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BIO Q2 LQ2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

The technical application of biological knowledge for human purposes

A

Biotechnology

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2
Q

Biotechnology focuses on using living organisms like

A

bacteria, viruses, and fungi

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3
Q

Mainly used to create vaccines

A

Bio organisms

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4
Q

mainly used to create GMO Fruits and Vegetables

A

Plants

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5
Q

Mainly used to make better quality of products

A

Animals

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6
Q

Manipulation of the genetic makeup of cells or whole organisms

A

Genetic engineering

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7
Q

Universal language in biotechnology. It is present in all species.

A

ACTG

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8
Q

Cutting, splicing, and copying DNA
→ aims to amplify genetic material by combining two DNA sequences. It falls under genetic engineering.

A

Recombinant DNA Technology

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9
Q

How long is a cycle of Recombinant DNA Technology

A

24 hours

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10
Q

This is an example of _____: The process involves merging two segments of DNA strands. The first strand contains the desired DNA, such as genes from a lizard that enable wall-climbing. This desired DNA is combined with a second DNA strand from bacteria, chosen for its rapid reproduction rate. To perform this, tools are needed for cutting and pasting.
→ The lizard gene and bacterial DNA are fragmented and then joined together. As the bacteria reproduces, the desired gene multiplies. Eventually, the gene is harvested.

A

Recombinant DNA Technology

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11
Q

Human DNA is

A

Helical

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12
Q

Bacteria DNA is

A

Circular

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13
Q

Recombinant DNA technology process

A
  1. Cutting DNA into fragments
  2. Combining them
  3. Reintroducing them into
    bacteria
  4. Incubating
  5. Extracting and harvesting the gene
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14
Q

cut DNA at specific sites, often
palindromes

A

Restriction enzyme

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15
Q

Join fragments of DNA

A

DNA ligase

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

→ are strings of letters that read the same forwards and backwards.
→ They are significant because they act as signals for restriction enzymes. When these enzymes encounter palindromic sequences, they are prompted to initiate a cutting process.

A

Palindromic sequences

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18
Q

→ Cooling down the DNA sample
→ the reaction to 55-65°C for 45 seconds so primers can bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded template DNA
→ Allows the primer to attach to the DNA strand
→ Duration: 45 seconds

A

Annealing

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19
Q

→ Heating the reaction temperature
to 72°C for 2 minutes so Taq polymerase extends the primers, synthesizing new strands of DNA
→ Subject the DNA sample to heat again
→ Prepares for replication and the creation of complementary sister strands
→ A polymerase is added to the solution to facilitate extension

A

Extension

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20
Q

shares the same objective as recombinant DNA technology: amplifying genetic material. However, this method employs machines for a faster process, often used in medical settings for safety.

A

Polymerase chain reaction

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21
Q

How long does a cycle of PCR last?

A

5 minutes

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22
Q

PCR Cycle

A
  1. Denaturation
  2. Annealing
  3. Extension
  4. Cooling repeat cycle
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23
Q

→ Heating the reaction strongly (96°C for 1 minute) to separate, or denature, the DNA strands. This provides the single-stranded template for the next step
→ Subject the DNA to heat
→ Heat allows the hydrogen bonds to
separate, resulting in the separation of DNA strands 1 and 2
→ Duration:1minute

A

denaturation

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24
Q

Final temperature of amplicon solution should be cooling back to 5°C, this is to ensure proper bonding of newly synthesized strands of DNA
→ Cooling it down to stabilize everything

A

Cooling repeat cycle

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25
Q

→ Prior to sequencing, DNA must be amplified to get adequate amount
→ A,G,C,T fluorescent-labeled
dideoxynucleotides
→ Step1: Amplification, then Step2: Sequencing
→ Amplifying the DNA strands to
increase the amount available for sequencing
→ Sequencing involves examining the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA strands, which is not feasible without amplification
→ Colorimetric method: Utilizing color changes to measure the sequencing results
→ The first result shows bonds. Horizontal bonds are arranged vertically, and it is necessary to transcribe them.
→ The second result involves spikes, with colors used as references to sequence the DNA.

