Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Which researcher was known for ablations, to study brains in the absence of its entirety?

A

Pierre Flourens

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2
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington introduced the existence of ____

A

synapses

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3
Q

Paul BRoca studied _____ deficits in people with BRain damage

A

Behavioral

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4
Q

Hermann von Helmholtz was the first person to measure the speed of a ______ _________

A

nerve impulse

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5
Q

Functionalism, the study of how mental processes help people adapt, was formed by which two researchers?

A

William James and John Dewey

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6
Q

Franz Gall is known for the idea that

A

if a particular trait is well developed, that part of the brain is larger

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7
Q

Constricted pupils and salivation are association with which branch of the autonomic nervous system

A

Parasympathetic

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8
Q

Which branch of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for transmitting information through skin and muscles?

A

Somatic

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9
Q

T or F: The Autonomic Nervous System regulates temperature control

A

True. The ANS is responsible for ‘automatic’ functions

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10
Q

Sensory neurons transmit sensory info from receptors to the brain, and are also called _______ ___________

A

Afferent Neurons

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11
Q

Motor neurons transmit motor info to the brain and are also called _______ _______

A

Efferent Neurons

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12
Q

The spinal cord is part of the _______ nervous system

A

Central

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13
Q

Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for controlling balance and general arousal process (sleeping/waking)

A

Hindbrain

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14
Q

Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for receives sensory and motor information from the body?

A

Midbrain (think Motor/Mid)

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15
Q

Which part of the brain (hind, mid, or fore) is responsible for complex perceptual and cognitive processes?

A

Forebrain

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16
Q

What are the Four (F) Functions of the Hypothalamus?

A

-Feeding
-Fighting
-Flighting
-sexual Functioning

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17
Q

When the Lateral Hypothalamus (LH) is removed…

A

one Lacks Hunger (LH)

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18
Q

When the VentroMedial Hypothalamus (VMH) is removed…

A

one is Very Much Hungry (VMH)

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19
Q

Frontal lobe is known for ______ function

A

executive

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20
Q

The parietal lobe is known for

A

touch, temperature, pain (think: pain/parietal)

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21
Q

The occipital lobe is known for

A

vision (occ/eyes)

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22
Q

Temporal lobe is known for

A

Hearing (ears are by temples)

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23
Q

Left brain is known for

A

analyzing, logic, language

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24
Q

Right brain is known for

A

creativity, music, etc

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25
Q

Catecholamines (epi, norepi, dopa) all play an important role in the experience of _______

A

Emotions

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26
Q

This portion of the pituitary gland is what releases hormones

A

Anterior

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27
Q

The Hypothalamus maintains

A

Homeostasis (H/H)

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28
Q

These receptors respond to electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum

A

photoreceptors

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29
Q

These receptors respond to pressure or movement

A

mechanoreceptors

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30
Q

These receptors respond to painful of noxious stimuli (somatosensation)

A

nocioceptors

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31
Q

_____ is the minimum amount of a stimulus that renders a difference in perception

A

threshold

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32
Q

This theory studies how psychological and environmental factors influence thresholds of sensation and perception

A

signal detection theory

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33
Q

(cones or rods) are for color vision

A

cones

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34
Q

(cones or rods) function best in reduced light

A

rods (RODuced light)

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35
Q

The white, visible portion of the eye is known as the

A

sclera

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36
Q

The ear is responsible for our ______ sense, our ability to sense rotational and linear acceleration and inform our sense of balance

A

vestibular sense

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37
Q

The cartilaginous outer part of the ear is known as

A

the pinna

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38
Q

Kinesthetic sense, also called ________ , refers to our ability to tell where ones body is in space

A

proprioception

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39
Q

_________ processing is essentially when the brain takes the individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is?

A

bottom- up

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40
Q

__________ processing allows us to quickly recognize objects without needing to analyze their specific parts

A

top-down

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41
Q

Gestalt principles ….

A

allow the brain to make a complete picture out of incomplete information

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42
Q

Repeated exposure to the same stimulus can cause a decrease in response, known as ________

A

habituation

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43
Q

a stimulus to weak to elicit a response is called a _________ stimulus

A

subthreshold

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44
Q

This type of learning is the creation of an association

A

Associative learning

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45
Q

The two types of associative learning are

A

classical conditioning, and operant conditioning

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46
Q

The process of using a unconditioned stimulus to turn a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus is called _______

A

acquisition

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47
Q

________ refers to the loss of a conditioned response (i.e with Pavlov’s dogs, the bell rings and they don’t get meat, they will stop salivating)

A

extinction

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48
Q

______ conditioning examines the way in which consequences of voluntary behaviors change the frequency of those behaviors

A

operant conditioning

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49
Q

______ _______ increases the frequency of a behavior by adding a positive consequence following the desired behavior

A

positive reinforcement

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50
Q

_______ _________increases the frequency of a behavior by removing something unpleasant

A

negative reinforcement

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51
Q

____ ______ adds an unpleasant consequence in response to a behavior that reduces that behavior

A

positive punishment (think getting a ticket for parking illegally)

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52
Q

_____ _________ removes a stimulus in order to cause the reduction of a behavior

A

negative punishment (no tv because a child was being bad)

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53
Q

if you are encouraging behavior in any way (with a stimulus or with the removal of one) this is______

A

reinforcement behavior

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54
Q

What reinforcement schedule works best for learning a new behavior & (is very resistant to extinction)

A

variable- ratio schedule (VI)

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55
Q

This mnemonic technique involves associating each item in a list with a location in a place

A

method of loci

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56
Q

This type of memory consists of our skills, habits, and conditioned responses

A

implicit memory

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57
Q

This type of memory refers to memories that require conscious recall

A

explicit memory

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58
Q

This brain disorder is degenerative thought to be linked to loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to the hippocampus

A

alzheimers

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59
Q

This is a term that references an increase in dysfunction in the later afternoon and evening

A

sundowning (in alzheimers patients)

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60
Q

______- syndrome is a form of memory loss caused by a deficiency in thiamine

A

Korsakoff’s

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61
Q

Piaget’s First Stage of Development

A

Sensorimotor

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62
Q

This stage of Piaget’s states that include primary circular reactions (continuous actions), and secondary circular reactions (repeated movements/actions)

A

Sensorimotor

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63
Q

Object Permanence is part of what stage of Piaget’s

A

Sensorimotor (peek-a-boo)

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64
Q

This stage of Piaget’s lasts from age 2-7 and is characterized by symbolic thinking, and egocentrism

A

Preoperational Stage

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65
Q

Symbolic thinking, in the preoperational stage, refers to

A

the ability to play make-believe/have an imagination

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66
Q

At this stage, kids cannot grasp the idea of conservation (tall vase, wide vase, same amount of water problem)

A

Pre-operational

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67
Q

______ is the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon, and ignore other elements

A

Centration (present in preopeational years)

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68
Q

This stage of development is when children understand conservation, and can think more about others

A

Concrete Operational (7-11)

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69
Q

At this stage of development, children cannot yet think abstractly

A

Concrete Operational

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70
Q

This stage of development includes abstract thinking and problem solving

A

Formal Operational (11+)

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71
Q

______ bias is the tendency to focus on information that fits an individuals beliefs, while rejecting information that goes against them

A

confirmation bias

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72
Q

______ bias is the tendency for people to overestimate their ability to predict the outcome that already happened

A

hindsight bias

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73
Q

this idea is refers to the inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence of the contrary

A

belief perseverance

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74
Q

These brain waves occur when a person is alert and concentrating

A

Beta

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75
Q

These brain waves occur when we are awake but relaxed with eyes closed

A

Alpha

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76
Q

Stage 1 of sleep (known as NREM1) is associated with which brain waves

A

Theta

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77
Q

In stage 3 of sleep (NREM3), or slow-wave sleep, these waves are seen

A

Delta

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78
Q

What is a classic example of epigenetics?

A

Methylation (the addition of a methyl group)– inhibits activation of a gene

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79
Q

What portion of the brain links the nervous system to the endocrine system

A

Hypothalamus

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80
Q

The Estrogen secreted from the ovaries before ovulation is enough to stimulate the release of what two other hormones?

