Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HUBS191 > BIOC192 practice test > Flashcards

BIOC192 practice test Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the central dogma of molecular biology?
    A. RNA->DNA->Protein B. Protein->RNA->DNA C. DNA->RNA->Protein D. Lactase->DNA->ATP
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What determines the function of a protein?
    A. Its 3D shape.
    B. Itscolour.
    C. Its cofactors.
    D. Its 2D structure.
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The sequence of what in a protein determines how it folds?
    A. Bases
    B. Aminoacids C. Sugars
    D. phospholipids
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Why might a biochemist make a particular protein in the laboratory?
    A. To determine its function.
    B. To determine its structure.
    C. To determine what it interacts with.
    D. All the above.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Proteins are polymers of:
    A. nucleoside monophosphates linked together by covalent bonds.
    B. amino acids linked together by ester covalent bonds.
    C. amino acids linked together by peptide covalent bonds.
    D. amino acids linked together by non-covalent omega bonds.
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which statement about the amino acid glycine is INCORRECT?
    A. It is commonly part of alpha helices.
    B. It provides local flexibility to a protein.
    C. It is often found in turns.
    D. It is not involved in disulfide bond formation.
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about the amino acid (cysteine, at neutral pH) shown below is INCORRECT?
    A. It has a side chain that can become deprotonated at high pH.
    B. It can be involved in forming covalent bonds that stabilise tertiary
    structures.
    C. It is commonly found in beta turns connecting the strands of beta-sheets.
    D. It can be involved in forming a type of post-translational modification.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The amino acid pictured below:
    A. is classified as a charged amino acid.
    B. is likely to be found in the hydrophobic core of a protein.
    C. when found at the N-terminus of a protein (at physiological pH) has no
    net charge.
    D. has a sidechain which commonly forms hydrogen bonds that stabilise
    alpha helices.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which forms of the alpha-amino and alpha-carboxyl groups of alanine are most likely to occur at very high pH (for the free amino acid)?
    A. NH3+ and COO- B. NH2andCOO- C. NH2 and COOH D. NH3+ and COOH
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about the peptide bond in proteins is INCORRECT?
    A. The peptide bond is planar.
    B. The peptide bond is never in the cis conformation.
    C. The peptide bond is rigid.
    D. The peptide bond is an example of an amide bond.
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Amino acid side chain modification such as:
    A. phosphorylation is commonly used to control enzyme activity, like an ON/OFF switch.
    B. hydroxylation facilitates hydrogen bond formation required for the activation of blood clotting factors.
    C. carboxylation, when applied to haemoglobin, can be used to diagnose, and monitor diabetes.
    D. glycosylation catalyses disulfide bond formation to stabilise tertiary protein structures.
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What level(s) of protein structure(s) are stabilized ONLY via hydrogen bonds?
    A. Primary
    B. Secondary C. Tertiary
    D. Quaternary
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. An alpha helix in a protein:
    A. Contains 3.6 amino acids per turn and is stabilised by covalent crosslinks.
    B. Contains 4 amino acids per turn and is stabilised by hydrogen bonds
    between every fourth amino acid.
    C. Contains 3.6 amino acids per turn, does not normally contain proline and
    is often polar on one side and non-polar on the other side.
    D. Contains 3.6 amino acids per turn, has the amino acid side chains facing
    the inside of the helix and can vary in length.
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which statement about beta turns is INCORRECT?
    A. They are relatively short, normally four residues in length.
    B. They commonly contain proline residues.
    C. They commonly contain glycine residues.
    D. They connect individual polypeptides.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which statement is INCORRECT?
    A. Hydrogen bonding is important for stabilizing secondary structure in proteins.
    B. Hydrogen bonds in alpha helices form between the carbonyl oxygen from a peptide bond and the amino hydrogen from a different peptide bond further along the polypeptide chain.
    C. Hydrogen bonds between amino acid sidechains can stabilise the tertiary structure of proteins.
    D. The side chains of polar amino acids are buried deep inside of a protein to stabilise its hydrophilic core.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about protein structure is NOT correct?
    A. Domains are discrete parts of a protein structure, usually associated with a particular function.
    B. Beta-sheets are stabilised by hydrogen bonds between carbonyl oxygens and amino hydrogens from amino acids that are next to each other on the same beta-strand.
    C. Proteins made from three polypeptide chains show quaternary structure.
    D. The primary sequence of a polypeptide determines how the protein will fold.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which statement about secondary structures is CORRECT?
    A. Beta sheets are pleated structures with a slight left-handed twist.
    B. Alpha helices cannot have a polar and a non-polar side.