A

DNA Sequencing

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26
Q

replicates the DNA

A

DNA polymerase

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26
Q
  • enable initiation of DNA
    synthesis
  • A,G,C,T nucleotides
A

Primers

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27
Q

separates DNA strands by size

A

Gel electrophoresis

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28
Q

→ Often DNA samples must be amplified by PCR first
→ DNA is cut with restriction enzymes
→ Different individuals will have different lengths of DNA between the restriction sites
→ DNA is separated by gel electrophoresis and fragment pattern is compared
→ Relies on the parallelism of DNA bonds to identify individuals

A

DNA Fingerprinting

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29
Q

→ Gel is placed in a plastic mold with
electrodes to determine positive and negative sides
→ DNA samples are placed in wells,
typically on the negative side since
DNA is negatively charged
→ DNA migrates from the negative to positive side under the influence of
electricity, creating distinct bands
→ Differential migration occurs due to
variations in nucleotide weight; larger molecules migrate less distance, while smaller ones travel farther

A

Gel electrophoresis

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30
Q

are developed with the intention of improving human health and addressing various challenges in agriculture and food production.

A

GMOs

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31
Q

They are created by altering the genetic makeup of organisms, including plants and animals.

A

GMOs

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32
Q

→ Are normally used because they reproduce rapidly and efficiently.
→ They offer advantages in terms of cost, time, effort, and production
location.
→ have been developed to produce the following:
⧫ Insulin
⧫ Human growth hormone
⧫ Tissue plasminogen
activator (tPA)
⧫ Factor VIII (blood clotting
factor needed by many
hemophiliacs)
⧫ Vaccines

A

Transgenic bacteria

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33
Q

→ are becoming increasingly popular
and are commonly found in grocery stores.
→ While we often associate GMO plants with physical characteristics such as size, quality, and appearance, it’s important to note that it also enhances other traits like resistance to pests and diseases, and increased vitamin content.

A

Transgenic plants

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34
Q

Have been modified to express the following:
⧫ Increased resistance to freezing
⧫ Longer shelf life
⧫ Increased vitamin A
⧫ Human proteins (i.e.,
albumin)
⧫ Increased resistance to
pests

A

Transgenic plants

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35
Q

→ are bigger challenges
→ More difficult to introduce foreign
DNA into animal cells
→ Cloning more difficult

A

Transgenic animals

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35
Q

used to promote faster animal growth

A

Bovine Growth Hormone

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36
Q

introducing human genes into dairy animals in such a way that the human protein is produced in the dairy animal’s milk

A

Gene pharming

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37
Q

These genetically modified pigs are designed to be resistant to the

A

PRRS (Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome)

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38
Q

involves manipulating certain genetic sequences, but its primary goal is not always to enhance physical traits or confer resistance. Instead, its main objective is to treat or correct specific diseases or disorders by targeting the underlying genetic causes or regulating symptoms.

A

Gene therapy

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39
Q

is a condition where the body lacks the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA), a vital immune system enzyme. patients are highly susceptible to infections, and researchers are exploring genetic modification techniques to introduce functional ADA genes into their cells. This will restore ADA’s activity, enabling the production of B and T cells, enhancing the immune system’s defenses and improving the patient’s quality of life.

A

SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency)

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40
Q

Is a condition characterized by the over-accumulation of mucus, leading to blockages in the airways. Gene therapy has developed nasal sprays to address this issue, providing relief from mucus buildup when needed.

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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41
Q

People with SCID lack this enzyme

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

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42
Q

In cancer treatment, gene therapy aims to modify _____ within the patient’s genes. These regulate cell growth, helping to inhibit or regulate the overproduction of cancer cells rather than directly killing them.

A

Interleukins

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43
Q

Membrane proteins that boost the infection rate.

A

M

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43
Q

____ is not for killing but coexisting

A

Vaccination

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44
Q

Contains the nucleus of the genetic material

A

N

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44
Q

Proteins involved in the assembly and release of mature viruses.

A

E

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44
Q

Human genes can be packaged in ____, which can introduce genes into human cells

A

Retroviruses

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45
Q

Spikes, which are attracted to receptors on human cells found in airways.

A

S

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46
Q

contain the genetic material of COVID, which helps your body build immunity against the virus. This allows your body to remember the virus and respond more effectively if you encounter it again, potentially reducing the severity of the infection. The genetic material in these vaccines can be either DNA or RNA.

A

Genetic vaccines

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46
Q

is used to amplify DNA, but COVID contains RNA instead. In this process, the RNA strand is converted into a DNA strand through a reversal process.

