonds, it is not very volatile)
A catalyst stabilizes the _______ _____
transition state (which then lowers the activation energy)
When HCl is added to a solution, will H+ ions increase in a solution or decrease?
increase the amount of H+ in the solution, and this will thus decrease the amount of the other molecules that diassociate/ionize
The index of refraction of a medium is equal to: the ratio of the speed of light in a vaccuum over speed of…
light of the medium
Work (kJ)= ____ x time (sec)
Power (watts)
The velocity of blood flow is primarily determined by the ____
total cross sectional area
Kinases catalyze the addition of a phsophate group, but the source of the phosphate group is often…
ATP
Lipase hydrolyzes…
triacylglycerides
If the bond on the left molecule of the glycosidic linkage is down, this is an (alpha/beta) bond
alpha linkage
If an acid has a high negative charge, disassociation of it in water will occur (more or less)
lesser (relatively)
gamma decay is the emission of ____ from the nucleus
photons
Reactions that creat gaseous products from solids/liquids but have a (+/-) delta S
(+) S
Do introns or exons code for genes? or both?
Just exons
The promoter is /is not usually located in the intron
is not usually
________ is used to measure the expression of mRNA products in a cell
RT-qPCR
______ is the only step of cellular respiration, in which NAD+ is not reduced, and NADH is not oxidized
Chemiosmosis (the movement of protons across the membrane)
This portion of the collecting duct (of the kidney) is the last spot where reabsorption can occur
The Medullary portion (and thus, has the most concentrated glomerular filtrate)
Free energy (does/ does not) correlate with enzyme activity because it is NOT a measure of reaction rate/activity
does NOT
hydrophobic molecules pass through the cell membrane via what means?
simple diffusion (think: the inside of the cell is hydrophobic)
micro_______ bind to chromosomes at the kinetochore and regulate their migration toward the opposite poles of the cell during anaphase
tubules
the molecule that enters glycolysis is ….
glucose
mature erythrocytes (do/do not) contain DNA
do not contain DNA
______ are located between the endothelial cells and the matrix and they do not have direct contact with circulating blood.
Pericytes
Telomeres are found on eukarytoic and bacterial DNA (T or F)
False, only in Eurkaryotic DNA (bacterial DNA is circular)
phosphodiester bonds of DNA/RNA are linked by what pieces?
The sugar of one, and the phosphate group of the other ( in the way so that the 5’ end bears a phosphate group, and the 3’ end bears a hydroxyl group)
high levels of circulating glucocorticoids increases _______ degradation
protein (which then leads to muscle weakness)
What is the correlation between immune function and glucocorticoids?
glucocorticoids suppress immune function (decreased WBCs)
Explain what parts make up the endomembrane system
nucleus, ER, golgi, lysosomes
____ effect refers to the tendency to remember items presented first
The primacy effect
This refers to remembering information better when you are in a similar situation to when that information was first acquired
The State Dependency Effect
This occurs when a persons recall of memories of ane vent becomes less accurate because of more information following the event
Misinformation effect
The idea that verbal and visual information are processed differently, and that utilizing both leads to information being utilized better is known as
Dual Coding Effect
The _____ ______ theory states that we may remember things that were not actually tested, based off of our world and connections
spreading of activation theory (people organize the knowledge of their world based off of their personal experience)
a _______ ______ error occurs when the source of a memory is incorrectly attributed to some specific recollected experience
a source monitoring error
_____ effect is when you recall items later in a list easier than items earlier in the list
recency effect
The reticular formation is found : ______ and is concerned with functions involving arousal, particularly sleep-wake cycle, and attention.
deep in the brainstem
Describe the difference between mechanical and electrically gated channels? (in regard to sound propagation)
vibration of hair cells creates tension within the cell membrane that directly activates ion channels: this is mechanically gated
a change in membrane potential dis related to an electrically gated channel
The idea of excusing our behavior, but judging another persons behavior harshly is best described as
the actor-observer bias
Increases in the electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased ________ arousal (sympathetic or parasympathetic)
sympathetic
According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) what is the typically course of a stress response
alarm/stress–> resistance/body defense–>fatigue/exhaustion (doesn’t matter what kind of stressor is, we follow the same pattern)
Motor tasks require proper functionng of the :
A. cerebellum
B. cochlea
C. hypothalamus
D. hippocampus
A. cerebellum
(cochlea is auditory inputs, hypothalamus is the 4 F’s, hippocampus is mainly memory)
Explain : social facilitation
People perform simple tasks better when in the presence of others
the idea of group _______ is one in which peoples ideas become more extreme after being around others with similar ideas
polarization
Is a triad or a dyad more stable (in regard to social relationships and dynamics)
triad (whereas in a dyad either person can break the tie, in a triad, it is more difficult)
What is a mixed methods study?
Uses BOTH qualitative and quantitative methods
systematic observation of a complete social environment is referring to ______ methods
ethnographic
____________ methods involve comparing an organization, geographic region, government, or other entity
comparative
________ methods involve the manipulation of an independent variable and random assignment to different groups
experimental
________ methods involve respondents providing responses to a questionnaire
survey
The inner membrane of a mitochondria in Eukaryotes is analogous to ______ in prokaryotes
plasma membrane
The critical point on a phase change diagram refers to
when there is no distinction between its liquid and gaseous states
Does a strong acid or weak acid conduct electricity better?