A

GnRH which then stimulates LH to be released ( an ex. of positive feedback)

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81
Q

Progesterone is triggered when it senses that ____ levels are too high

A

LH

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82
Q

Once progesterone is secreted due to high levels of LH, it works to inhibit further production of

A

GnRH and thus, LH

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83
Q

The base of Maslow’s hierarchy is ________ needs

A

Physiological

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84
Q

After physiological needs are met, according to Maslow, we need ______

A

Safety

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85
Q

This stage of Maslow’s hierarchy is thought of as the ‘social needs’ level, and is above physiological and safety

A

Love

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86
Q

This is the second to the top of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

Self-Esteem

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87
Q

Reaching your maximum potential would be associated with which level of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

Self-Actualization

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88
Q

The Incentive Theory focuses on _____________ ________

A

Positive Reinforcement

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89
Q

Attitude can be broken down into 3 pieces

A

Affective (emotion), Behavioral (actions), Cognitive (belief) — The ABC Model of Attitude

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90
Q

The idea that we consider the implications of our actions before we decide how to behave is best known as the …

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

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91
Q

The Attitude to Behavior theory states that

A

An event triggers an attitude (an influence on perception), which will then lead to a behavior

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92
Q

Behavior is a function of our past behavior, our attitudes, subjective norms, intentions, willingness, and models– This is best demonstrated by the ____

A

The Prototype Willingness Model

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93
Q

The tendency to agree to small actions, and over time to agree to larger actions

A

Foot in the Door phenomenon

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94
Q

How do we deal with cognitive dissonance?

A

1- Alter via modification, 2- Trivialize the issues, 3- Adding another cognition, 4- Denying cognitions altogether

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95
Q

The _______ Theory states that our childhood experiences and unconscious desires influence our behaviors

A

Psychoanalytic

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96
Q

_____ is part of our conscious and unconscious mind

A

The ego

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97
Q

_____ develops around the age of 4, and is our moral compass

A

superego

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98
Q

If there is a problem with gratification at a particular psychosexual stage, this can cause _____

A

fixation

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99
Q

The Humanistic Theory focuses on the ________, and that humans are ultimately ______

A

conscious, good

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100
Q

Rogers states that ________ is nurtured in a “growth-promoting climate”

A

self-actualization

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101
Q

Growth is nurtured through being ____ and receive ______

A

genuine, acceptance

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102
Q

Biologic Theory states that our personalities are mostly _____, but are also influenced by ______

A

inherited, environment

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103
Q

________ ____________ is the degree to which someone assumes mastery and leadership roles in a social situation

A

Social Potency

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104
Q

This theory states that personality is a result of an interaction between and individual and their environment

A

Behavioral Theory

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105
Q

This psychologist of behavioral theory is known for coining the term” operant conditioning”- uses rewards/punishments to increase/decrease behavior

A

Skinner

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106
Q

The Father of Behaviorism

A

Pavlov

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107
Q

Classical conditioning was coined by _____

A

Pavlov

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108
Q

To place a neutral stimuli with an unconditioned stimulus to trigger an involuntary response is a description of ____ _____

A

Classical Conditioning

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109
Q

This Theory is a bridge between behavioral theory and other thinking/mental based theories

A

Cognitive Theory

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110
Q

This theory identifies personality by patterns of behavior through description

A

Trait Theory

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111
Q

Cattell theorizes that we each have a subset of traits from a large list of what is possible ( T or F)

A

False, Allport stated this. Cattell theorizes that we all have all traits, and can be categorized into 16 groupings

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112
Q

_____ traits influence our behavior

A

Cardinal

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113
Q

This theorist states that we all have 3 major dimensions of personality that encompass all traits, and we express them to different degrees

A

Eysenck

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114
Q

The three dimensions that Eysenck divides personality into are:

A

-Extraversion
-Neuroticism
-Psychoticism

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115
Q

The Big 5 Personality traits are:

A

-Openness
-Conscientiousness
-Extraversion
-Agreeableness
-Neuroticism
(use acronym O.C.E.A.N)

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116
Q

The ___ ______ by Albert Bandura shows that children imitate/mimic what they see

A

Bobo Doll Experiment

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117
Q

____ _____ ____ is the idea that you can learn a behavior but that doesn’t mean that you will perform that behavior

A

Learning- Performance Distinction

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118
Q

What are the four components of Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory?

A

A ttention
M emory
I mitation
M otivation
(AM I Motivated?)

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119
Q

This type of defense mechanism is one that distorts reality so that a person can deal with the situation

A

Pathological Defense Mecanism

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120
Q

This type of defense mechanism is one where a person pretends that a situation is actually not occuring

A

Denial defense mechanism

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121
Q

Projection is an example of a _____ defense mechanism, which is shifting ones own feelings to someone else

A

immature

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122
Q

If someone has someone elses feelings being projected onto them, and they begin to act in that manner, this is known as

A

Projective Identification

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123
Q

____ is thedefense mechanism/ idea of convincing ourselves that we are at no fault

A

rationalization

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124
Q

This defense mechanism is one in which a capable person begins to act like they were at a younger stage of life

A

Regression

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125
Q

Channeling negative energy into positive energy is a mature defense mechanism known as

A

sublimation

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126
Q

The pleasure principle is a (immature/mature) way of getting gratification

A

Immature (“I want it now”) vs,. the Reality Principle (“ I have to wait for this”)

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127
Q

The life drive can be known as _____ and the death drive can be known as _____

A

Eros, Thanatos

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128
Q

Patterns of abnormal functions are known as

A

syndromes

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129
Q

“Basic” functions of the nervous system could be grouped into these three categories

A
  1. motor
  2. sensory
  3. automatic
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130
Q

In a caste system, there is a high amount of social mobility (T or F)

A

False, they don’t often have any mobility, but they do have social stability

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131
Q

In a meritocracy, there (IS/ IS NOT) a lot of social stability

A

IS NOT (moving up and down constantly, so alot of social mobility, but not stability)

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132
Q

The idea that we are reproducing the social inequality across generations is known as

A

social reproduction

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133
Q

The ______ phenomenon essentially says that good things happen to good people and that bad things happen to bad people

A

the just world phenomenon

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134
Q

Sensory information about pressure is known as

A

mechanoception

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135
Q

Sensory information about bodies location in space is known as

A

proprioception

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136
Q

This sort of processing is data driven, and a stimulus influences the perception

A

Bottom-Up processing

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137
Q

This sort of processing uses past experiences to influence perception

A

Top-Down processing

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138
Q

Reality is often organized or reduced to simplest form possible is which Gestalt principle

A

The law of Pragranz

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139
Q

Lines are seen as following the smoothest path, is which Gestalt principle?

A

The Law of Continuity

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140
Q

The Cornea is protected by the

A

Conjuctiva

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141
Q

What features in the eye bend the light?

A

Cornea, lens

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142
Q

What part of the eye is colored?

A

The Iris

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143
Q

When light hits a rod, what occurs? and what is this known as?

A

The rod turns off, which then turns on a bipolar cell.. which then turns on a retinal ganglion cell which then goes to the optic nerve and then brain. This is known as the phototransduction cascade.

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144
Q

Cones are able to adapt (fast/slow) to changes in light

A

Cones adapt FAST to an increase in light, whereas Rods take much longer to adapt

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145
Q

At the Fovea, you have light directly hitting the cones, and not going through axons (T or F)

A

True

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146
Q

What is the point at which the optic nerves converge?

A

The Optic Chiasm

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147
Q

The light that hits the (temporal/nasal) side does not cross in the optic chiasm

A

temporal

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148
Q

The (parvo/magno) pathway looks more blurry and you are still able to make out the image while in motion

A

Magno pathway

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149
Q

The ______ pathway is a big part of the reward circuit in the brain

A

mesolimbic

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150
Q

Intoxication is referring to the behavioral and _____ effects on a person

A

psychological

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151
Q

With Caffeine you (CAN/CANNOT) develop a substance use disorder

A

Cannot (it doesnt activate the brains reward circuit)

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152
Q

____ attention is illuminating one particular aspect, and ignoring the other aspects

A

selective

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153
Q

_____- blindness is when you miss something right in front of you

A

inattentional

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154
Q

____-blindness is when you fail to notice a different from a previous state to a current state

A

change

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155
Q

_______ is when exposure to one stimulus influences a response to another stimulus

A

priming

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156
Q

The _________________ is when you hear your name from a conversation far away and become tuned to it, even though you were previously not listening to the conversation

A

cocktail party effect

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157
Q

long term memory capacity has a limit to how much information it can store (T or F)

A

False, it is unlimited

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158
Q

_______ is the a encoding technique that groups new information into meaningful units

A

Chunking

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159
Q

Emotional memories that are vivid and surprising/shocking can be thought of as

A

flashbulb memories

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160
Q

synaptic ______ is the ability of synapses to change their strength

A

plasticity

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161
Q

a stronger synapse and increase in strength is called

A

long term potentiation (the way that learning occurs)

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162
Q

Korsakoff’s Syndrome is related to a lack of ____ in the brain

A

B1 (thiamine)

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163
Q

The precursor to Korsakoff’s Syndrome is

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

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164
Q

Assimilation is..