A

RT PCR

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47
Q

contain the entire virus, but it’s been killed or inactivated before being used in the vaccine. This allows your body to recognize the virus and build immune memory against it, without causing illness.

A

Inactivated vaccine

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48
Q

provide specific proteins from the virus to trigger an immune response without introducing the whole virus.

A

Protein vaccines

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49
Q

contain a weakened form of the virus that can still trigger an immune response but are not strong enough to cause illness.

A

Attenuated vaccines

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50
Q

Any poisonous chemical substance and its by-products or organism present in our immediate environment that negatively affects human health
- The chemicals of most concern are those that have very low solubilities in water but are highly soluble in fat.

A

Environmental toxins

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51
Q

Heavy metals directly contaminate soil, leading to immediate exposure risks. Sources: Similar to indirect pollution but directly affecting soil through industrial and domestic activities.

A

Direct pollution

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51
Q

Concentration: (Increases/decreases) along the food chain, with higher concentrations in organisms higher on the chain.

A

Increases

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52
Q

naturally occurring substances that accumulate and cause damage to the environment and living beings, including humans
include substances known as semimetals or metalloids that can have the same deleterious effects

A

Heavy metals

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53
Q

Common heavy metals

A

arsenic, lead, mercury

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54
Q

Heavy metals discharge into the environment, primarily via water systems, leading to contamination.
Sources: Natural sources like rocks, volcanic eruptions, and dust particles, as well as industrial and domestic activities.

A

Indirect pollution

55
Q

Accumulation of heavy metals, in toxic amounts, in the soft tissues of the body. Symptoms may vary depending on the type of metal and the level of exposure, ranging from mild to severe neurological, respiratory, and gastrointestinal effects.

A

Heavy Metal poisoning

56
Q

→ Found in topical creams, herbicides, and paints.
→ Symptoms: hyperpigmentation in
the skin and misalignment in the nails.

A

Arsenic

56
Q

Found in batteries, paint, gasoline, and construction materials.
→ Symptoms: distal pore and Burton’s line in the gums.

A

Lead

57
Q

Found in dental amalgam and liquid in thermometers.
→ Symptoms include tremors, visual and hearing impairments.

A

Mercury

58
Q

→ Introduction of harmful substances into the environment.
→ Can be natural, such as volcanic emissions.
→ Can also be created by human activity, such as trash or runoff produced by factories.

A

Pollution

59
Q

→ contamination of the indoor or outdoor air by a range of gasses and solids that modify its natural characteristics
→ mix of hazardous substances from both human-made and natural sources
→ Health Effects: Brain damage, stroke, asthma, allergy, bronchitis,

A

Air pollution

60
Q

Good and beneficial
cause it prevents ultraviolet rays from reaching us

A

Stratosphere

61
Q

Is not good and is
considered a pollutant

A

Troposphere

61
Q

→ atmospheric conditions that trap
smog and prevent its dispersal
→ Control: air pollution abatement
measures
→ Normally, the atmosphere has a
layering of cold air at the top, followed by cooler air and warm air near the surface.
→ This pattern is disrupted: cold air becomes trapped at the surface under a layer of warmer air, forming an inversion layer.
→ At the bottom of this inversion layer, pollutants like smog can accumulate, leading to poor air quality.
→ There is an increase in temperature with altitude.

A

Thermal inversion

62
Q

→ Excessive _____
leads to global warming
→ Human activities have increased
levels of CO,
→ Causes:
★ Deforestation
★ Burning of fossil fuels
→ Excessive levels, primarily carbon
dioxide, result in global warming.
→ It is normal to have this otherwise
the earth will be cold. However, excessive amounts would lead to Global Warming.

A

Greenhouse gasses

62
Q

→ It is formed in the atmosphere
because of chemical reactions
between pollutants.
→ Vary in size (PM 2.5, PM 10) and
formed through chemical reactions
among pollutants.
→ Long term exposure is linked to irregular heartbeat, asthma exacerbation, decreased lung function, coughing, difficulty breathing, and premature death.

A

Particulate Matter (PM)

63
Q

→ Produced from the interaction of
chemicals with the sunlight.
→ Can be brown or grayish blue.
→ Components of this include:
★ Nitrogen oxides
★ Hydrocarbons
★ Eye and respiratory irritants
★ Small oil droplets, wood particles, coal ash, asbestos, lead, animal waste, dust

A

Smog

64
Q

Indicator of thermal inversion, caused by pollutants interacting with sunlight.

