Biodent Workshop quesion Flashcards
1
Q
What is the anatomical position?
A
Body erect upright and facing the forward, palms facing forward, hand of either side of the body.
2
Q
What is superior?
A
Above
3
Q
What is inferior?
A
Below
4
Q
What is ventral?
A
In front
5
Q
What is dorsal?
A
At the back
6
Q
What is proximal?
A
Near
7
Q
What is distal?
A
Away
8
Q
What is occlusal?
A
The top surface of the teeth
9
Q
What is buccal?
A
Close to the cheek
10
Q
What is lingual?
A
Close to the tongue
11
Q
What is labial?
A
Close to the opening of the mouth
12
Q
What is a sagital plain?
A
It is a plain that cuts the body into left and right
13
Q
What is the coronal plain?
A
It is the plain that cuts the body into front and back
14
Q
What is the transverse plain?
A
It is a plain that cuts the body into Up and down
15
Q
Connect to the correspondingstructures
A
16
Q
Connect these to the corresponding areas
A
17
Q
Correct these to corresponding areas
A
18
Q
What are the 4 major muscles of mastication?
A
- Massester
- Temporalis
- Lateral pterygoid
- Medial pterygoid
19
Q
What was the name of the scientist who builds an early microscope that facilitated his discovery of bacteria in saliva and was the first to view human red blood cells?
A
Anthony Van Leeuwenhoek
20
Q
True or False?: Resolution is defined as the smallest distance that two objects can be apart, while still appearing as separate objects.
A
True
21
Q
In the light microscope, what factor limits the theoretical resolution to 200nm and the magnification to 2000 times?
A
The wavelength of white light
22
Q
True or false? In a fluorescence experiment studying different cytoskeletal proteins, multiple different types of these tubulin, actin and intermediate filaments cannot be identified in the same specimen. This is because fluorescent markers might have different excitation and emission ranges.
A
False
23
Q
Which type of microscope is commonly used for viewing live unstained cells including bacteria, parasites, and cell cultures?
A
Phase contrast
24
Q
Which type of microscope is commonly used for routine histology of biopsy tissues stained with dyes?
A
Bright-field light microscope
25
Which type of microscope is used for viewing the ultrastructure of cellular detail of organelles?
TEM
26
Which type of microscope forms images with light in the visible spectrum?
Bright field light microscope
27
Which type of microscope forms images with UV or laser light that upon contact with specific chemical labels show excitation and luminescence?
Fluorescences microscope
28
What does the term ultrastructure relate to in histology?
TEM captured detail of cellular structures including the organelles and cytoskeleton components in the cytoplasm.
29
Which type of microscope can be used for viewing the detail of surface structures?
Scanning electron microscope
30
What is the only type of micropscope that is able to capture the type of cellular detail in a micrograph refered to as ultrastructural features of a cell?
Transmission Electron microscope
31
In an exam question, if you were asked to state what type of histolgical structural detail of a group of protein synthesisng cells, that you observed in a routine stained high power light micrograph, what sort of detail would you report?
An obvious nucleus and prominent nucleolus, with significant regions of cytoplasmic basophilia and eosinophilia.
32
Ultrastrucutral features of a cell can only be seen in an image captured by what type of microcope?
TEM
33
What are the 3 features common to all types of cells?
cell membrane, cytoplasm & DNA
34
What did he say was the width of a human hair?
20-180 microns
35
What is the totipotent stem cell?
It is a cell that can differentiate into embryonic and extra embryonic cell types.
36
What is a pluripotent stem cell type?
It is a stem cell that can differentiate into nearly all cells, cells derived from any of the three germ layers.
37
What is the multipotent stem cell type?
This is a stem cell type that can differentiate into a number of cells but only those of a closely related family of cells.
38
What is an oligopotent stem cell?
This is a stem cell type that can differentiate into only a few cells, such as lymphoid or myeloid stem cells.
39
What is an unipotent stem cell?
This is a stem cell that can produce only one cell type of their own, property of self renewall.
40
Connect to corresponding areas
41
What are the cytoskeletal protein, known as Microfilaments composed of?