A

putting information into the schema you already have…. Think: same schema (aSSimilation)

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165
Q

Accomodation is …

A

putting information into an old schema or creating a new one (think… aCComodation, change or create)

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166
Q

A ______ in a mental shortcut that allows us to find a solution more quickly to a problem

A

Heuristic

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167
Q

_________ intelligence is our ability to reason quickly and abstractly

A

Fluid

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168
Q

If Broca’s area is damaged you get..

A

Broca’s aphasia, think broken speech

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169
Q

If Wernicke’s area is damaged, you get…

A

Wernicke’s aphasia, words come out, but not in an order of sense

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170
Q

Vygotsky thought that language and thought were _______ but that they converged through development

A

independent

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171
Q

The _____ perspective of language development is that children are born with the ability to learn language. _____ is the founder of this idea

A

nativist, noam chomsky

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172
Q

This theory states that children are not born with language skills, but rather they develop it only through reinforcement

A

The Learning theory

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173
Q

This theory states that language development is based off the interaction between biological and social factors. Who is associated with this school of thought?

A

Interactionist Theory, Vygotsky

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174
Q

This stage of Erickson’s stages is from 18months to 3 years

A

Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt

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175
Q

What years of life encompass Erickson’s third stage of Initiative vs. Guilt

A

3yrs to 6yrs of age

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176
Q

This stage of Erickson’s is from infancy until 18months

A

Trust vs. Mistrust

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177
Q

This stage of Erickson’s is from ages 6yrs to 12yrs

A

Industry vs. Inferiority (4th stage)

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178
Q

This stage of Erickson’s is #5, Identity vs. Role Confusion, and this happens at what ages of life?

A

12yrs to 18yrs

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179
Q

Stage 6 of Ericksons occurs at 18yrs- 35yrs, and is what name?>

A

Intimacy vs. Isolation

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180
Q

Erickson’s Generativity vs. Stagnation is what ages of life

A

35yrs to 60 yrs

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181
Q

What is Erickson’s last stage of development

A

Integrity vs. Despair (60yrs+)

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182
Q

The idea that all memories fade over time is known as

A

trace decay theory

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183
Q

Difficulties in trusting and depending on others is one of the primary characteristics of an ______ attachment style

A

avoidant

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184
Q

____ ____ is the our ability to sense perception, and its change over time.

A

webers law

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185
Q

A/an _________ variable represents the phenomenon that a research study seeks to explain.

A

dependent

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186
Q

A/an ________ variable explains the variance in the phenomenon observed in a study.

A

indpendent

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187
Q

_________ _____ theory focuses on how an individual might learn behaviors, that are considered as deviant in larger society, from their close social environment

A

Differential Association Theory

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188
Q

This is a type of long term memory that involves the capacity to recall words, concepts, numbers (typically associated with facts and knowledge)

A

semantic memory

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189
Q

Fixed Ratio reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after___

A

a fixed number of behavioral responses

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190
Q

Variable ratio reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after

A

a variable number of behavioral respones

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191
Q

Fixed interval reinforcement schedules means that reinforcement occurs after

A

a fixed amount of time has elapsed

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192
Q

Variable interval reinforcement schedules mean that reinforcement occurs after

A

a variable amount of time has passed

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193
Q

Which reinforcement schedule is most prone to extinction?

A

Fixed interval

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194
Q

Which reinforcement schedule is most resistant to extinction? (and produces the highest response rate)

A

Variable ratio

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195
Q

When Freud refers to Id, he is referring to

A

the part of us related to instinct (repulsion, impulse, pleasure)

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196
Q

When Freud refers to superego, he is referring to

A

the judgemental, and morally correct aspect of personality

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197
Q

When Freud refers to ego, he is referring to

A

our concious personality, that mediates between our id and our superego and makes decisions

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198
Q

Freud coined this theory, and it encompasses id, superego, and ego

A

Psychodynamic/Psychoanalytic theory

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199
Q

Esterification is the reaction in which a _____ and an acid produce an ester and water

A

an alcohol

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200
Q

The James-Lange Theory of emotion is:

A

stimulus–> physical reaction–>emotion (think, it takes a long (lange) time to get to the emotional response, have to wait for the physical)

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201
Q

The ___________theory of emotion that is stimulus –> cognitive appraisal–>physical reaction & emotion

A

Lazarus Theory of emotion

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202
Q

The __________ theory of emotion is one that is stimulus –> physical reaction & emotion

A

Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion (think: cannon goes boom; everything happens at once)

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203
Q

The Schacter-Singer Theory of Emotion is :

(think t”wo factor Schacter”)

A

stimulus –> physical reaction –> cognitive appraisal –> emotion

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204
Q

The idea of : seeing a snake–> and feeling fear and heart rate increase occur at the same time

A

This demonstrates the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion

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205
Q

The idea of: seeing a bear –> HR increases–> feeling fear

A

This demonstrates the James-Lange Theory of emotion

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206
Q

This area of the brain is involve in forming and retrieving memories

A

Hippocampus

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207
Q

The Malthusian Theory argues what about population growth?

A

That population growth will eventually outstrip all resources, leading to poverty and famine

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208
Q

If researchers pose as patients in a study, this would be an example of a…

A

embedded field study

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209
Q

a ___ variable is one that explains the relationship between two other variables

A

a mediating variable

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210
Q

a _______ variable is one that modulates the intensity of a certain relationship

A

a moderating variable

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211
Q

Endorphins are produced where in our body?

A

Anterior Pituitary

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212
Q

in regard to drug withdrawal, what is a typical pupillary response?

A

pupillary dilation

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213
Q

This person is known for a study he published on the genetics of personality

A

Hans Eysenck

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214
Q

_______ bias refers to the way in which participants drop out of a long term study over time

A

attrition

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215
Q

This type of stress can be defined as neutral, and it has not impact on your body, whether good or bad

A

neustress

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216
Q

An informal norm that governs society can best be thought of as a

A

folkway

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217
Q

The Kinsey Scale ( a measure of sexual behavior) goes from 0-6, what do 0,3, and 6 represent

A

0: exclusively heterosexual
3: Bisexual
6: exclusively homosexual

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218
Q

When asking someone to recall information word for word in real time while other stimuli are going–this is an example of

A

shadowing

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219
Q

language processsing occurs in the ____ hemisphere

A

left

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220
Q

The phenomena that suggests we best remember the first and last items in a list (and not so much the middle) is known as

A

the serial position effect

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221
Q

glycolysis produces how many moleucles of ATP per one glucose ?

A

2

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222
Q

This derivation of lymphocyte can recognize and kill cancer cells

A

natural killer cells

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223
Q

______- is the intensity a stimulus must have in order to be accurately deteceted at least 50% of the time

A

absolute threshold

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224
Q

_____- is the intensity a stimulus must have in order to be sensed by the body

A

threshold

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225
Q

____ states that the threshold for detecting a change in stimulus is a constant ratio

A

Weber’s Law

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226
Q

What are Lawrence Kohlbergs therories of moral development?

A

Level 1: Preconventional Morality
Level 2: Conventional Morality
Level 3: Postconventional Morality

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227
Q

This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is devoted to avoiding punishment/ in ones own self interest

A

Level 1: Preconventional morality

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228
Q

This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is devoted to adhering to social norms/social approval

A

Level 2: Conventional Morality

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229
Q

This level of Kohlbergs theory of morality is beahvior that is driven by a balance of social order and/or an internal moral compass

A

Level 3: Postconventional morality

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230
Q

cholesterol is the precursor to what in the digestive tract?