A

Smog

65
Q

→ Harmful substances contaminating water ecosystems, degrading water quality and quantity, rendering it toxic to humans and other species.
→ Occurs when harmful substances contaminate a body of water which:
★ Degrades the water quality
★ Renders the water toxic to humans and environment

A

Water pollution

66
Q

Origins of pollutants are diffuse and challenging to trace, such as agricultural runoff.

A

Non-point sources

67
Q

Pollution can be directly traced to specific sources like factories, mines, and oil tankers.

A

Point sources

68
Q

Immediate exposure to
contaminated water can lead to poisoning.
For example, drinking from polluted rivers or streams can result in acute toxicity.

A

Direct impact

69
Q
  • Releases toxic chemicals to the environment
  • Waste discharges from factories and industrial activities.
A

Industrialization

70
Q

→ Consumption of contaminated
organisms, such as fish, can lead to exposure to pollutants.
■ Bioaccumulation
→ Pollutants accumulate in the tissues of organisms and can affect humans higher up the food chain.

A

Indirect impact

71
Q
  • Pesticides, fertilizers and farm wastes
  • Runoff from agricultural areas, including fields and farms.
A

agriculture

72
Q
  • Natural weathering
  • Weathering of rocks, releasing
    pollutants into water bodies.
A

Natural factors

73
Q

Algal blooms due to nutrient-rich pollutants, leading to toxin production harmful to aquatic life and humans.

A

Red tide

74
Q

Consequences of water pollution

A

Red tide, health impacts, dehydration and mortality

75
Q

Primary producers in aquatic ecosystems, sensitive to changes in water quality and useful as biological indicators.

A

Phytoplankton

76
Q

→ Flagellated
★ If you have sample water containing this, you’ll notice rapid movement due to their flagella.
→ Eye spot cytoplasm is in near the canal
→ greenincolor
→ very fast in terms of movement
★ Trachelomonassp. ★ Euglenasp.

A

Euglenophyta

77
Q

→ thick cell wall made of silica
★ When they die the silica goes to the ocean floor
→ brown coloration.
★ Nitzschiasp.
★ Naviculasp. ★ Melosirasp. ★ Rhopalodia

A

Bacillariophyta

78
Q

→ flagellar insertion
→ Pigmentation
→ Can swim in the water
→ Outer covering called the theca
→ Their cell wall is very thick
→ Cause red ride especially in coastal
areas
→ The toxins during the red tide is stable in hot and acidic environment

A

Dinophyta

79
Q

→ known to be the green algae
→ chlorophyll-a and -b as
photosynthetic pigments
→ solitary colonial or filamentous
★ Oocystissp
★ Scenedesmussp ★ Pediastrumsp

A

Chlorophyta

80
Q

→ Prokaryotic organisms lacking nucleus
→ Blue-green in nature
→ Can exist as solitary organisms or in colonies
→ Cause harmful algal blooms
→ Their population increases in environments with high pollutants
→ Contains pigments that enable
photosynthesis. ★ Anabaena
★ Chroococcus ★ Microcystis ★ Merismopedia

A

Cyanophyta

81
Q

→ “Whooping cough”
→ Marked by a severe hacking cough
followed by a high-pitched intake of breath that sounds like a “whoop” due to the high intake of breath

A

Pertussis (Bacterial infection)

82
Q

→ Infection in one or both of the lungs
→ Causes the air sacs of the lungs to fill up with fluid or pus
→ The presence of Streptococcus pneumoniae initiates inflammation in the lungs, leading to signs and symptoms, while the rusty sputum is caused by a combination of fluid and pus along with our immune cells.