Actin
42
Where are microfilaments located in the cell?
concentrated under the cell membrane
43
What is the role of intermediate filaments?
They provide an anchor & general structural support
44
What is the function of microfilaments?
Facilitate phagocytosis, cell shape & form the core support of microvilli
45
Where are intermediate filaments generally located in the cell?
they form a three dimensional network that spans across the body of the cell
46
There are 4 different classifications of primary or basic tissues. Which type of tissue has the following functions? Structure, support, defense and transport?
connective tissue
47
What classification of Connective tissue is found in a tendon?
fibrous
48
What are the 4 different classifcations of basic or primary tissues in the body?
connective , nervous , epithelial and muscle tissues
49
What connective tissue structure connects muscle to bone?
tendons
50
What type of muscle is located in the walls of the intestines, the blood vessels and makes the hairs in your skin stand up?
smooth muscle
51
Which tissue functions to transmit electrical signals through insulated extensions of its cells?
nerve tissue
52
What type of connective tissue structure connects bone to bone?
ligament
53
Which basic tissue type contains myofilaments?
muscle
54
Which of the following list of characteristics describes epithelial tissue?
This tissue forms sheets, has little intercellular material, is avascular, sits on a basement membrane on one surface and has one free surface
55
Which of the following list of characteristics describes nervous tissue?
This tissue has cells that are elongated, has soma, dendrites, have long cellular processes and are excitable
56
Which of the following list of characteristics describes connective tissue?
This tissue is highly vascular, has abundant extracellular matrix, is morphologically diverse and contains collagen fibres of varying density
57
Which of the following list of characteristics describes muscle tissue?
This tissue has cells that are elongated and can be muticellular or unicellular, and gain their nutrients by diffsion from adjcent blood vessels, are excitable and can change in length.
58
What tissues are derived from the ENDODERM germ layer of the embryo?
Epithelium, lungs, gall bladder and pancreas
59
What tissues are derived from the MESODERM germ layer of the embryo?
Connective tissue, muscle, & epithelium
60
What tissues are derived from the ECTODERM germ layer of the embryo?
Nervous system & epithelium
61
What is the main function of myoepithelial cells?
expel gland secretions from the secretory end piece lumen (acinus) of the gland into the duct
62
Myoepithelial cells are contractile cells in which locations in the body?
surrounding secretory cells in sweat glands and salivary glands
63
surrounding secretory cells in sweat glands and salivary glands
actin microfilaments
64
What shape are myoepithelial cells?
stellate or fusiform
65
At what location in a salivary gland are myoepithelial cells observed?
Between the secretory gland epithelial cells, but above the basement membrane
66
What are the three types of cartilage?
Hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage
67
Where is hyaline cartilage found?
Articular surfaces of movable joints, respiratory tract, costal cartilages, epiphyseal plates of long bones
68
Where is elastic cartilage found?
External ear, larynx, epiglottis
69
Where is fibrocartilage found?
Intervertebral discs, joint capsules, ligaments
70
What are two types of cartilage growth?
Interstitial growth and appositional growth
71
What is interstitial growth?
It is growth that occurs mainly in immature cartilage.
Chondrocytes grow and divide and lay down more matrix inside the existing cartilage.
Mainly happens during childhood and adolescence.
72
What is apositional growth?
Occurs also in mature cartilage
New surface layers of matrix are added to the pre-existing matrix by new chondroblasts from the perichondrium.
73
What are the 5 cells present in the CT?
1. Fibroblasts
2. Macrophages
3. Mast cells
4. Adipose cells
5. Lymphocytes, plasma cells & other immune cells9
74
What are the two chemical mediators involved in blood vessel function and inflammation commonly present in mast cells?
histamine and heparin
75
What type of blood cell is similar to a mast cell in appearance?
Basophil
76
What is the main function of a neutrophil?
Phagocytosis of bacteria
77
What is the main function of a plasma cell?
Antibody production
78
What is the main function of an eosinophil?
Anti-parasitic function
79
What is the function of a lymphocyte?
Involved in immune reactions
80
What are the three types of muscle?