A

bile salts

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231
Q

The exocrine pancreas releases its contents into the ___

A

digestive tract

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232
Q

The endocrine pancreas release is contents into the ______

A

bloodstream

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233
Q

What part of the digestive tract is where initial protein digsetion occurs

A

the mouth and stomach

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234
Q

What part of the digestive tract is where most of the nutrient digestion and absorption occur?

A

small intestine

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235
Q

This part of the digestive tract is thought to be a reservoir for healthy gut bacteria

A

appendix

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236
Q

Lipids are broken down into fatty acids by

A

glycerol

237
Q

carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides by

A

amylase

238
Q

once fatty acids are broken down, they are absorbed by _______

A

enterocytes, and incorporated into chylomicrons

239
Q

chylomicrons are found in which circulatory system

A

lymphatic system (they are too large to enter the bloodstream)

240
Q

The citric acid cycle occurs in the

A

mitochondrial matrix

241
Q

fatty acids undergo beta oxidation, which occurs in the

A

mitochondrial matrix

242
Q

What is the intermediate that links glycolysis, the krebs cycle, and fatty acid oxidation?

A

Acetyl-coA

243
Q

Disulfide linkages affect which stages of protein folding?

A

Tertiary + Quartenary structures

244
Q

How are polypeptides degraded into their residues (and amino and carbonyl groups are released)

A

Via Hydrolysis (water is added, and

245
Q

what is the difference between a germ and somatic cell?

A

somatic cells are any cell not involved in the production of gametes, germ cells produce gametes

246
Q

Viruses require _______ to reproduce

A

a host cell

247
Q

a form of bacterial replication that requires a sex pilus and transfer throught that to another bacteria is known as

A

conjugation (it is dependent on the F factor [fertility factor])

248
Q

What is the formula for calculating the period of a wavelength?

A

T(period)= 1/f (freq.)

249
Q

What are the exponents in a second order reaction?

A

They must add up to equal 2

250
Q

A Higher Ka value indicates what?

A

A stronger base (ability to lose protons more easily)

251
Q

An indicator for titrations change color within how much change of their pka

A

1

252
Q

What equation is used to calculate the pKa of something?q

A

Henderson Hasslebalch (pH = pKa + log([Conjugate Base]/[Acid])

253
Q

At the Half-Equivalence point (the point at which half of the acid in the buffer has reacted with the titrant), the buffering capacity is ______ and the pH is _____ to the pKa

A

maximal, equal to

254
Q

at the equivalence point, the number of moles of added acid _______ to the number of moles of added base

A

is equal to

255
Q

The number of peaks on a proton NMR is equal to the number of sets of ______ hydrogens

A

equivalent (if all hydrogens are in the same environments, there will be just one peak on the NMR)

256
Q

polar protic solvents (like ethanol) are most conducive to what sort of organic reaction?

A

SN1 (anything that will stabilize a carbocation will favor SN1 over SN2)

257
Q

SN1 reactions proceed via ___ ___

A

carbocation intermediates

258
Q

What is the rate limiting step of SN1 is

A

the formation of a carbocation

259
Q

An SN2 reaction will do what to the configuration

A

It will invert it

260
Q

The existence of unpaired electrons causes (paramagnetism/ diamagnetism)

A

paramagnetic

261
Q

_______ is the process in which triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids

A

saponification

262
Q

1/f = 1/do + 1/di
this is the equation for

A

The thin lens equation

263
Q

This equation: n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2 is snell’s law. what do each of the components stand for?

A

n1 is the index of refraction of the incident medium, n2 is the index of refraction of the refractive medium, and θ1 and θ2 are the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction, respectively.

264
Q

How are phospholipids and glycolipids different

A

Glycolipids: contain a glycerol, 2 fatty acids and a sugar portion

Phospholipids: contain a glycerol, 2 fatty acids, and a phosphate portion

265
Q

700 nm wavelength is what color? and what color would it appear?

A

Red; green

266
Q

The wavelength of ____ light is between 400 and 500 nm

A

blue light

267
Q

_____ always occurs at the anode

A

oxidation

268
Q

_____ always occurs at the cathode

A

reduction

269
Q

What is the equation for kinetic energy?

A

KE = (1/2)mv2

270
Q

The Total Energy is made up of Potential Energy +

A

Kinetic Energy

271
Q

What is the equation for potential energy?

A

PE = mgh

272
Q

The four assumptions of the Ideal Gas Law:

A
  1. the volume of gas molecules is negligible
  2. all collosions are perfectly elastic
  3. there are no intermolecular interactions
  4. the temperature is proportional to the kinetic energy of the gas molecules
273
Q

PCC oxidizes primary alcohols to their respective…

A

aldehydes

274
Q

Molecules with trigonal bipyramidal geometries have how many sigma bonds?

A

5 σ-bonds (think: sp3d)

275
Q

sp3 hybridized correspond to

A

tetrahedral geometries

276
Q

What is the pathway for a cardiac muscular contraction?

A

SA node–> AV node–>bundle of His –> Purkinje Fibers

277
Q

What is in the space known as the ‘node of ranvier’

A

Na+ and K+ channels (which regenerate th action potential) which helps the nerve impulse to propogate much faster

278
Q

What would happen if nodes of ranvier were not present along an axon

A

The action potential would travel much slower

279
Q

One cycle of the citric acid cycle yields…?

A

1 GTP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2CO2

280
Q

one glucose molecule powers how many turns of the CAC?

A

2

281
Q

_____ pin adjacent cells together, ensuring that even cells that stretch will remain connected, they also provide anchorage sites for intermediate filaments

A

desmosomes

282
Q

____ junctions create a watertight seal, blocking water and ions

A

tight junctions

283
Q

_____ junctions act like tunnels for water and ions

A

Gap junctions

284
Q

The idea that material culture often changes faster than non-material culture is thought of as

A

cultural lag

285
Q

The idea of things we think to be immutable: race, gender, sex, class are products of human definition shaped by cultural and historical contexts

A

social constructionism

286
Q

What theory states that language development is driven by the desire of children to interact with their enviroment

A

social interactionist theory

287
Q

What theory states that children have an innate ability to speak language

A

The Nativist theory (coined by Chomsky)

288
Q

The learning Theory of language, also known as the ____- theory, is known for what

A

Behaviorist, language is acquired through operant conditioning, a trial and error of sorts

289
Q

This theory is one that believes that personalities consist of consistent and relatively stable traits

A

The Trait Theory of Personality

290
Q

The idea that our personality is fluid, changes over time, and is dependent on who we are around is known as the

A

social cognitive perspective

291
Q

This theory of personality states that our brains and components of them are what create our personality

A

Biological perspective of personality

292
Q

This theory views personality as shaped by the reinforcements and consequences outside of ourseves

A

The Behavioral Theory of personality

293
Q

a _____ ______ is a graphical representation of interconnected concepts

A

semantic network

294
Q

This concept, related to semantic networks, is the idea where activation of one concept spreads to the other nodes/concepts in the network

A

Spreading activation

295
Q

Explicit memory is a type of _____ memory

A

long term

296
Q

this type of memory includes the intentional recalling of information, facts, or concepts

A

explicit memory

297
Q

This type of memory is not stored purposefully, and is unintentionally memorized

A

implicit memory (think: childhood TV songs etc)

298
Q

What are the two categories of explicit memory?

A
  1. episodic (specific personal experiences)
  2. semantic (factual information)
299
Q

What are the four types of implicit memory and something about each of them?

A
  1. Priming
  2. Procedural (ex: riding a bike)
  3. Associative
  4. Nonassociative
300
Q

Our working memory can best be thought of as

A

a “mental workspace”myregis

301
Q

Which is more tightly condensed (heterochromatin or euchromatin)

A

heterochromatin is more tightly condensed

302
Q

Is heterochromatin or euchromatin more accessible for transcription?

A

Euchromatin

303
Q

What is the main enzyme in charge of synthesizing new DNA

A

DNA polymerase II

304
Q

In DNA replication, this enzyme is in charge of extending the RNA primers and replacing them with newly synthesized DNA

A

DNA polymerase I

305
Q

How are microRNAs and gene expression related?