A

Pneumonia (Bacterial infection)

83
Q

→ Chronic pulmonary and systemic disease
→ can also occur outside the lungs, known as extrapulmonary TB, but it is prevented by the PCG vaccine administered at birth, which helps prevent various forms of tuberculosis
○ Signs and Symptoms
↠ Cough that lasts 3 weeks or longer
↠ Coughing up blood
↠ Weakness
↠ Night sweats
↠ Weight loss

A

Tuberculosis (Bacterial infection)

84
Q

→ Single-stranded enveloped RNA virus
○ Mode of Transmission
↠ Respiratory droplets
○ Signs and Symptoms
↠ 3 C’s (cough, coryza (runny nose), and conjunctivitis)
○ Diagnosis
↠ Presence of febrile rash illness (high fever and rash on the skin)
↠ Confirmatory: RT-PCR pf throat or nasopharyngeal swab
○ Treatment and Management
↠ MMR Vaccine given at 9
months after birth
↠ Supportive treatment only if acquired at a later age

A

Measles (Viral infection)

85
Q

Flavivirus is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito, although in some cases, it can also be transmitted by other species within the Aedes genus.

A

Dengue (Viral infection)

86
Q

Dengue is transmitted by the _____ mosquito

A

Aedes

87
Q

→ Novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2
→ First detected in Wuhan, China
○ Mode of Transmission
↠ Respiratory droplets ○ Signs and Symptoms
↠ Mild to severe respiratory illness
○ Diagnosis
↠ RT-PCR using
nasopharyngeal swab

A

COVID-19 (Viral infection)

88
Q

Emerging pathogen associated with multiple nosocomial infections Spreads easily in healthcare facilities

A

Candidiasis (Fungal infection)

89
Q

Similar to pneumonia
Cause a rapidly progressive, bilateral pneumonia
Opportunistic infections can be present inside your body without showing signs and symptoms until your immune system becomes weakened.

A

Pneumocystis (Fungal infection)

90
Q

→ Encapsulated yeasts that cause
→ meningoencephalitis
○ Causative Agent
↠ Cryptococcus neoformans ○ Mode of Transmission
↠ Present in soil and in birds (particularly pigeons)
○ SIgns and symptoms
↠ Cranial neuropathies,
altered mentation
↠ Lethargy
↠ Memory loss
↠ Signs of meningeal irritation
○ Treatment and Management
↠ Amphotericin B deoxycholate

A

Cryptococcosis

91
Q

→ Infections from intestinal worms that are transmitted through contaminated soil
→ Persons at risk: children, farmers, soldiers, workers in direct contact with soil
Humans can become infected through the fecal-oral route.

A

Soil-transmitted Helminthiasis (Parasitic Infection)

92
Q

→ An infection caused by a lung fluke that infects the lungs
→ Commonly misdiagnosed as pulmonary tuberculosis
→ It is a preventable and treatable disease. However, due to misdiagnosis, many patients die because they are initially treated for pulmonary tuberculosis. Since the treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis typically lasts up to six months, patients are re-evaluated after this period, only to discover that they actually have ____. By this time, the infection might have proliferated significantly in the lungs, making it more challenging to recover.
○ Causative Agent
↠ Paragonimus westermanii
○ Mode of Transmission
↠ Ingestion of metacercariae
from inadequately cooked crab or crayfish

A

Paragonimiasis (Parasitic infection)

93
Q

→ Commonly known as elephantiasis
→ The parasite is transmitted through
the bites of mosquitoes
○ Causative Agent
↠ Wuchereria bancrofti ○ Mode of Transmission
↠ Vector born
○ SIgns and symptoms
↠ Massive edema and elephantiasis
○ Treatment and Management ↠ Diethycarbamazine

A

Lymphatic Filariasis

94
Q

Process of bacterial infection

A

Contamination, adherence, colonization, invasion, damage

95
Q

→ Gain access to the host
→ Exposure to bacteria precedes ________. However, exposure doesn’t always lead to this, as the immune system usually defends against it. This occurs when the body’s defenses are weakened or compromised.

A

Contamination

96
Q

Bacteria May adhere to the body if
they are particularly strong or if they breach the immune system’s defenses. Once adhered, they can colonize other parts of the body.

A

Adherence

96
Q

______ involves bacteria attempting to overcome a specific part or organ. Once they cover the entire surface area successfully, colonization is achieved.

A

Colonization

96
Q

Produce toxins or other agents that cause host harm

A

Damage

97
Q

Following colonization, bacteria begin to ____ different tissues and move into various parts of the body.

A

Invade (Invasion)

98
Q

→ is an acute intestinal infection caused by ingestion of food or water contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
→ Short incubation period from less than 1 to 5 days.
→ The bacterium produces an enterotoxin that causes its symptoms, in extreme cases the patient may die within 2-3 hours if no treatment is provided.