    C. Parallel beta strands are connected by supersecondary structures.
    D. Turns, loops and coils connect beta strands and alpha helices together.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. EDHWVNQYSAIT is an amino acid sequence that can form an alpha helix. Which residues are involved in forming a hydrogen bond with residue N (underlined)?
    A. DandA
    B. W only
    C. H and S
    D. V and Q
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
    A. An alpha-helix is an example of secondary structure in a protein.
    B. Super-secondary structure refers to many short non-helical sequences of
    amino acids that associate together in a protein.
    C. The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to the overall three-
    dimensional structure of the polypeptide.
    D. The quaternary structure of a protein refers to how different polypeptide
    chains are arranged in a multi-subunit protein.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. In proteins, supersecondary structures are:
    A. extra-large alpha-helices and beta-sheets.
    B. structural features that have more than one secondary structure (alpha-
    helix, beta-sheet) element.
    C. β-turns between alpha-helices.
    D. always joined together by disulphide bonds between cysteine residues
    from different secondary structure elements.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What is the main driving force in protein folding?
    A. Covalent bond formation.
    B. Hydrogen bond formation.
    C. Hydrophobic core formation.
    D. Disulfide bond formation.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the main driving force in protein folding?
    A. Covalent bond formation.
    B. Hydrogen bond formation.
    C. Hydrophobic core formation.
    D. Disulfide bond formation.
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements regarding haem iron is CORRECT?
    A. In normal oxygenated haemoglobin, the iron changes permanently from Fe(II) to Fe(III).
    B. Normally the iron changes permanently from Fe(II) to Fe(III) in oxygenated myoglobin, but remains as Fe(II) in oxygenated haemoglobin.
    C. Fe(III) haem cannot act as a reversible carrier of oxygen in vivo.
    D. Oxygen binds to haemoglobin when BPG ceases to block the haem binding
    site.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. The T-state of haemoglobin is stabilised by:
    A. Binding of bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) between subunits. B. Binding of oxygen to the Fe2+ ion in the haem.
    C. Protonation of globin residue side chains.
    D. CO2 binding to the Fe2+ ion in the haem.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What connects allosteric control and cooperativity?
    A. Both are features of myoglobin.
    B. Both give rise to a sigmoidal activity curve.
    C. Both occur only in multimeric proteins.
    D. Both depend on a protein shifting between R- and T-states.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) is CORRECT?
    A. BPG binds with a higher affinity to foetal haemoglobin than to adult haemoglobin.
    B. BPG increases the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin.
    C. BPG binds allosterically to stabilise the T state of haemoglobin.
    D. BPG binds to the haem Fe to facilitate oxygen release.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Hemoglobin’s ability to deliver more than 30% of its oxygen load to resting peripheral tissues after adaptation to high altitude can be explained by:
    A. a decrease in BPG thereby increasing haemoglin’s affinity for oxygen more in the lungs than in peripheral tissues.
    B. a decrease in BPG thereby reducing haemoglin’s affinity for oxygen more in peripheral tissues than in the lungs.
    C. an increase in BPG thereby increasing haemoglin’s affinity for oxygen more in the lungs than in peripheral tissues.
    D. an increase in BPG thereby reducing haemoglin’s affinity for oxygen more in peripheral tissues than in the lungs.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Haemoglobin displays a sigmoidal oxygen binding curve because:
    A. the haemoglobin subunits bind oxygen independently.
    B. the haem groups in haemoglobin interact directly with each other and
    influence the binding of oxygen.
    C. the binding of oxygen to a haemoglobin subunit can change the conformation
    of that subunit, and this change then influences the conformation and oxygen
    binding ability of other subunits.
    D. the haemoglobin subunits are covalently bonded together, and when one
    oxygen molecule binds it causes a conformational change in all of the subunits.
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What enables enzymes to bind to substrates very selectively?
    A. The 3D geometry and chemical properties of the active site
    B. Post-translational modifications of the active site.
    C. Enzyme cofactors.
    D. Physiological substrate concentrations.
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. An enzyme catalysed reaction:
    A. releases more energy than the equivalent uncatalyzed reaction.
    B. has a lower activation energy than the equivalent uncatalyzed reaction.
    C. can only proceed in one direction.
    D. increases the rate of reaction by bringing the energy of the products closer to
    the energy of reactants (substrates).
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. The active site of an enzyme:
    A. Is a discrete three-dimensional pocket on the enzyme that is separate from the substrate binding site.
    B. Always forms a covalent bond with the substrate to ensure that the chemical reaction is completed.
    C. Enables destabilization of the transition state.
    D. Includes amino acid sidechains that specifically bind substrate through
    multiple weak interactions.
A