A

miRNAs bind to a specific untranslated region of RNA to suppress translation of the sequence (so, involved in post-transcriptional modifications)

306
Q

snRNA bind with ribonucleoproteins to form a ________

A

spliceosome (these remove introns in post-transcriptional modifications)

307
Q

lead batteries are reliable sources that often have a (high/low) current

A

HIGH current (downfalls: limited life, heavy and toxic)

308
Q

_____ batteries are commonly used as rechargeable batteries. During charging, the anode is oxidized, producing electrons

A

nickel-cadmium

309
Q

What is the value of “R” in PV=nRT

A

8.314 J/K mol (when pressure is in kPa) OR 0.08206 Latm/molK (when pressure is in atm)

310
Q

The idea that the total pressure of a gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of individual gases is best known as

A

Daltons law (Said differently, the partial pressure of an individual gas is equal to the total pressure multiplied by the mole fraction of that gas)

311
Q

When calculating absolute configuration, you assign priority to atoms around the chiral carbon based off of what?

A

the higher the atomic #, the higher the priority

312
Q

Things to keep in mind when assigning absolute configuration to a compound

A

-Always make sure lowest priority group (typically H) is in the back. If its in the front, configuration is then opposite

313
Q

What is the difference between R and S isomers?

A

The way in which they rotate plane-polarized light!

314
Q

What is a racemic mixture?

A

Made up of 50% R enantiomers, and 50%S enantiomers- rotate light oppositely, so overall, the mixtures is optically INactive

315
Q

What is the process called of separating a racemic mixture?

A

chiral resolution

316
Q

______ are non identical stereoisomers having the same molecular formula and same connectivity but differing in their spatial arrangement

A

diastereomers (these can be optically active, but are not always)

317
Q

This theory in psychology accounts for the actions of other group members and the complex decisions of taking them into account

A

game theory

318
Q

_____ are informal rules and norms that are expected to be followed but not also not punishable

A

folkways

319
Q

____ are norms that structure the difference between right and wrong, and often have severe consequences

A

mores (think: more centered around MORality)

320
Q

The idea that our art is better, our values are more superior, our food is of higher quality than Theirs

A

ethnocentrism

321
Q

The opposite of ethnocentrism is _____

A

cultural relativism

322
Q

The idea that our culture is ours, theirs is theirs and one is not superior to the other

A

cultural relativism

323
Q

This ______ sef is often put on when a person knows that they are being watched, and their actions are subject to judegment

A

front stage self

324
Q

This version of self is still on a performance, but only in front of peers and colleagues, and therefore things are let pass that would be unacceptable in front of an audience

A

back stage self

325
Q

This law states that if A and B are in thermal equillibrium, and B and C are in thermal equilibrium, then A and C are

A

The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

326
Q

the second law of thermodynamics states that

A

the entropy (disoder) of a system is constantly increasing or staying the same (never decreasing)

327
Q

this branch of the autonomic nervous system is in charge of the GI system

A

Enteric Nervous System (it is embedded in the lining of the GI system)

328
Q

____ describes two or more variant forms of a specific DNA sequence that occurs among different individuals of a population

A

polymoprhisms

329
Q

What are the genetic results of inbreeding?

A

a decline in survival and reproductive fitness

330
Q

This refers to the mating of individuals from different populations, breeds, or species

A

Outbreeding

331
Q

This idea refers to very few people starting a new colony of sorts, which can lead to large numbers of a specific gene expressed in a population

A

The Founders Effect

332
Q

A bottleneck in genetics leads to

A

reduced genetic variation

333
Q

(gap/tight) junctions allow for communication and passage of small molecules

A

gap junctions

334
Q

If K is >1 and Delta G is <0, what occurs?

A

the reaction will proceed in the forward direction until equilibrium is reached, there will be more products at equilibrium

335
Q

If K<1 and Delta G is >0

A

the reaction will shift in the reverse and there will be more reactants at equilibrium

336
Q

a (-) Delta G, means a reaction will shift forwards or backwards?

A

the reaction will shift forwards

337
Q

Boyles law state that pressure is ______ proportional to volume (at a constant temperature )

A

inversely

338
Q

Charles Law states that volume is ______ proprotional to temperature (at a constant pressure)

A

directly

339
Q

This theory states that population growth is exponential, and all resources will be used at a certain point, and this will trigger a population decline

A

Malthusian theory

340
Q

This refers to the tendency of an animal to revert to unconcious and automatic behavior

A

instinctive drift

341
Q

The idea that we are selfish even in our interpersonal relationships (seeking to maximize selfish gain, minimize cost)

A

Social Exchange Theory

342
Q

electrons in the same orbital have _____ spins

A

opposite (pauli exclusion principle)

343
Q

This occurs when an ionic compound comes into contact with a substance sharing a common ion and thus reduces the solubility of the ionic compound

A

The Common Ion Effect

344
Q

This reaction is when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react (in acidic conditions) to form an ester

A

Transesterification

345
Q

_____ enzymes rely on inhibtitory molecules that bind to an enzyme at their allosteric site

A

allosteric enzymes

346
Q

This occurs when a molecule binds to a site other than the active site, and inhibits the substrate from fitting in the active site

A

allosteric inhibition

347
Q

This occurs when a molecule binds to a site other than the active site and this alters the active site so that the substrate can fit

A

allosteric activation

348
Q

Pepsin is secreted in it’s inactive form (pepsinogen) from the pancreas, and is converted to its active form in the stomach. This type of enzyme is known as

A

a zymogen

349
Q

When an enzyme gets phosphorylated, and this changes the conformation of its active site to active/inactive, this is known as a

A

covalently modified enzyme

350
Q

Fatty acid oxidation is the process of breaking down fatty acids into ______ units

A

acetyl Co-A

351
Q

Which enzyme initially breaks down fatty acids, and then which enzyme breaks them down in the stomach?

A

lingual lipase; gastric lipase

352
Q

Beta oxidation is a (anaerobic/aerobic) process

A

aerobic

353
Q

explain the process of anabolism of fatty acids (fatty acid synthesis)

A

citrate –>acetyl Co-A–>palmitic acid–>triglycerides

354
Q

we know protein synthesis uses a template (mRNA), what does fatty acid synthesis use? what about polysaccharide synthesis?

A

it does not have a template (known as “non-template synthesis”) **gluconeogenesis (polysaccharide synthesis) also does not use a template

355
Q

Coding of the same amino acids from codons that only differ in their third nucleotide is known as

A

wobble base pairing

356
Q

Histone acetylation leads to ….

A

acetyl groups have a negative charge, which reduces the positive charge on a histone, reducing its interaction wtih phosphate groups- leading to the histone to be more unwound, and more accessible to transcription

357
Q

Histone methylation leads to …

A

makes transcription not as accessible, by tightening the histone wrapping (condensed state)

358
Q

What is the difference between histone methylation and DNA methylation?

A

histone methylation: histone is a condensed state, not accessible to transcription
DNA methylation: genes “turned off”

359
Q

Sin of (0 degrees)=

A

0

360
Q

Sin of (30 degrees)=

A

.5

361
Q

Sin of 45 degrees =

A

.7

362
Q

Sin of 60 degrees =

A

.9

363
Q

Sin of 90 degrees=

A

1

364
Q

Sin of 180 degrees =

A

0

365
Q

Cos of 0 degrees=

A

1

366
Q

Cos of 30 degrees

A

.9

367
Q

Cos of 45 degrees

A

.7

368
Q

Cos of 60 degreees

A

.5

369
Q

Cos of 90 degrees

A

0 degrees

370
Q

Cos of 180 degrees

A

-1

371
Q

This type of enzyme inhibition occurs when the inhibitor can bind the enzyme whether or not the enzyme has already bound thes substrate

A

Mixed Inhibition

372
Q

The Jacob-Monod model of the operon is what?

A

genes are transcribed together (an operon) under the control of a single promoter

373
Q

what is the difference between pluripotent and multipotent cells?

A

pluripotent: can become any cell except for embryonic cell structures (think placental cells etc)
multipotent cells: can become any cell within the diffferentiation pathway/lineage

374
Q

____ is the ability of a bacterial cell to detect chemical stimuli and move toward food or away from toxins

A

chemotaxis
Negative chemotaxis: away from toxins
Positive chemotaxis: towards food

375
Q

How do retroviruses work?