A

Cholera

99
Q

→ leading cause of death in children under the age of 5 in developing
countries.
→ is a serious infection that can be
transmitted through the air via coughing or sneezing. It’s particularly common in hospitals, where many people become infected.
→ Pneumonia is the most serious of these infections but often can be treated with affordable medicines.

A

Acute respiratory infection

100
Q

cannot be killed because they are not alive; they need a living organism to become activated.

A

Viral

101
Q

Is a contagious disease of livestock (chicken, ducks ,birds) which may also cause severe infection in humans.

A

Bird flu

102
Q

→ Is a mosquito-borne disease caused by any one of four closely
related dengue viruses.
→ Mode of transmission:
■ Bite of an Aedes mosquito infected with a dengue virus.
■ The mosquito becomes infected when it bites a person with dengue virus in their blood.

A

Dengue fever

103
Q

is a novel coronavirus identified as the cause of coronavirus disease 2019 that began in Wuhan, China in late 2019 and spread worldwide.

A

(COVID-19) / SARS-CoV-2

104
Q

was identified in 2003 as
the cause of an outbreak of severe acute respiratory syndrome that began in China near the end of 2002.

A

SARS-CoV

104
Q

was identified in 2012as
the cause of Middle East respiratory syndrome

A

MERS-CoV

105
Q

A ______ comprises individuals of the same species occupying the same geographic area and interacting with each other.

A

population

105
Q

→ Caused by Aspergillus that lives indoors or outdoors
→ People with weakened immune systems or lung diseases are at a higher risk of developing health problems
→ Aspergillus fungi, commonly found on spoiled food like stale bread, can cause ____ when inhaled, irritating the lungs. While not typically fatal, it can be problematic for those with allergies, asthma, or sensitive respiratory systems, as the fungi release spores that trigger respiratory issues.

A

Aspergilliosis

106
Q

The ______ is the fundamental unit of ecology, consisting of interconnected communities of organisms and their physical environment. It encompasses both living organisms and abiotic factors, such as non-living entities and energy sources, which collectively influence population dynamics. This hierarchical system includes populations, communities, and the physical environment.

A

Ecosystem

107
Q

is the branch of ecology that studies the structure and dynamics of the population.

A

Population ecology

108
Q

number of individuals per unit area of volume refers to the number of individuals per unit area or volume.

A

Density

109
Q

Pattern of spacing among individuals within the boundaries of the population. It describes how spread out or clustered individuals are within a given area.

A

Dispersion

110
Q

occurs when individuals
cluster together in specific areas where resources are
abundant.
→ This is common in cities where people migrate in search of better opportunities. However, as more individuals concentrate in these areas, competition for resources increases, leading to a decline in quality of life for some.

A

Clumped dispersion

110
Q

→ individuals are evenly
distributed
→ This pattern may be
influenced by social interactions such as territoriality, as seen in species like the albatross, which require ample space for nesting and move to maintain a uniform distribution.

A

Uniform dispersion

111
Q

→ the position of each
individual is independent of the other individual resulting in a pattern devoid of strong pressures or repulsions.
→ This randomness can lead to areas with high population density and others with none at all.

A

Random dispersion

112
Q

→ age-specific summary of the reproductive rates in a population
→ describe the reproductive pattern
of a species, which can vary widely
across different organisms.

A

Reproductive Rates or Fertility Schedule

112
Q

→ study of the vital statistics of a population and how they change
over time
→ is the study of vital statistics within a population and how they change over time. Demographers are particularly interested in tracking death rates and birth rates to understand population dynamics.

A

Demography

113
Q

→ a graphic way of representing the
data in a life table
→ provide an age-specific summary of the survival pattern within a population, helping demographers track births and deaths in a given area.

A

Survivorship curves

114
Q

depict individuals with a high probability of surviving until adulthood, such as humans.

A

Type 1 curves

115
Q

represent individuals that
mostly die in the early stages of life.

A

Type 3 curves

115
Q

show individuals whose
survival chances are independent of age, often seen in animals whose lifespan depends on various factors like activity levels and resource availability.

A

Type 2 curves

116
Q

→ shows rapid population increase leading to surpassing the carrying capacity of the environment.
→ This scenario is unsustainable and can lead to chaos.