Since a strong acid has more ions, it’s solution is better at conducting electricity
Describe the difference between an agonist and an antagonist
An AGONIST activates the receptor to perform it’s function; An ANTAGONIST blocks the biochemical function of the protein it binds to
By definition, electric field lines exit from ________ and enter _______ charges
positive–> negative
What is the charge of an axon?
Negatively charged!
What type of reaction is this:
2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Oxidation/reduction (can be seen by Mg changing oxidation state from 0–> +2)
temperature and resisitvity are (directly/inversely) proportional
directly proprotional
Where do C=C double bonds show up on spectroscopy
Around 1650
all enzymes are chiral compounds (T or F)
true!
Sublimation (in regard to water) is going from (state) to (state)
solid–> gas
in column chromatography, what elutes first?
the nonpolar compounds
Cooperative processes are represented by what type of graph line structure?
Sigmoidal
What is the relationship between boiling point and vapor pressure?
in comparing two liquids at same temperature, the one with the lower boiling point with have the higher vapor pressure
What parts make up a storage lipid?
A triacylglycerol (or three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol)
Boyles Law is :
The relationship between Pressure and Volume (they have an inverse relationship)
Charles Law is :
The relationship between Temperature and Volume (they are directly proportional)
What is a covalent coordinate bond?
Rather than each atom donating an electron to the bond, one of the atoms in the bond provides both of the electrons to be donated
How are bond strength and bond energy related?
The strength of a bond is directly proportional to its bond energy, with shorter bonds being stronger than longer bonds
Would a C-H bond or a C-C bond be LEAST polar?
C-C is considered the least polar as there is no difference in electronegativity between the atoms
How to convert a difference in decibels to a ratio of the two
Say th difference in decibels is 20dB, this means the decimal log of their ratio is (2), and so then you take 10^2, which gives you a ratio of 100.
If a lens has a negative focal length, what does this imply about the type of lens (converging/diverging)
The lens would be diverging, and this sort of lens forms a virtual and reduced image
Differences between ADH and Aldosterone?
ADH- think water is reabsorbed
Aldosterone- think salt is reabsorbed (and water follows)
How do adipocytes respond to changing conditions- via
1) altering their size
2) undergoing mitosis
They alter their size, and are unlikely to undergo mitosis
The DNA backbone is formed by what type of bonds?
Phosphodiester
Where are hydrogen bonds found within the DNA structure?
They connect the complementary base pairs
If a potassium channel is blocked, how would this alter an action potential
The action potential would be prolonged, as the potassium channel helps to repolarize the cell
_______ is an essential player in protein homeostasis by serving to rapidly remove unwanted or damaged proteins (does this via a proteosome)
ubiquitination
T or F; hydrogen peroxide is a source of ROS (reactive oxygen species) generation
True, it is
What is the duty of the collecting duct?
To concentrate urine (this is regulated by aquaporin proteins that mediate water reabsorption from the urine
T or F, viruses contain DNA/RNA
YEs, true!
Once nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine, where do they go next?
Directly to the liver (via hepatic portal vein)
The brain is derived from (ectoderm/endoderm/mesoderm)
the ectoderm
The heart/kidney/ skeletal muscle are derived from the _______
mesoderm
______these are organelles that serve as the primary microtubule organizing center of a cell
centrosome (and this is where microtubules originate)
_______ theory broadly calls attention to competition among social groups at a macro level
Conflict
___________ calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification.
Intersectionality
What is the name of the idea that language shapes thought, and that speakers of different languages thus perceive the world differently
The Linguistic Relativity Hypothesis
A _____ is an organizing pattern of thought that is used to categorize and interpret information (therefore shaping individual attitudes and perspectives)
Schema
If you are given Vmax and the concentration of the enzyme, how do you find Kcat?
Kcat = Vmax/[E]
____ _____ occurs when proper randomization for a participant sample is not achieved
selection bias
Erikson’s competence vs. inferiority stage is what age?
6-11 yrs old
Erikson’s initiative vs. guilt stage is what age?
ages 3-5yrs old
Freud’s ‘Anal Stage’ spans what years?
AGes 1-3yrs
Freud’s latency Stage spnas what years?
Ages 7-11
____ ____ refers to the tendency to attribute one’s own successes to internal attributes and failures to situational factors
self serving bias
What is ‘escape learning’?
Behavior which results in the termination of an aversive stimulus
_____ ______is a measure of the energy released when the compound is combusted with oxygen.
The heat of combustion (More stable isomeric compounds will have lower heats of combustion), This refers to the actual energy required to break the bonds
In a uniform field, how are electric field lines spaced?
In a uniform field, equally
Which below is an oxidizing agent?
NADH or FAD
FAD (NADH is a reducing agent)
What is the structure of a steroid?
4 carbon rings fused together
What is the mass of water?
18 amu
The ______ of a wave is a characteristic of the wave source, not the medium through which the wave propogates
frequency
In anaerobic conditions, pyruvate will be metabolized to ____ _____
lactic acid
Slow twitch or fast twitch fibers will have more mitochondria?
Slow twitch will (since they are more adapted to aerobic exercise)
The lower the ionization energy, the (Less/more) reactive that species will be?
higher ionization= less reactive, lower ionization energy= more reactive
Ligase binds DNA and _____ (via what sort of bond)
DNA (via phosphodiester)
phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in …
glycolysis
What is the portion of the nephron that circulates proteins??
The glomerulus
Would blood pressure be lower in a capillary or a vein?
in a vein
An ionic bond is likely to form between elements of very high and ______ electronegativity
very low
Sleep spindles are characteristic of whcih sleep stage
stage 2