A

They use single stranded DNA and reverse transcriptase to convert it to cDNA in order to integrate it into the host DNA genome (using an enzyme named integrase)

376
Q

(prions/viroids) are single stranded RNA particles

A

viroids

377
Q

_____ are proteins with a defective structure that also trigger other proteins to adopt this misfolded structure

A

prions

378
Q

the ascending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to _____ not, _____

A

salt, not water

379
Q

The descending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to ________, not ______

A

water, not salt

380
Q

where is urine concentrated in the kidney?

A

in the collecting duct

381
Q

this is where filtration of blood occurs in the kidney?

A

Bowman’s capsule (glomerulus is inside of this capsule)

382
Q

______ are the precursors to steroids

A

terpenes/terpenoids
**also to note, terpenes contain 2,3,4,or 6 isoprene units

383
Q

______’s law states that the concentration of gas in liquid is directly proportional to the solubility and ______ of that gas

A

Henry’s Law, partial pressure

384
Q

In regard to the Decibel Scale, every 10x increase in sound adds +____ on the decible scale. Give an exampleof this if you have +20 on the decibel scale

A

+10, and if you have +20 on the decible scale that would be (10x10=100)

385
Q

Alkaline Earth metals have _____ ionization energy, _____ electron affinity, and ________ electronegativity

A

low ionization energy
low electron affinity
low electronegativity

386
Q

what is the oxidation number of alkaline earth metals

A

+2

387
Q

What is the oxidation state/number of alkali metals?

A

+1

388
Q

Halogens have _____ ionization energy, _____ electron affinity, and ________ electronegativity

A

high ionization energy
lhigh electron affinity
high electronegativity

389
Q

Alkali metals have ______ ionization energy _______ electron affinity and
______ electronegativity

A

low ionization energy
low electron affinity
low electronegativity

390
Q

Oxidation state of Noble Gases?

A

0

391
Q

Noble gases can also be though of _____ gases

A

inert

392
Q

when its cold, the erectile musculature in our skin contracts, causing body hair to stand up, which does what?

A

helps to trap the air, providing for better insulation

393
Q

the two types of bone tissue are cancellous and _____

A

cortical
cortical: forms the extremely hard outer of our bones
cancellous: forms the inner, more spongy portion

394
Q

what are the functions of troponin and tropomyosin?

A

Troponin: Promotes muscle contraction
Tropomyosin: Blocks muscle contraction

395
Q

When calcium is bound to troponin, this then signals what (in regard to muscle contractinon)

A

this makes the myosin binding site exposed, which then frees it up to bind to actin

396
Q

These are hormones created at a site where an injury or other issue occurs

A

Prostaglandins

397
Q

Glycogen is made, stored, and broken down in the ….

A

liver

398
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitors function to _______ the breakdown of acetylcholine

A

decrease

399
Q

Skeletal and Cardiac muscle contain _______ muscle fibers

A

striated

400
Q

This type of deviance includes things such as burping loudly, picking your nose,

A

Informal deviance

401
Q

The theory that what is considered deviant changes over time and across culture is known as

A

The Labeling Theory

402
Q

Classical conditioning is when a conditioned Stimulus = conditioned response by way of

A

an unconditioned stimulus and neutral stimulus are used to create a conditioned response

403
Q

In classical conditioning,. ____ _____ occurs after extinction when animal or person will all of a sudden produce the conditioned response again

A

spontaneous recovery

404
Q

_______ links the rate of a chemical reation proportional to the concentrations of the reactants and products

A

The Law of Mass Action

405
Q

These are molecules that relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules inside the cell

A

Secondary messengers

406
Q

This enzyme diassociates molecules, breaks covalent bonds without using water, oxidation, or reduction

A

Lyase (ex: decarboxylase)

407
Q

This enzyme joins two molecules together via covalent bonding

A

Ligase (ex: DNA Ligase)

408
Q

This enzyme rearranges bonds of a molecule

A

Isomerase (ex: phosphoglucose isomerase)

409
Q

This enzyme transfers a functional group from one molecule to another

A

Transferase (Ex: Kinase, phosphorylase)

410
Q

This enzyme uses water to cleave a molecule by breaking the covalent bond

A

Hydrolase (ex: hydrolase, phosphatase)

411
Q

This enzyme transfers electrons from one molecule to anothe

A

Oxidoreductase (ex: lactate dehydrogenase)

412
Q

What is a proteins solvation layer? and what is the purpose of it?

A

The water molecules that surround the protein
-The pupose is to have fewer unfavorable interactions with hydrophobic residues (have more favorable with hydroPHILLIC)- which Maximizes the entropy of a system

413
Q

This is the point at which the net charge of a protein equals zero

A

Isoelectric point

414
Q

____ _____ is used to determine a proteins isoelectric point

A

isoelectric focusing

415
Q

SDS Page separates proteins ONLY by

A

molecular mass

416
Q

In a hydrolysis reaction, is a water added to the reaction, or is it expelled from the reaction

A

added (how a polypeptide breaks into its amino acids)(hydration is when a water molecule mixes with a substance)

417
Q

_____ ___- recognize specific DNA sequences and cut them in a predictable manner/specific spot (these make gene cloning possible)

A

restriction enzymes

418
Q

In humnas, extranuclear DNA and organelles are inherited from the _____

A

mother

419
Q

cytoplasmic and extranuclear DNa includes…

A

the cytoplasm, cell membrane, and mitochondria

420
Q

______ is any agent that directly increases the incidence of cancer

A

a carcinogen

421
Q

______ is an agent that causes mutations in the DNA of the cell

A

mutagens

422
Q

_____ describes the process of converting an electrical stimulus from the neurons into a mechanical response that facilitates muscle movement

A

ECC (excitation contraction coupling)

423
Q

In cardiac muscle, ECC is based on a phenomenon called CICR (Calcium Induced Calcium Release) which is the influx of calcium ions into

A

the cell (when then triggers further release of ions into the cytoplasm)

424
Q

What is the order of embryogenesis?

A

morula–>blastulation –> gastrulation –>neurulation –> implantation (My Baby Gdows Nicely)

425
Q

Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed compartments filled with ________ enzymes that are used for the controlled intracellular digestion of ________

A

hydrolytic; macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids)

426
Q

do glial/neuroglial cells conduct nerve impulses?

A

they don’t, but they support, nourish, and protect the neurons

427
Q

schwann cells, oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes are all types of

A

glial cells

428
Q

______ are segments of DNA that can move and allow genes to be transferred to a host organism’s chromosome

A

transposons

429
Q

What is backcrossing in genetics

A

Mating with a parent and offspring to preserve the paretnal genotype

430
Q

What is the solid line that goes down the center of a sarcomere called?

A

M line

431
Q

The H band is made up ony of …

A

Myosin

432
Q

____ marks the boundary of a sarcomere

A

Z- line

433
Q

The I band of the sarcomere is made up of what?

A

Only actin (think thIn, actiIn)

434
Q

The A band is made up of what?

A

actin AND myosin

435
Q

“wave and say HI, Z you lAter” is a mnemonic for what components of the sarcomere?

A

HI are shortened, Z at the ends, A unchanged

436
Q

Which L-amino acid does not have an ‘R’ configuration?

A

cysteine (S)

437
Q

What is an example of a non-enzymatic protein involved in protein

A

Hemoglobin

438
Q

What is an example of a non-enzymatic protein that is a peptide hormone?

A

Insulin!

439
Q

antibodies are ______ that help recognize and destroy foreign pathogens

A

proteins

440
Q

The somatic Nervous system (a branch of the efferent PNS) is voluntary/involuntary control?

A

voluntary

441
Q

dopamine inhibits ______ release

A

prolactin

442
Q

which hormone is responsible for triggering ovulation?

A

LH (lutenizing hormone)

443
Q

This hormone stimulates the development of egg cells and sperm cells

A

FSH

444
Q

The main hormone associated with the luteal phase is

A

progesterone

445
Q

When is progesterone highest in the menstrual cycle?

A

The time after ovulation and before the start of the period(luteal phase)

446
Q

Vasodilation functions to _______- heat loss

A

facilitate (by getting more blood closer to the surface, this allows heat to be lost this way)

447
Q

This is the name of the circulatory system found inside of bones

A

Haversian canals

448
Q

In Eurkaryotes, where does translation occur?