1. Cardiac
2. Smooth
3. Skeletal
81
What are the four functional properties of muscle cells?
1. Flexible
2. Excitable
3. Contractile
4. Extensible
82
Can muscle regenerate?
Smooth (unlimited potential) and Skeletal muscles - yes. Cardiac - no.
83
What is hypertrophy?
increase in the size of cells
84
Which type or types of muscle cells can grow by hypertrophy?
skeletal, cardiac & smooth
85
Which type of cells repair/ replace damaged skeletal muscle cells?
satellite cells
86
Which type of cells repair/ replace damaged smooth muscle cells?
pericytes
87
Which type of cells repair/ replace damaged cardiac muscle cells?
no regeneration
88
Connect the words to the corresponding images.
89
What are some of the characteristics of skeletal muscle?
1. 10-100 nanometers
2. 10cm long
3. Multinucleated
4. Peripheral nuclei
90
A skeletal muscle cell can be referred to by 2 other terms, which of the following is correct?
myocyte or muscle fibre
91
What forms the striations or stripes on the sketetal muscle fibre?
actin and myosin
92
What shape are skeletal muscle cells?
tubular
93
What is the average diameter of a skeletal muscle fibre?
10-100 micrometers (microns)
94
The average length of a skeletal muscle fibre is 10cm (T/F)
true
95
What is the microscopic appearance of a skeletal muscle cell?
multiple peripheral nuclei
96
Muscles are wrapped in several layers of connective tissue (T/F)
true
97
Each skeletal muscle can be composed of thousands of elongated cells or muscle fibres (T/F)
true
98
What type of cells are skeletal muscle cells derived from?
myoblasts
99
Why are skeletal muscle cells multinucleated?
myoblast, precursor cells fuse together to form tubes
100
What is the role of satelite cells in skeletal muscle?
repair fibres following injury
101
What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a modified endoplasmic reticulum that forms a series of intracellular tubules to surround myofibrils
102
What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
to regulate intracellular calcium entry into the myocyte
103
What are the T-tubules in a muscle?
membrane-like structures that are continuous with the sarcolemma of a myocyte
104
What is the function of T tubules in skeletal muscle?
increases the membrane surface area to conduct the impulse/ contractions into the centre of the myocyte.
105
Which microscopic structure facilitates the entry of the impulse rapidly into the middle of the myocyte?
T tubule
106
Which ultrastructural feature stores calcium ions to regulate rapid intracellular influx of calcium?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
107
what is another name for a muscle fibre?
myocyte
108
What is the morphology of skeletal muscle cells?
unbranched tubular
109
What is the difference between a myofibril and a myofilament?
the arrangment of microfilaments actin & myosin form the larger microfibril
110
what makes up the core of the fascicle?
bundle of myocytes or myofilaments
111
is skeletal muscle under voluntary, involuntary or autonomic control?
voluntary
112
what are 2 types of myofilament in a myocyte?
actin & myosin
113
what does a bundel of fascicles form?
a skeltal muscle body
114
Where is cardiac musle found in the body?
only the heart
115
By what term are cardiac muscle cells referred to?
cardiomyocyte
116
What are the contractile unit of a cardiomyocytes?
sarcomeres
117
what type of muscle cells are striated?
skeletal & cardiac
118
are cardiac muscle cells striated or non-striated?
striated
119
Where in the cell are the nuclei observed?
centrally
120
how many nuclei do healthy cardiomyocytes have?
1 to 4
121
Do cardiomyocytes function autonomically?