A

Exponential growth curve

116
Q

→ Maximum rate of growth of a population under ideal conditions
→ is influenced by factors such as:
■ Number of offspring produced
■ Length of time it takes for individuals to reach reproductive maturity
■ Ratio of males to females,
■ Number of reproductive
age individuals.
→ In ideal environments with ample resources, absence of predators, and low disease prevalence, populations can grow rapidly.

A

Biotic potential

117
Q

The green line represents
the _______, which should ideally increase at a slower pace over time.
→ This gradual increase allows for sustainable growth within the environment’s carrying capacity.

A

Actual population

118
Q

→ The green arrows represent factors such as diseases, death due to old age, predation, and competition, which help regulate population growth by limiting reproduction.
→ This regulation prevents the population from increasing too rapidly, which could lead to chaos by surpassing the environment’s carrying capacity.

A

Effect of environmental resistance

119
Q

The dashed line represents
the initial carrying capacity, which can fluctuate due to environmental conditions such as calamities or typhoons.
→ When the THIS decreases, it indicates that the environment is weakened and cannot fully support its inhabitants. However, it can recover over time.

A

Carrying capacity

120
Q

The green arrows symbolize _____, such as limitations on resources, energy, space, predation, and diseases, which regulate population growth.

A

Environmental resistance

121
Q

Calculate: the change in population/year is 4%

A

72/4 =18
So the population is likely to double in size in 18 years.
To calculate how long it takes for a population to double in size, you can use the rule of 72.

122
Q

Population size that the environment can support indefinitely The dashed line above represents the carrying capacity, which ensures a sustainable balance and determines the standards that can support the population. Despiteidealconditionsinitially,as the population grows, environmental resistance eventually begins to decrease, challenging this equilibrium.

A

Carrying capacity

123
Q

→ have birth and death rates that remain unaffected by population
density.
→ Natural calamities, such as
earthquakes and storms, are examples of this. These events impact ecosystems regardless of population density, disrupting the balance of populations.

A

Density independent population

124
Q

Factors such as epidemics or disease outbreaks can spread more rapidly in densely populated areas due to increased social interaction and quicker transmission rates. Thus, the impact of these factors varies depending on population density, making them _______.

A

Density-dependent population

125
Q

→ In densely populated areas,
competition for resources such as food, water, and space becomes intense.
→ This competition can occur not only within species but also between different species occupying the same ecological niche.

A

Competition for resources

126
Q

→ is a form of competition
where individuals compete for specific geographic areas or territories.
→ This behavior is common among many animal species and can arise when resources, such as food, shelter, or mates, are limited.

A

Territoriality

127
Q

In densely populated areas, the spread of diseases, particularly respiratory illnesses like the current epidemic, can occur more rapidly due to increased social interaction and proximity among individuals.

A

Diseases

128
Q

As population density
increases, it can attract predators that prey preferentially on the abundant species.
→ This can lead to a natural regulation of the population size as predation helps control the population growth.

A

Predation

129
Q

→ can accumulate in heavily
populated areas, posing significant risks to both humans and wildlife.
→ This environmental hazard can lead to various health issues and degrade the overall quality of life in affected areas.
→ Preventative measures and proper waste management are crucial to mitigate these risks and protect both human health and the environment.

A

Toxic wastes

130
Q

The ________ sparked rapid population growth due to advances in agriculture, medicine, and transportation. hese improvements increased food production, healthcare access, and quality of life, leading to a surge in population. However, this growth has strained the environment and natural resources.

A

Industrial revolution

131
Q

→ The movement from high birth and death rates toward low birth and death rates
→ involves a shift from high birth and death rates to lower rates as a country develops economically and industrially.
→ It’s ironic because during the industrial revolution, the population surged despite industrial growth. In modern times, as countries innovate, cultural attitudes towards family size change. Some opt for fewer children or delay parenthood, redefining what constitutes a family. This shift reflects changing beliefs influenced by technological advancement.

A

Demographic transition

132
Q

→ number of people in each age group within a population
→ The graphsdepictagegroupsin
populations, with males in orange
and females in green.
→ Inabalancedpopulation,there’sa
significant middle-age group, crucial for the workforce. However, in rapidly growing populations, there are many children but fewer working-age individuals, leading to strain on resources. Conversely, in slowly growing populations, the workforce declines over time, posing challenges for future labor needs.

A

age structure

BIO (9 decks)

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