A

The Cytoplasm

449
Q

A broad stretch around 3,200 on the IR spectroscopy signifies what functional group

A

alcohol (o-H)

450
Q

A sharp peak around 2,200 on the IR Spectroscopy signifies what functional group (s)?

A

C-C Triple bond, and C-N triple bond

451
Q

A sharp peak around 1,700 on the IR spectroscopy represents what functional group(s)?

A

An Aldehyde/ketone (carbonyl groups)

452
Q

A broad stretch around 3,400 on IR Spectroscopy reprensents what functional group(s)?

A

N-H bonds

453
Q

The Addition of a phosphate group makes some (more/less) polar? how will this affect the Rf factor in thin layer chromatography?

A

more polar (and less polar molecules do not adhere as well to the silica gel and thus travel further up the gel= a larger Rf factor)

454
Q

How do you calculate sterocenters when you know how many chiral centers there are?

A

We use the rule of 2^n (where n=# of chiral centers)

455
Q

a faraday is equal to how many moles of electric charge?

A

1 mol

456
Q

Primary alcohols are oxidized to _____

A

aldehydes

457
Q

Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ______

A

ketones

458
Q

Tertiary alcohols are resistant to oxidation (T or F) and why?

A

True, because the carbon that is attached to the OH group does not have any of its own Hydrogens attached, and therefore has difficulty forming a double bond with the oxygen

459
Q

In SN1 reactions, tertiary alcohols are favored…why?

A

Tertiary alcohols have the most carbocation stability (carbocation stability increases with resonance as well as wtih increasing substitution of the carbon, hence why tertiary alcohol is favored)

460
Q

In SN2, primary alcohols are favored…why?

A

SN2s (which occur via backside attack) often dont proceed if there is steric hindrance, primary alcohols have the least steric hindrance

461
Q

A sulfonate is a type of ______, which tosylates and mesylates are a type of. With these compounds, alcohol acts as a nucleophile

A

ester

462
Q

Info to know about Mesylates and Tosylates

A

-They are good leaving groups
-They are also good protecting groups

463
Q

T or F; prokaryotes lack organelles

A

True (they have no ER, golgi, mitochondria or chloroplasts)

464
Q

This phase of the cell cycle is when DNA Replication occurs

A

The S Phase

465
Q

Insulin decreases glycogenisis (T or F)

A

False, it INCREASES glycogenesis

466
Q

Insulin increases glycolysis ( T or F)

A

True

467
Q

Insulin promotes fatty acid (synthesis or breakdown)

A

synthesis

468
Q

Cortisol increases/decreases blood sugar levels

A

increases!

469
Q

Excessive accumulation of ____ can lead to damaging oxidative stress

A

ROS (reactive oxygen species)

470
Q

Of the four complexes in the electron transport chain, which one does not pump protons?

A

Complex II

471
Q

Complex I (in the ETC) is the point at which ________ enters the ETC

A

NADH

472
Q

______ are short vessels that directly connect arterioles and venules at opposite ends of the bed, allowing for bypass of capillaries

A

vascular shunt

473
Q

Capillary beds can/cannot vasodilate/constrict

A

cannot

474
Q

similarity IS/IS NOT a gestalt principle?

A

Is

475
Q

stronger hydrogen bonds migrate slower or faster on paper chromatography?

A

strong H bonds (very polar) migrate slower

476
Q

The solute concentration will affect the _____ of the spots on a paper chromatograph (does not affect the migration rate)

A

size

477
Q

T or F; Tertiary alcohols readily dehydrate?

A

True (tertiary dehydrate most rapidly, then secondary, then primary) this is due to how stable the carbocation in the tertiary alcohols is

478
Q

In anaerobic conditions, oxygen is no longer the terminal electron acceptor, but rather _________ is

A

pyruvate

479
Q

In gas-liquid chromatography, the first peak to emerge is….

A

the LEAST polar, and the most volatile (if a molecule has dipole-dipole or H-bonds, it is not very volatile)

480
Q

A catalyst stabilizes the _______ _____

A

transition state (which then lowers the activation energy)

481
Q

When HCl is added to a solution, will H+ ions increase in a solution or decrease?

A

increase the amount of H+ in the solution, and this will thus decrease the amount of the other molecules that diassociate/ionize

482
Q

The index of refraction of a medium is equal to: the ratio of the speed of light in a vaccuum over speed of…

A

light of the medium

483
Q

Work (kJ)= ____ x time (sec)

A

Power (watts)

484
Q

The velocity of blood flow is primarily determined by the ____

A

total cross sectional area

485
Q

Kinases catalyze the addition of a phsophate group, but the source of the phosphate group is often…

A

ATP

486
Q

Lipase hydrolyzes…

A

triacylglycerides

487
Q

If the bond on the left molecule of the glycosidic linkage is down, this is an (alpha/beta) bond

A

alpha linkage

488
Q

If an acid has a high negative charge, disassociation of it in water will occur (more or less)

A

lesser (relatively)

489
Q

gamma decay is the emission of ____ from the nucleus

A

photons

490
Q

Reactions that creat gaseous products from solids/liquids but have a (+/-) delta S

A

(+) S

491
Q

Do introns or exons code for genes? or both?

A

Just exons

492
Q

The promoter is /is not usually located in the intron

A

is not usually

493
Q

________ is used to measure the expression of mRNA products in a cell

A

RT-qPCR

494
Q

______ is the only step of cellular respiration, in which NAD+ is not reduced, and NADH is not oxidized

A

Chemiosmosis (the movement of protons across the membrane)

495
Q

This portion of the collecting duct (of the kidney) is the last spot where reabsorption can occur

A

The Medullary portion (and thus, has the most concentrated glomerular filtrate)

496
Q

Free energy (does/ does not) correlate with enzyme activity because it is NOT a measure of reaction rate/activity

A

does NOT

497
Q

hydrophobic molecules pass through the cell membrane via what means?

A

simple diffusion (think: the inside of the cell is hydrophobic)

498
Q

micro_______ bind to chromosomes at the kinetochore and regulate their migration toward the opposite poles of the cell during anaphase

A

tubules

499
Q

the molecule that enters glycolysis is ….

A

glucose

500
Q

mature erythrocytes (do/do not) contain DNA

A

do not contain DNA

501
Q

______ are located between the endothelial cells and the matrix and they do not have direct contact with circulating blood.

A

Pericytes

502
Q

Telomeres are found on eukarytoic and bacterial DNA (T or F)

A

False, only in Eurkaryotic DNA (bacterial DNA is circular)

503
Q

phosphodiester bonds of DNA/RNA are linked by what pieces?

A

The sugar of one, and the phosphate group of the other ( in the way so that the 5’ end bears a phosphate group, and the 3’ end bears a hydroxyl group)

504
Q

high levels of circulating glucocorticoids increases _______ degradation

A

protein (which then leads to muscle weakness)

505
Q

What is the correlation between immune function and glucocorticoids?

A

glucocorticoids suppress immune function (decreased WBCs)

506
Q

Explain what parts make up the endomembrane system

A

nucleus, ER, golgi, lysosomes

507
Q

____ effect refers to the tendency to remember items presented first

A

The primacy effect

508
Q

This refers to remembering information better when you are in a similar situation to when that information was first acquired

A

The State Dependency Effect

509
Q

This occurs when a persons recall of memories of ane vent becomes less accurate because of more information following the event

A

Misinformation effect

510
Q

The idea that verbal and visual information are processed differently, and that utilizing both leads to information being utilized better is known as

A

Dual Coding Effect

511
Q

The _____ ______ theory states that we may remember things that were not actually tested, based off of our world and connections

A

spreading of activation theory (people organize the knowledge of their world based off of their personal experience)

512
Q

a _______ ______ error occurs when the source of a memory is incorrectly attributed to some specific recollected experience

A

a source monitoring error

513
Q

_____ effect is when you recall items later in a list easier than items earlier in the list

A

recency effect

514
Q

The reticular formation is found : ______ and is concerned with functions involving arousal, particularly sleep-wake cycle, and attention.

