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MCAT EK Review > Biochem > Flashcards

Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

Cells are broken apart by (hydrolysis/dehydration) and formed via (hydrolysis/dehydration).

A

-broken by hydrolysis and formed via dehydration

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2
Q

function of phospholipids

A

serve as structural component of membranes

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3
Q

function of triacylglycerols

A

store metabolic energy and provide thermal insulation and padding

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4
Q

phosphodiester bond

A

phosphate group of one nucleotide and 3rd carbon of pentose sugar of another nucleotide

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5
Q

Bending of polypeptide chain involves which level of protein structure?

A

tertiary

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6
Q

(Unsaturated/Saturated) fats have a greater heat of combustion.

A

saturated fats are highly reduced allowing them to have higher energy storage potential

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7
Q

Prokaryotic mRNA (polycistronic/monocistronic) and eukaryotic mRNA is (polycistronic/monocistronic).

A

prokaryotic mRNA- polycistronic

eukaryotic mRNA- monocistronic

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8
Q

Where do transcription and post-transcriptional modifications take place in eukaryotes?

A

nucleus

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9
Q

Transcription requires a (promoter/primer) whereas replication requires a (promoter/primer).

A

transcription-promoter

replication-primer

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10
Q

Why is primase (RNA polymerase) needed for replication?

A

DNA polymerase cannot initiate new stand of nucleotides; it can only add nucleotides to an existing strand

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11
Q

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

A

prophase I- providing genetic recombination

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12
Q

When does nondisjunction occur?

A

anaphase I/II

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13
Q

steps for spermatogenesis

A
  • spermatogonium
  • primary spermatocyte
  • secondary spermatocyte
  • spermatid
  • spermatozoa
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14
Q

steps for oogenesis

A
  • oogonium
  • primary oocyte
  • secondary oocyte
  • ovum
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15
Q

Primary oocyte is arrested at which meiosis stage?

A

Prophase I

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16
Q

Secondary oocyte arrested at which meiosis stage?

A

Metaphase II

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17
Q

Meiosis I starts with (diploid/haploid) with X chromosomes and Y chromatids.

A
  • diploid
  • 46 chromosomes
  • 92 chromatids
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18
Q

Meiosis II starts with (diploid/haploid) with X chromosomes and Y chromatids.

A
  • haploid
  • 23 chromosomes
  • 46 chromatids
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19
Q

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

A
  • no selection for fittest organism
  • random mating
  • large populations
  • immigration/emigration must not change gene pool
  • mutational equilibrium
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20
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytosol

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21
Q

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway merge back with glycoslysis?

A

glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (PGAL or G3P)

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22
Q

What do fatty acids breakdown into?

A

acetyl-CoA through beta-oxidation

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23
Q

Where does ketogenesis take place?

A

mitochondria of liver cells

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24
Q

Glycolysis, glycogenesis, and lipid storage are (anabolism/catabolism).

A

anabolism

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25
Q

glycogenogenesis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation, and ketone body synthesis are (anabolism/catabolism).

A

catabolism

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26
Q

Where does glycogenesis occur?

A

liver and muscle

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27
Q

Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

liver

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28
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle take place?

A

mitochondrial matrix

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29
Q

Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces _ ATP, _ NADH, _ FADH2.

A
  • 1 ATP
  • 3 NADH
  • 1 FADH2
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30
Q

Aerobic respiration, including glycolysis produces how many net ATP?

A

36 ATP

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31
Q

Aldehyde protons have a distinctive NMR shift at which ppm?

A

9.5 ppm

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32
Q

IR spectra for C=O

A

sharp dip at 1700 cm-1

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33
Q

IR spectra for OH

A

broad dip at 3200-3600 cm-1

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34
Q

vLDL is produced in which organ?

A

liver

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35
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A

mitochondrial matrix

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36
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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37
Q

IR spectra for NH

A

sharp peak at 3300 cm-1

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38
Q

Which two amino acids are considered to be alpha helix breakers?

A

proline and glycine

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39
Q

What affect does pH have on conformational stability of proteins?

A

disrupts ionic bonds (3rd and 4th degree)

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40
Q

(T/F) mRNA is same as the coding strand

A

true except mRNA will have uracil instead of thymine

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41
Q

Where do prokaryotic ribosomes bind on the mRNA?

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

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42
Q

(Cytosine/Guanine) has one donor and two acceptors and (Cytosine/Guanine) has two donors and one acceptor

A

Cytosine (“C”) has one donor and two acceptors, and Guanine (“G”) has one acceptor and two donors.