D

32
Q
  1. Which statement about the role of enzymes in cellular metabolism is NOT correct:
    A. Enzymes speed up reaction rates.
    B. Enzymes ensure that all chemical reactions are at equilibrium.
    C. Enzymes can be regulated by metabolic products.
    D. Enzymes couple reactions to make overall ΔG negative.
A

B

33
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about enzyme-substrate interactions is NOT correct?
    A. Enzyme-substrate binding is reversible.
    B. Enzymes usually bind many different substrates with equal affinity.
    C. The induced fit model of enzyme-substrate interactions predicts that binding
    of substrate to enzyme leads to a conformational change in the enzyme.
    D. The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex usually involves non-covalent
    interactions.
A

B

34
Q
  1. In enzyme kinetics, a progress curve:
    A. Shows the appearance of product or disappearance of substrate, over time.
    B. Becomes less steep with time because enzyme concentration increases.
    C. Has a constant slope (gradient) across time because the rate of enzyme
    catalysis is constant.
    D. Becomes less steep (decreases in gradient) as the rate of reaction increases.
A

A

35
Q
  1. Why is Vmax rarely reached in physiological conditions?
    A. Reaching Vmax requires saturating concentrations of substrate, and such high substrate concentrations are rarely reached in physiological conditions.
    B. Reaching Vmax requires high enzyme concentrations and such high enzyme concentrations are rarely reached in physiological conditions.
    C. It is common for enzymes to be partially inhibited by competitive inhibitors in physiological conditions, therefore limiting the reaction velocity below Vmax.
    D. Enzymes in physiological conditions are often binding alternative substrates, limiting the reaction velocity below Vmax for the preferred substrate.
A

A

36
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    A. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction an enzyme can catalyse when saturated with substrate.
    B. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction an enzyme can catalyse when substrate concentration is limited.
    C. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction an enzyme can catalyse when substrate concentration is at half Km.
    D. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction an enzyme can catalyse when substrate concentration is at Km.
A

A

37
Q
  1. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is present in the active site of glycogen phosphorylase, where it acts as a:
    A. Non-competitive inhibitor.
    B. Transition state intermediate.
    C. Co-enzyme.
    D. Allosteric activator.
A
38
Q
  1. You wish to design a competitive inhibitor for an enzyme from a disease- causing bacteria. To achieve the best inhibition, the inhibitor should be an analogue (look like) of the:
    A. enzyme.
    B. reaction substrate.
    C. transition state of the reaction.
    D. reaction product.
A
39
Q
  1. A non-competitive inhibitor:
    A. resembles the transition state of the catalysed reaction. B. increases the apparent KM without affecting Vmax.
    C. increases Vmax without affecting KM.
    D. can bind the enzyme substrate complex (ES).
A

B

40
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about enzyme kinetics is INCORRECT?
    A. The Vmax of a reaction does not depend on the enzyme concentration.
    B. At substrate concentrations below KM the velocity of a reaction varies with
    substrate concentration.
    C. The velocity of a reaction at any particular substrate concentration [S]
    depends on the Vmax and KM of the enzyme.
    D. When comparing kcat/KM values for different enzymes, enzymes with higher
    values are more efficient.
A

B

41
Q
  1. Which statement about the glycogen phosphorylase enzyme is INCORRECT:
    A. Glycogen phosphorylase can be regulated by post-translational modification.
    B. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by directly binding to insulin.
    C. Allosteric regulators can increase or decrease glycogen phosphorylase
    activity.
    D. Glycogen phosphorylase releases glucose-1-phosphate in response to energy
    demand.
A

B

42
Q
  1. Fill in the blank with the best option: Antagonist is to receptor as _______ is to enyme.
    A. Inhibitor. B. Activator. C. Substrate. D. Ligand.
A

D

43
Q
  1. If a mixture of an agonist and an antagonist is added to a receptor, what can happen?
    A. Neither the agonist nor the antagonist will be able to bind to the receptor.
    B. The agonist and antagonist will compete to bind to the receptor.
    C. Only the antagonist will bind to the receptor.
    D. Only the agonist will bind to the receptor.
A

B

44
Q
  1. A patient has hypoglycaemia and is going to be treated using the GlucaGen HypoKit. This contains a synthetic version of the hormone glucagon, which acts in the same way as naturally-occurring glucagon. Which of the following statements relating to glucagon is correct?
    A. Glucagon uses a G protein-coupled receptor to produce signal transduction. B. Glucagon is an antagonist of the insulin receptor.
    C. Glucagon is a steroid hormone.
    D. Synthetic glucagon in an analogue of GLP-1.
A