Yes they are under involuntary control
122
Are cardomyocytes branched or unbranched?
they are branched
123
What is the function of smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls?
blood pressure control
124
How is blood pressure controlled by smooth muscle?
diameter changes by vasodilation and vasocontriction
125
What is the function of smooth muscle in the GIT
to creat wave like contraction to move food along the tube
126
waht is the function of smooth muscel in the gall bladder wall?
contract to cause expulsion of bile into the bile duct
127
What is the contractile unit of the myofibril?
sarcomere
128
How many sarcomeres are in a myofibril?
many
129
What feature delineates the boundaries of a single sarcomere
the Z lines
130
What protein/ filament crosses both sides of the M line ?
myosin
131
What filament type is always absent from the H zone?
actin
132
What type of proteins are present at the A band?
thick filaments
133
What protein do you find at the I band of the sarcomere?
thin filaments
134
What protein is found in thick filaments?
myosin
135
How does the sarcomere shorten?
myosin heads interact with the actin filaments
136
What is troponin?
a binding site for calcium that changes shape
137
11What is the role of tropomyosin in contraction?
a regulatory protein that prevents involuntary contraction
138
What filaments are present at the A band?
both thick and thin filaments
139
What causes the appearance of striated muscle?
alternating zones of thick and thin filaments
140
What structure in oral mucosa is responsible for aethetics?
vermilion border of lips
141
The nervous system receives information from the sensory organs via nerves, transmits the information through the spinal cord, and processes it in the brain. What type of signals does it use to do this?
electrical and chemical
142
How many pairs of cranial nerves connect the brain to the sensory organs and head and neck muscles.
12 pairs
143
The spinal cord can by pass the brain and send a reflex command in response to incoming signals.
True
144
The sensory division of the peripheral nervous system transmits impulses from the CNS to peripheral organs.
False
145
From which parts of the CNS do the cranial nerves arise?
brainstem
146
Which nerve(s) enervate the muscles of mastication?
Trigeminal nerve (V)
147
Which nerve(s) enervates the gingiva & teeth?
Trigeminal nerve (V)
148
149
Which nerve transmits sensory information to your brain regarding smells?
Olfactory nerve (I)
150
Which nerve enervates the nociceptors of the face?
Trigeminal nerve (V)
151
Which nerve controls the size of your pupil in response to bright light?
Oculomotor nerve (III)
152
Which nerve sends sensory information about your cheeks, upper lip & nasal cavity?
Trigeminal nerve (V)
153
Which nerve enervates facial expression, taste, & tear glands?
Facial nerve (VII)
154
Which nerve enervates most movements of the tongue?
Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
155
Which nerve sends sensory information from the posterior throat, posterior tongue region & sinus?
Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
156
1The occipital lobe is the major processing area for which of the senses?
visual
157
Two-point discrimination is used to test the function of which of the four lobes of the brain?
parietal lobe
158
Which lobe of the brain is involved with executive functions?
frontal lobe
159
The temporal lobe is important in the process of what type of information?
memory formation
160
Broca’s area is important in language production. Which lobe is this associated with?
frontal lobe
161
If there is damage to Wernicke’s area, language is affected. What lobe is this area in?
temporal lobe
162
What type of cells produce cerebrospinal fluid?
ependymal cells
163
Which cells in the CNS have vascular foot processes which help to maintain the blood-brain-barrier?
astrocytes
164
Oligodendrocytes provide a myelin sheath around only one axon while Schwann cells encapsulate multiple axons
False
165
Which cells of the CNS are specialised phagocytes?
microglia
166
What are the functions of the cerebral spinal fluid?
1. Protection
2. Buoyancy
3. Exchange of nutrients and waste between blood and nervous tissue
167
What is the volume of CSF produced daily by the choroid plexus?
400-600ml
168
Which cells are present in the CSF are involved in protection against pathogens?
lymphocytes
169
The CSF fills the subarachnoid space. This lies between which structures?
pia mater and arachnoid mater
170
Where is fluid taken from during a lumbar puncture?
lumbar cistern
171
Which structure on the apical surface of the ependymal cells increases CSF absorption?
microvilli
172
Which cell specialisation is present in ependymal cells that assist in the function of the blood-CSF barrier?
tight junctions
173
Connect to the corresponding spaces
174
Connect to the corresponding areas.
175
What muscles are responsible for the elevation of the mandible?
Temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid
176
What muscles are responsible for the protrusion of the mandible?
Masseter, lateral pterygoid and medial pterygoid
177
What muscles retract the mandible?
Temporalis
178
What muscles is responsible for side-to-side movement?
Masseter, lateral pterygoid, medial pterygoid