A

deep in the brainstem

515
Q

Describe the difference between mechanical and electrically gated channels? (in regard to sound propagation)

A

vibration of hair cells creates tension within the cell membrane that directly activates ion channels: this is mechanically gated

a change in membrane potential dis related to an electrically gated channel

516
Q

The idea of excusing our behavior, but judging another persons behavior harshly is best described as

A

the actor-observer bias

517
Q

Increases in the electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased ________ arousal (sympathetic or parasympathetic)

A

sympathetic

518
Q

According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) what is the typically course of a stress response

A

alarm/stress–> resistance/body defense–>fatigue/exhaustion (doesn’t matter what kind of stressor is, we follow the same pattern)

519
Q

Motor tasks require proper functionng of the :
A. cerebellum
B. cochlea
C. hypothalamus
D. hippocampus

A

A. cerebellum
(cochlea is auditory inputs, hypothalamus is the 4 F’s, hippocampus is mainly memory)

520
Q

Explain : social facilitation

A

People perform simple tasks better when in the presence of others

521
Q

the idea of group _______ is one in which peoples ideas become more extreme after being around others with similar ideas

A

polarization

522
Q

Is a triad or a dyad more stable (in regard to social relationships and dynamics)

A

triad (whereas in a dyad either person can break the tie, in a triad, it is more difficult)

523
Q

What is a mixed methods study?

A

Uses BOTH qualitative and quantitative methods

524
Q

systematic observation of a complete social environment is referring to ______ methods

A

ethnographic

525
Q

____________ methods involve comparing an organization, geographic region, government, or other entity

A

comparative

526
Q

________ methods involve the manipulation of an independent variable and random assignment to different groups

A

experimental

527
Q

________ methods involve respondents providing responses to a questionnaire

A

survey

528
Q

The inner membrane of a mitochondria in Eukaryotes is analogous to ______ in prokaryotes

A

plasma membrane

529
Q

The critical point on a phase change diagram refers to

A

when there is no distinction between its liquid and gaseous states

530
Q

Does a strong acid or weak acid conduct electricity better?

A

Since a strong acid has more ions, it’s solution is better at conducting electricity

531
Q

Describe the difference between an agonist and an antagonist

A

An AGONIST activates the receptor to perform it’s function; An ANTAGONIST blocks the biochemical function of the protein it binds to

532
Q

By definition, electric field lines exit from ________ and enter _______ charges

A

positive–> negative

533
Q

What is the charge of an axon?

A

Negatively charged!

534
Q

What type of reaction is this:
2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)

A

Oxidation/reduction (can be seen by Mg changing oxidation state from 0–> +2)

535
Q

temperature and resisitvity are (directly/inversely) proportional

A

directly proprotional

536
Q

Where do C=C double bonds show up on spectroscopy

A

Around 1650

537
Q

all enzymes are chiral compounds (T or F)

A

true!

538
Q

Sublimation (in regard to water) is going from (state) to (state)

A

solid–> gas

539
Q

in column chromatography, what elutes first?

A

the nonpolar compounds

540
Q

Cooperative processes are represented by what type of graph line structure?

A

Sigmoidal

541
Q

What is the relationship between boiling point and vapor pressure?

A

in comparing two liquids at same temperature, the one with the lower boiling point with have the higher vapor pressure

542
Q

What parts make up a storage lipid?

A

A triacylglycerol (or three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol)

543
Q

Boyles Law is :

A

The relationship between Pressure and Volume (they have an inverse relationship)

544
Q

Charles Law is :

A

The relationship between Temperature and Volume (they are directly proportional)

545
Q

What is a covalent coordinate bond?

A

Rather than each atom donating an electron to the bond, one of the atoms in the bond provides both of the electrons to be donated

546
Q

How are bond strength and bond energy related?

A

The strength of a bond is directly proportional to its bond energy, with shorter bonds being stronger than longer bonds

547
Q

Would a C-H bond or a C-C bond be LEAST polar?

A

C-C is considered the least polar as there is no difference in electronegativity between the atoms

548
Q

How to convert a difference in decibels to a ratio of the two

A

Say th difference in decibels is 20dB, this means the decimal log of their ratio is (2), and so then you take 10^2, which gives you a ratio of 100.

549
Q

If a lens has a negative focal length, what does this imply about the type of lens (converging/diverging)

A

The lens would be diverging, and this sort of lens forms a virtual and reduced image

550
Q

Differences between ADH and Aldosterone?

A

ADH- think water is reabsorbed
Aldosterone- think salt is reabsorbed (and water follows)

551
Q

How do adipocytes respond to changing conditions- via
1) altering their size
2) undergoing mitosis

A

They alter their size, and are unlikely to undergo mitosis

552
Q

The DNA backbone is formed by what type of bonds?

A

Phosphodiester

553
Q

Where are hydrogen bonds found within the DNA structure?

A

They connect the complementary base pairs

554
Q

If a potassium channel is blocked, how would this alter an action potential

A

The action potential would be prolonged, as the potassium channel helps to repolarize the cell

555
Q

_______ is an essential player in protein homeostasis by serving to rapidly remove unwanted or damaged proteins (does this via a proteosome)

A

ubiquitination

556
Q

T or F; hydrogen peroxide is a source of ROS (reactive oxygen species) generation

A

True, it is

557
Q

What is the duty of the collecting duct?

A

To concentrate urine (this is regulated by aquaporin proteins that mediate water reabsorption from the urine

558
Q

T or F, viruses contain DNA/RNA

A

YEs, true!

559
Q

Once nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine, where do they go next?

A

Directly to the liver (via hepatic portal vein)

560
Q

The brain is derived from (ectoderm/endoderm/mesoderm)

A

the ectoderm

561
Q

The heart/kidney/ skeletal muscle are derived from the _______

A

mesoderm

562
Q

______these are organelles that serve as the primary microtubule organizing center of a cell

A

centrosome (and this is where microtubules originate)

563
Q

_______ theory broadly calls attention to competition among social groups at a macro level

A

Conflict

564
Q

___________ calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification.

A

Intersectionality

565
Q

What is the name of the idea that language shapes thought, and that speakers of different languages thus perceive the world differently

A

The Linguistic Relativity Hypothesis

566
Q

A _____ is an organizing pattern of thought that is used to categorize and interpret information (therefore shaping individual attitudes and perspectives)

A

Schema

567
Q

If you are given Vmax and the concentration of the enzyme, how do you find Kcat?

A

Kcat = Vmax/[E]

568
Q

____ _____ occurs when proper randomization for a participant sample is not achieved

A

selection bias

569
Q

Erikson’s competence vs. inferiority stage is what age?

A

6-11 yrs old

570
Q

Erikson’s initiative vs. guilt stage is what age?

A

ages 3-5yrs old

571
Q

Freud’s ‘Anal Stage’ spans what years?

A

AGes 1-3yrs

572
Q

Freud’s latency Stage spnas what years?

A

Ages 7-11

573
Q

____ ____ refers to the tendency to attribute one’s own successes to internal attributes and failures to situational factors

A

self serving bias

574
Q

What is ‘escape learning’?

A

Behavior which results in the termination of an aversive stimulus

575
Q

_____ ______is a measure of the energy released when the compound is combusted with oxygen.

A

The heat of combustion (More stable isomeric compounds will have lower heats of combustion), This refers to the actual energy required to break the bonds

576
Q

In a uniform field, how are electric field lines spaced?

A

In a uniform field, equally

577
Q

Which below is an oxidizing agent?
NADH or FAD

A

FAD (NADH is a reducing agent)

578
Q

What is the structure of a steroid?

A

4 carbon rings fused together

579
Q

What is the mass of water?

A

18 amu

580
Q

The ______ of a wave is a characteristic of the wave source, not the medium through which the wave propogates

A

frequency

581
Q

In anaerobic conditions, pyruvate will be metabolized to ____ _____

A

lactic acid

582
Q

Slow twitch or fast twitch fibers will have more mitochondria?

A

Slow twitch will (since they are more adapted to aerobic exercise)

583
Q

The lower the ionization energy, the (Less/more) reactive that species will be?

A

higher ionization= less reactive, lower ionization energy= more reactive

584
Q

Ligase binds DNA and _____ (via what sort of bond)

A

DNA (via phosphodiester)

585
Q

phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in …

A

glycolysis

586
Q

What is the portion of the nephron that circulates proteins??

A

The glomerulus

587
Q

Would blood pressure be lower in a capillary or a vein?

A

in a vein

588
Q

An ionic bond is likely to form between elements of very high and ______ electronegativity

A

very low

589
Q

Sleep spindles are characteristic of whcih sleep stage

A

stage 2