A

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is a chemical substance that activates a receptor?
    A. Agonist.
    B. Antagonist. C. Substrate. D. Inhibitor.
A

A

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is a chemical substance that prevents the activation of a receptor by an agonist?
    A. Antagonist
    B. Allosteric modulator
    C. Substrate
    D. Competitive inactivator
A

A

47
Q
  1. A pharmaceutical company wants to identify a novel agonist for a G protein- coupled receptor. Which of the following would be a good starting point for their drug discovery programme?
    A. Steroid receptor acting drugs.
    B. A chemical compound library of cell-penetrant molecules.
    C. The chemical structure of the endogenous ligand that activates the receptor. D. GTP
A

C

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a second messenger that is used by G protein- coupled receptors?
    A. cAMP
    B. cGMP
    C. Diacylglycerol
    D. Adenylate cyclase
A

C

49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements relating to ligand-gated ion channels is CORRECT?
    A. Ligand-gated ion channels do not bind agonists.
    B. Ligand-gated ion channels use adaptor proteins to signal.
    C. Ligand-gated ion channels undergo a conformational change to become
    activated.
    D. Ligand-gated ion channels produce slower signalling as compared to G
    protein coupled receptors.
A

C

50
Q
  1. The flow of genetic information in a cell is:
    A. The flow of genetic information in a cell is: DNA -> tRNA -> protein.
    B. The flow of genetic information in a cell is: DNA -> mRNA -> protein.
    C. The flow of genetic information in a cell is: tRNA -> DNA -> protein.
    D. The flow of genetic information in a cell is: mRNA -> DNA -> protein.
A

B

51
Q
  1. Translation is the synthesis of:
    A. DNA from an mRNA template.
    B. protein from an mRNA template.
    C. mRNA from a DNA template.
    D. RNA from an mRNA template.
A

C

52
Q
  1. Which one of the following are the key elements of a gene?
    A. Promotor region, exons, transcription factor binding sites, introns.
    B. Promoter region, plasmid, posttranslational modification, exons.
    C. Exons, initiator tRNA, RNA polymerase, start codon.
    D. Exons, small ribosomal subunit, start codon, plasmid.
A

A

53
Q
  1. A strand of DNA with the sequence 5’ AACTTG 3’ will have a complimentary strand with the following sequence:
    A. 5’ CCAGGT 3’
    B. 5’ TTGAAC 3’
    C. 3’ TTCAAG 5’
    D. 3’ TTGAAC 5’
A

D

54
Q
  1. How are genes inherited from your parents?
    A. Both genes come from the father.
    B. Both genes come from the mother.
    C. One gene comes from the mother and one gene comes from the father.
    D. The genes come randomly in pairs from either the mother or the father.
A

C

55
Q
  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of transcription factors in controlling gene transcription?
    A. Transcription factors are structural components of the gene.
    B. Transcription factors bind to the mRNA molecule to initiate translation.
    C. Transcription factors regulate the stability of the mRNA molecule.
    D. Transcription factors bind to the DNA sequence upstream of the gene to
    control its transcription.
A

D

56
Q
  1. What is the primary function of a gene promoter in DNA?
    A. It codes for the protein product of the gene.
    B. It determines the location of the gene on a chromosome.
    C. It regulates the expression of the gene by binding transcription factors. D. It is responsible for DNA replication during cell division.
A

C

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the function of a protein encoded by a recessive allele?
    A. The protein is always fully functional and performs its intended function.
    B. The protein is only functional in some cell types.
    C. The protein is non-functional and cannot perform its intended function.
    D. The protein is hyper-functional, resulting in increased functional activity.
A

C

58
Q
  1. Which of the following factors contribute to the phenotype of an individual?
    A. Only genetic factors
    B. Only environmental factors
    C. Both genetic and environmental factors
    D. None of the above
A

A

59
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding germline mutations is CORRECT?
    A. It is passed on to offspring.
    B. It can be inherited from one or both parents.
    C. It is present in gametes.
    D. All of the above.
A

D

60
Q
  1. A substitution mutation in a gene sometimes has no effect on the protein that the gene codes for. Which of the following factors could account for this?
    A. The rarity of such mutations.
    B. Some amino acids have more than one codon.
    C. The dominant allele can compensate for the silent mutation.
    D. Both options A and B.
A

C

61
Q
  1. How does a hormone signal result in changes in the expression of a gene within the cell?
    A. The signal directly modifies the DNA sequence of the gene.
    B. The signal alters the location of the gene within the cell.
    C. The signal triggers the activation of specific transcription factors.
    D. The signal induces changes in the membrane potential of the cell.
A