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43
Q

function of histone acetyltransferase (HAT) and histone deacetylase (HDAC)

A

HAT-uncoiling of chromatin structure and increase transcription
HDAC- condensing chromatin structure and decrease transcription

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44
Q

Which type of mutation results in the sickle-cell disease phenotype?

A

glutamate → valine substitution is a non-conservative missense mutation

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45
Q

What is the function of ddNTP?

A
  • termination of strand elongation for DNA sequencing (missing an oxygen)
  • able to fluorescently label ddNTP to give DNA sequence
46
Q

Penetrance

A

measures the fraction of people with the genotype who express the corresponding phenotype

47
Q

Expressivity

A

measures the range of expression of a certain genotype; constant expressivity means that the genotype is expressed exactly the same way each time

48
Q

fecundity

A

the ability to produce an abundance of offspring or new growth; fertility

49
Q

genetic drift

A

random changes

50
Q

bottleneck vs founder effect

A

bottleneck- population is drastically reduced via catastrophic event
founder effect-small group of individuals become isolated from larger population

51
Q

(Spontaneous/nonspontaneous) reactions are defined as those whose products have a lower free energy than the reactants

A

spontaneous

52
Q

(T/F) ATP is used in the pentose phosphate pathway

A

False

53
Q
  • What carbon molecule is needed to start the pentose phosphate pathway?
  • What are the products of the PPP?
A
  • glucose-6-phosphate

- ribose-5-phosphate sugar and NADPH are the products

54
Q

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway occur?

A

cytosol

55
Q

What are the 3 most favorable (irreversible) steps of glycolysis?

A

hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase

56
Q
  • NADH donates 2 e- to which complex of the ETC?

- FADH2 donates 2 e- to to which complex of the ETC?

A
  • protein complex 1

- protein complex 2

57
Q

How many protons do each of the complexes pump out?

A
  • Complex 1 and 3 donate 4 H+
  • Complex 4 donates 2H+
  • Complex 2 donates 0 H+

*Complex I is known as NADH dehydrogenase, II is known as succinate dehydrogenase, III is known as cytochrome bc or c, and IV is known as cytochrome c oxidase

58
Q

How many ATP are produced from 1 cycle of cellular respiration (per 1 glucose)?

A

-32 ATP (30-32 ATP)

59
Q

Which enzyme is the rate limiting step for fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

60
Q

enzyme for transport of fatty acids for β-oxidation

A
  • carnitine acyl transferase I

- functions to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria for oxidization

61
Q

Enzymes alter (thermodynamic/kinetic) properties of a reaction

A

Enzymes don’t change any thermodynamic properties of a reaction only kinetic properties

62
Q

All amino acids have S configuration with the exception of which one?

A

Cysteine has R configuration

63
Q

Function of DNA Polymerase I, II, and III

A

DNAP I- removes the RNA primers and replaces them with newly synthesized DNA
DNAP II- recognize and repair incorrectly added nucleotides
DNAP III- extends the RNA primers by adding nucleotides in the 5′ to 3′ direction (replication)

64
Q

Sanger sequencing

A

DNA sequencing based on the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides by DNA polymerase during in vitro DNA replication

65
Q

in situ hybridization

A

uses a labeled complementary DNA, RNA or modified nucleic acids strand (i.e., probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion or section of tissue

66
Q

immunohistochemistry

A

process of selectively identifying antigens (proteins) in cells of a tissue section by exploiting the principle of antibodies binding specifically to antigens in biological tissues

67
Q

Which lipid type and temperature results in the most disordered membrane? (sat/unsat) and (low/high temp)

A

unsaturated and high temperature

68
Q

Which enzymatic kinetic parameter is NOT affected by the presence of an uncompetitive inhibitor?

A

KM/Vmax

69
Q

Specific activity measures what in enzymes?

A

the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a solution

70
Q

size-exclusion chromatography allows (large/small) molecules to pass more freely through column matrix

A

large

71
Q

How many hydrogen atoms are removed in double bonds in an acyl chain compared with fully saturated chains?

A
  • 4 hydrogen atoms

- each double bond in an acyl chain removes two hydrogen atoms when compared with fully saturated chains

72
Q

Uracil is produced from cytosine as a result of a conversion of what?

A

an amine group to a carbonyl group

73
Q

rate-limiting enzyme for gluconeogenesis

A

fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

74
Q

rate-limiting enzyme for the pentose phosphate pathway

A

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

75
Q

What is the main enzyme controlled in glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase

-high levels of ATP, citrate, or a more acidic pH decrease the enzyme’s activity

76
Q

products of citric acid cycle

A

each turn gives: 1 GTP or ATP, 3 NADH molecules, and 1 FADH2 molecule
so total is 6 NADH and 2 FADH2 (1 glucose gives 2 TCA turns)

77
Q

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as (#) electron carrier

A

a 1-electron carrier

78
Q

What type of bond is formed by glycogen synthase and the branching enzyme?

A

glycogen synthase- α-1,4-Glycosidic bond

branching enzyme- α-1,6-Glycosidic bond

79
Q

Antibodies participate in what type of bonds?

A

noncovalent protein interactions

80
Q

All steroids are synthesized from what?

A

cholesterol (isoprene units)

81
Q

Effects of entropy on hydrophobic and hydrophilic molecules in water

A

hydrophobic- decreased entropy

hydrophilic- increased entropy (order increases)

82
Q

noncovalent bonds

A

hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic bonds, salt bridge

83
Q

covalent bonds

A 
disulfide bonds (formation cause oxidation), peptide bonds
*irreversible interactions
84
Q

lineweaver-burk plot

A

slope= Km/Vmax

85
Q

If a reaction has a +G is it thermodynamically stable or unstable?

A

unstable

86
Q

cori cycle

A

lactate produced by anaerobic glycolysis in muscles is transported to the liver and converted to glucose, which then returns to the muscles

87
Q
  • gamma phosphate
  • beta phosphate
  • alpha phosphate
A 
gamma= ATP
beta= ADP
alpha= AMP
88
Q

TCA cycle uses which complex of the ETC?

A

Complex II

89
Q

Which hormones support glycogenolysis?

A

glucagon and epinephrine

90
Q

major sources of energy during starvation?

A

fatty acid oxidation and ketogenesis

91
Q

Where does fatty acid oxidation and fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

fatty acid oxidation- mitochondria (convert FA to acetyl-CoA)
fatty acid synthesis- cytosol

92
Q

Gel filtration chromatography

A

separates protein only on the basis of their size

93
Q

Which two amino acids undergo deamidation to produce ammonia?

A

glutamine and asparagine

94
Q

Which 2 ways can amino acids by formed?

A

gabriel synthesis and strecker synthesis

95
Q

Which amino acid has an R configuration?

A

cysteine (C)

96
Q

α helix

A

carbonyl (C=O) of one amino acid is hydrogen bonded to the amino H (N-H) of an amino acid that is four down the chain, pulling the chain into a helical structure

97
Q

β pleated sheet

A

2+ segments of a polypeptide chain line up next to each other, forming a sheet-like structure held together by hydrogen bonds

98
Q

protein stability

A

hydrophobic interactions and the increase of entropy in the solvation layer

99
Q

cDNA cloning

A
  • reverse transcriptase creates single strand of cDNA from target mRNA sequence
  • DNA polymerase synthesize second complementary strand and amplify target cDNA sequence
  • insert into plasmid vector via restriction enzymes
100
Q

Where is ATP produced?

A

mitochondria

101
Q

telomeres and centromeres are composed of (heterochromatin/euchromatin)

A

heterochromatin

102
Q

Molecules that decrease TCA cycle activity?

A

NADH, ATP, citrate, succinyl-coA

103
Q

pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

A
  • oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-coA and reduction of NAD+ to NADH
  • requires lipoic acid enzyme
104
Q

fatty acids are oxidized into what?

A

acetyl-coA

105
Q

formation of hemiacetal ring

A

intramolecular bond forming between the C1 hydroxyl and C5 carbonyl forms a ring which is the hemiacetal (enol) ring

106
Q

hormone sensitive lipase

A
  • hydrolyze fatty acids from triacylglycerides

- increases with glucagon levels and decrease with insulin levels

107
Q

cortisol is similar to insulin or glucagon?

A

glucagon

108
Q

Ping-pong mechanism (double-displacement reaction)

A

change of the enzyme into an intermediate form when the first substrate to product reaction occurs

109
Q

catalytic efficiency

A
  • kcat/Km

- Vmax=kcat[E]

110
Q

Which type of inhibitor does NOT alter the Km/Vmax ratio of an enzyme?

A

Uncompetitive

111
Q

hydrogen bonding of A, T, G, C

A
  • Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor
  • Thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor
  • Guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor
  • Cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors
112
Q

High ATP, low ADP for glycolysis vs gluconeogenesis

A

glycolysis: inhibit
gluconeogenesis: activate

MCAT EK Review (5 decks)

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