C

62
Q
  1. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a:
    A. rare metabolic disease that prevents the breakdown of phenylalanine.
    B. rare metabolic disease that prevents the breakdown of all amino acids.
    C. disorder of the skin that causes rashes and blistering.
    D. disease that causes the body to make too much phenylalanine.
A

A

63
Q
  1. Why is PCR (polymerase chain reaction) commonly used in genetic testing?
    A. It cuts a gene at a unique restriction site to identify a mutation.
    B. It generates a very large number of copies of a specific DNA region.
    C. It sequences DNA strands and identifies DNA substitutions.
    D. It separates homozygous alleles from heterozygous alleles using a DNA gel.
A

B

64
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of using prokaryotic expression systems to produce recombinant therapeutic proteins?
    A. They have a decreased probability of contamination by human pathogens.
    B. Large amounts of protein can be produced.
    C. Proteins are relatively cheap to produce in prokaryotes.
    D. Expressed eukaryotic proteins usually have the appropriate post-translational
    modifications.
A

D

65
Q
  1. Which statement about recombinant expression plasmids is INCORECT?
    A. They are circular pieces of double-stranded DNA.
    B. They contain a promoter.
    C. They are double-stranded pieces of linear DNA.
    D. They are used to introduce a target gene into a host cell.
A

C

66
Q
  1. Choose the BEST answer. Recombinant insulin can be produced in:
    A. E.coli
    B. mammalian cell culture
    C. transgenic cows
    D. all of the above
A

D

67
Q
  1. Choose the BEST answer. Erythropoietin:
    A. Can be successfully produced in bacteria.
    B. Can be used to treat anaemic cancer patients.
    C. Is not glycosylated when produced in Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO)
    cells.
    D. Requires a mammalian promoter when expressed from a bacterial
    expression plasmid.
A

D

68
Q
  1. EPO and insulin can both be produced in E. coli. Which of these statements about EPO and/or insulin production is CORRECT?
    A. Both EPO and insulin produced in E. coli are functional.
    B. EPO produced in E. coli is not functional because it requires glycosylation.
    C. Insulin produced in E. coli is not functional because it requires
    glycosylation.
    D. Neither EPO nor insulin produced in E.coli are functional.
A

C

69
Q
    1. When whole animals are used to make therapeutic recombinant proteins, restricting expression to specific tissues can BEST be controlled by using:
      A. A mammalian cell-type specific promoter.
      B. A bacterial promoter.
      C. Inhibitors that specifically block gene expression in non-desirable tissues.
      D. An origin of replication within the plasmid.
A
70
Q
  1. Restriction enzymes cut:
    A. mRNA
    B. Single stranded DNA
    C. Double stranded DNA
    D. Protein
A

C

71
Q
  1. Which ONE of the following is NOT an advantage of using eukaryotic cells to produce therapeutic proteins, compared to sourcing proteins from human tissues?
    A. Can make large amounts of protein.
    B. Less chance of pathogen transmission.
    C. Can make proteins from any tissue.
    D. Less chance of an immune reaction to the therapeutic protein.
A

A

72
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about molecular cloning is INCORRECT?
    A. The selectable marker in a plasmid, e.g., an antibiotic resistance gene, allows for the selection of the cells that have been transformed with the plasmid.
    B. Commonly, a eukaryotic gene of interest is cloned into a eukaryotic expression plasmid, checked to ensure it has the correct DNA sequence, and then transfected into a eukaryotic host cell.
    C. When a eukaryotic gene is inserted into a prokaryote the construct needs to carry a eukaryotic promoter to allow expression of the eukaryotic gene.
    D. Transgenic animals are created by inserting a plasmid carrying your gene
    of interest into an oocyte or embryo, therefore the transgene will be carried by each cell of the adult animal.
A
73
Q
  1. Gene therapy:
    A. inserts proteins directly into host cells. B. has not yet been tested in humans.
    C. requires CRISPR-Cas gene editing.
    D. often uses disabled viruses as vectors
A

A

74
Q
  1. Genome editing in eukaryotic cells can be mediated by:
    A. Crispr-Cas9
    B. Restriction enzymes
    C. Ligases
    D. Proteases
A

A

75
Q
  1. Genes containing introns cannot be expressed in bacteria because:
    A. bacteria do not have the machinery for translation.
    B. bacteria splice out exons rather than introns.
    C. bacterial expression plasmids are too small for large genes containing introns.
    D. bacteria do not have cellular machinery required for splicing RNA.
A

D

HUBS191 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions