Bio Final Flashcards

1
Q

Immune system

A

the bodies protection system

includes 2 subsections
-> Innate (non specific)
-> adaptive (specific and memory)

a complex collection of cells and organs that destroys or neutralized pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adaptive immune system

A

specific and memory

  • humoral (antibodies)
  • cellular (APCs - antigen presenting cell)

slow response -> 4-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Innate immune system

A

non specific

  • physical (barriers)
  • cellular(agranulocytes and granulocytes)
  • chemical (substance in secretions)

fast response -> 0-4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Innate immune cells

A
  • natural killer cell (large granular lymphocyte)
  • basophil
  • neutrophil
  • eosinophil
  • monocyte -> macrophage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

adaptive immune cells

A

small lymphocyte
-> T lymphocyte
-> B lymphocyte -> plasma
cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

adaptive immunity

A

an acquired defense against foreign pathogens that is characterized by specificity and memory

first exposure to an antigen stimulates a primary response -> subsequent exposures stimulate a faster and stronger secondary response

a dual system involving humoral immunity and cellular immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

antigen

A

aka immunogens

a foreign molecule that will trigger an immune response

molecules that activate adaptive immunity

a single antigen possesses smaller epitopes, which are each capable of inducing a specific adaptive immune response

its ability to stimulate an immune response depends on is molecular class, complexity, and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

humoral immunity

A

part of adaptive immunity

it is antibodies produced by B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cellular immunity

A

part of adaptive immunity

it is T cells that are directed against intracellular pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T cells

A

attack infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

B cells

A

attack invaders outside the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

epitopes

A

the part of the antigen that antibodies attaches to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

a collection of genes coding for glycoprotein molecules expressed of the surface of all nucleated cells

are essential for the presentation of normal “self” antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MHC I

A

cells that become infected by intracellular pathogens can present foreign antigens on MHC I -> marking the infected cell for destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MHC II

A

MHC II molecule are expressed only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells)

antigen presentation with MHC II is essential for the activation of T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

A
  • macrophages
  • dendritic cells
  • B cells

ingest pathogens by phagocytosis, destroy them in the phagolysosomes, process the protein antigens, and select the most antigenic/immunodominant epitopes with MHC II for presentation to T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T cell maturation process

A

immature T lymphocytes are produced in red bone marrow -> travel to the thymus for maturation -> undergoes thymic selection which is a 3 step process of negative and positive selection that determines which T cells will mature and enter the peripheral bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

thymus

A

located behind the sternum

different from the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Central tolerance

A

involves the negative selection of self-reactive T cells in the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Peripheral tolerance

A

involves the anergy and regulatory T cells that prevent self-reactive immune responses and autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Helper T cells

A

activation = APCs presenting antigens with MHC II

functions = orchestrate humoral and cellular immunity and are involved in the activation of macrophages and NK cells

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Regulatory T cells

A

activation = APCs presenting antigens associated with MHC II

functions = involved in peripheral tolerance and prevention of autoimmune responses

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

activation = APCs or infected nucleated cells presenting antigens associated with MHC I

function = destroy cells infected with intracellular pathogens

CD8

once activated they target and kill cells infected with intracellular pathogens
-> requires recognition of specific pathogen epitomes presented on cell surfaces using MHC I molecules

Killing is mediated by perforin and granzymes that induce apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T-Cell Receptor (TCR)

A

similar in structure to immunoglobulins, but less complex

millions of unique epitope- binding TRCs are encoded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Immunoglobulins

A

aka antibodies

are glycoproteins produced by plasma cells

are Y-shaped glycoproteins with two Fab sites (V part of the Y) for binding antigens and an Fc portion (I portion of the Y) involved in complement activation and opsonization (makes a foreign cell more susceptible to phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

classes of T cells

A

can be divided into 3 classes
- helper T cells
- cytotoxic T cells
- regulatory T cells

based on their expression of CD4 or CD8, the MHC molecules they interact with for activation and their respective funcitons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CD4

A

a glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor

lead the fight against infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CD8

A

a transmembrane glycoprotein that serves as a co-receptor for the T cell receptor

can kill cancer cells and other invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Activated helper T cells

A

differentiate into TH1, TH2, TH17, or memory T cell subtypes

differentiation is directed by the specific cytokines to which they are exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TH1, TH2, TH17

A

perform different functions related to the stimulation of adaptive and innate immune defenses

TH1 = stimulates cytotoxic T cells and produce memory cytotoxic T cells, stimulates macrophages and neutrophils for more effective killing of pathogens, and stimulates NK cells to kill more effectively

TH2= stimulate B cell activation and differentiation into plasma cells and memory B cells, direct antibody class switching in B cells

TH17= stimulate immunity to specific infections such as chronic mucocutaneous infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Memory T cells

A

are long lived cells that can respond quickly to secondary exposures

remember a specific pathogen and mount a strong, rapid, secondary response upon re-exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Perforin

A

responsible for pore formation in cell membranes of target cells -> punch holes into the target cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Granzymes

A

induce the the death of virus-infected and other potentially harmful cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Apoptosis

A

a type of cell death in which a series of molecular steps in a cell lead to its death

the process of programmed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

B cell maturation process

A

B cells are produced in the bone marrow, where the initial stages of maturation occur -> move to the spleen for the final steps of maturation into naive mature B cells

B cells produce antibodies involved in humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5 classes of antibody

A
  • IgM = 10 antigen binding sites
  • IgG = 2 antigen binding sites
  • IgA = 4 antigen binding sites
  • IgE = 2 antigen binding sites
  • IgD = 2 antigen binding sites

each differs in size, arrangement, location within the body, and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

5 primary functions of antibodies

A
  • neutralization
  • opsonization
  • agglutination
  • complement activation
  • antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

opsonization

A

makes a foreign cell more susceptible to phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

A type of immune reaction in which a target cell or microbe is coated with antibodies and killed by certain types of white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

B cell receptors (BCRs)

A

membrane-bound monomeric forms of IgD and IgM that bind to specific antigen epitopes with their Fab antigen binding regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T-dependent antigens

A

protein antigens that can only activate B cells with the cooperation of helper T cells

involves processing and presentation of protein antigens to helper T cells, activation of the B cells by cytokines secreted from activated TH2 cells, and plasma cells that produce different classes of antibodies as a result of class switching

memory B cells are also produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T-independent antigens

A

molecule classes that do not require T cell cooperation to active B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cytokines

A

when TH2 cells are activated they secrete specific signalling molecules called cytokines-> they play a crucial roles in activating B cells

facilitate various nonspecific responses by innate immune cells

play a key role in the inflammatory response -> phase proteins, histamine, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

class switching

A

aka isotype switching

B cells change the class of antibodies they produce while maintaining the same antigen specificity, this allows for the production of antibodies of different classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

secondary exposures to T-dependent antigens

A

results in a secondary antibody response initiated by memory B cells

develops more quickly and produces higher and more sustained levels of antibody with higher affinity for the specific antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

lymphatic system

A

a system of vessels, cells, and organs that carries excess fluid to the bloodstream, and filters pathogens from the blood

blood pressure causes leakage of fluid from the capillaries -> interstitial space -> lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

lymph

A

immune cells and dietary fats

lymph is forced through the lymphatic vessels by the movements of the body, contraction of skeletal muscles, and breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

pathway of the cells of the immune system

A

cells of the immune system use lymphatic vessels to make their way from interstitial spaces back into the circulation

and use lymph nodes as major staging areas for the development of critical immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

lymph node

A

a small, bean-shaped organ located throughout the lymphatic system

found commonly near the groin, armpits neck, chest, and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

lymphatic vessels

A

one way valves (semi-lunar) in the vessels keep lymph moving forward toward the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

movement of lymph

A

interstitial pressure increases -> flaps open -> lymph -> lymphatic capillaries -> lymphatic vessels -> dumped into the circulatory system via the lymphatic ducts located at the junction of the jugular and subclavian veins in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

chyle

A

in the small intestine, dietary triglycerides combine with other lipids and proteins and enter the lacteals (the lymphatic vessels of the small intestine) to form a milky fluid called chyle

chyle travels through the lymphatic system and will eventually enter the bloodstream

essential for immune function as is transports immunoglobulins and T lymphocytes through the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

lymphatic ducts

A

superficial and deep lymphatics merge to form larger vessels called lymphatic trunks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What drains into the right lymphatic duct

A

the right sides of the head, thorax, and right upper limb drain lymph fluid into the right subclavian vein via the right lymphatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what drains into the thoracic duct

A

the left side of the body drains into the larger thoracic duct, which then drains into the left subclavian vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

lymphoid organs

A

are where lymphocytes mature, proliferate, and are selected = attack pathogens without harming the cells of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

primary lymphoid organs

A
  • bone marrow
  • thymus gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A
  • lymph nodes (lymph filters)
  • spleen (blood filter)
  • lymphoid nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

lymphoid nodules

A

occur most typically in the cortex of lymph nodes (outer layer), in the spleen, tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

physical barriers

A
  • the skin
  • endothelia
  • cell junctions
  • mucociliary escalator (transports mucus with any captured foreign particles in an upstream direction towards the upper airway away from the alveoli)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

mechanical defences

A

microbes trapped are removed from the body by mechanical actions -> shedding skin cells, mucociliary sweeping, coughing, peristalsis, flushing of bodily fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

microbiome

A

the resident microbiota provide a physical defense by occupying available cellular binding sites and competing with pathogens for available nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

nonspecific innate immune defenses

A
  • physical barriers
  • mechanical defences
  • microbiome
  • chemicals and enzymes in body fluids
  • antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)
  • plasma protein mediators
  • cytokines
  • inflammation-eliciting mediators
  • granulocytes
  • agranulocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

chemical and enzymes in body fluids

A

chemical mediators like sebum, saliva, mucus, gastric and intestinal fluids, urine, tears, cerumen, and vaginal secretions are found in body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)

A

AMPs found on the skin and in other areas of the body are largely produced in response to pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

plasma protein mediators

A

plasma contains various proteins that serve as chemical mediators -> acute-phase proteins, complement proteins, and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

complement protein system

A

The complement system is made up of a large number of distinct plasma proteins that react with one another to opsonize pathogens and induce a series of inflammatory responses that help to fight infection

involves many precursor proteins that circulate in plasma

these proteins become activated in a cascading sequence in the presence of microbes -> results in the opsonization of pathogens, chemoattraction of leukocytes, induction of inflammation, and cytolysis (disruption of cells) through the formation of a membrane attack complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

forms pores in the plasma membrane of pathogens or targeted cells, leading to osmolysis (rupture of cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Granulocytes

A

leukocytes characterized by a lobed nucleus and granules in the cytoplasm

include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

neutrophils

A

leukocytes found in the largest numbers in the bloodstream

primarily fight bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

eosinophils and basophils

A

eosinophils target parasitic infections

eosinophils and basophils are involved in allergic reactions

both release histamine and other pro-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

agranulocytes

A

natural killer (NK) cells are lymphocytes that recognize and kill abnormal of infected cells by releasing proteins that trigger apoptosis (cell death by a series of molecular steps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Fas ligand

A

a type II membrane protein that is involved in the regulation of cell death (apoptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Monocytes

A

large, mononuclear leukocytes that circulate the bloodstream

may leave the the bloodstream and enter tissues where they differentiate and become tissue-specific macrophages and dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

inflammatory response

A

the hallmark of the innate immune response is inflammation

cardinal signs = pain, heat, redness, swelling, loss of function

brings fluid and cells to the site to destroy the pathogen and remove debris from the site, and isolates the site limiting the spread of the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acute inflammation

A

short-term inflammatory response to an insult to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

chronic inflammation

A

ongoing inflammation -> 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

4 parts of the inflammatory response

A

tissue injury -> the injured cells stimulate the release of mast cell granules and inflammatory mediators like histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins

vasodilation -> increased blood flow allows for grater access of the blood to the site of inflammation, is responsible for the heat and redness of inflamed tissue

increased vascular permeability -> leakage of fluid into the interstitial space, results in swelling

recruitment of phagocytes -> leukotrienes attract neutrophils from the blood to the site of infection by chemotaxis, stimulating more macrophages to clean up the debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

effect of histamine

A

histamine released -> vasodilation -> increased blood flow -> plasma leaks out into interstitial fluid -> causes swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

leukotrienes

A

attract neutrophils from the blood by chemotaxis and increase vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

prostaglandins

A

cause vasodilation by relaxing vascular smooth muscles and a major cause of pain associated with inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

2 divisions of the respiratory system

A
  • the conducting zone
  • the respiratory zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

conducting zone

A

consists of all of the structures that provide passageways for air to travel into and out of the lungs

the nasal cavity = the conchae and meatuses helps warm, filter, and humidify air

pharynx = the nasopharynx(by nose), oropharynx (by mouth), and laryngopharynx (this is in order going down toward the lungs)

trachea

bronci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

conchae

A

projections of the ethmoid bones in the nose

curved shelf of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

meatus

A

three spaces in the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

respiratory zone

A

includes the structures of the lung that are directly involved in gas exchange

terminal bronchioles

alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

respiratory epithelium

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells - trachea

mucus traps pathogens and debris, and cilia move the mucus superiorly toward the throat where it is swallowed

as the bronchioles become smaller and near the alveoli the epithelium thins and is simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

respiratory membrane

A

the endothelium of surrounding capillaries and the alveolar epithelium = the respiratory membrane

this is a blood-air barrier through which gas exchange occurs by simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

lungs

A

the major organs of the respiratory system

responsible for performing gas exchange

paired and separated into lobes
right lung = 3 lobes
left lung = 2 lobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

parasympathetic and sympathetic control of the respiratory system

A

the lungs are controlled by the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems -> bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction of airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

pleura membrane

A

the membrane that encloses the lungs

composed of visceral (closer to the lung) and parietal layers (closer to the chest wall), with the pleural cavity in between

the mesothelial cells of the pleural membrane create pleural fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

pressure

A

Boyles law describes = as volume increases, pressure decreases
as volume decreases, pressure increases

pressure is influenced by resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

direction of air flow

A

air flows from a space of higher pressure to a space of lower pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

pulmonary ventilation

A

it is the process of breathing, driven by pressure differences between the lungs and the atmosphere

consists of the process of inspiration and expiration, air entering and leaving the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

atmospheric pressure

A

the force exerted by gases present in the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

intraalveolar (intrapulmonary) pressure

A

the force exerted by gases within the alveoli

760 mmHg

will equalize with atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

intrapleural pressure

A

the force exerted by gases in the pleural cavity

756 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

transpulmonary pressure

A

intrapleural pressure is lower to intra-alveolar pressure, this difference is called transpulmonary pressure

760 mmHg - 756 mmHg = 4 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

resistance

A

created by inelastic surfaces and the diameter of the airways

reduces the flow of gases

surface tension of the alveoli also influences pressure

100
Q

pulmonary surfactant

A

helps reduced the surface tension so that the alveoli do no collapse during expiration

101
Q

lung compliance

A

the ability of the lungs to stretch

plays a role in gas flow, the more the lungs can stretch the greater the potential volume of the lungs

the greater the volume of the lungs, the lower the air pressure within the lungs

102
Q

inspiration

A

atmospheric pressure is positive and lung pressure is negative

103
Q

expiration

A

atmospheric pressure is negative and lung pressure is positive

104
Q

forced exhalation

A

the intercostal and abdominal muscled may be involved in forcing air out of the lungs

105
Q

respiratory volume

A

describes the amount of air in a given space within the lungs and that can be moved by the lungs

dependent of a variety of factors
- tidal volume = quiet respiration
- residual = prevents collapsing
- inspiratory reserve = forcefully past tidal
- expiratory reserve = forcefully past tidal

106
Q

respiratory capacity

A

the combination of 2 or more respiratory volumes

107
Q

anatomical dead space

A

air within the respiratory structures that never participates in gas exchange, as it doesn’t reach functional alveoli

108
Q

respiratory rate

A

number of breaths taken per min

rate and depth are controlled by the respiratory centres of the brain -> medulla oblongata is stimulated by factors like chemical and pH changes in the blood

109
Q

chemoreceptors of the respiratory system

A

changes in chemical and pH concentration in the blood are sensed by chemoreceptors

central chemoreceptors are located in the brain

peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries

110
Q

apneustic center

A

in the pons

increases the depth and duration of inspiration

111
Q

pneumotaxic centre

A

in the pons

decreased the depth and duration of inspiration

112
Q

daltons law

A

states that each specific gas in a mixture of gases exerts force independently of other gases in the mixture

113
Q

henrys law

A

states that the amount of a specific gas that dissolves in a liquid is a function of its partial pressure -> the greater the partial pressure of a gas, the more of that gas will dissolve in a liquid

114
Q

gas molecules

A

move down a pressure gradient

partial pressure of oxygen is high in the alveoli and low in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries -> oxygen diffuses across the respiratory membrane into the blood

partial pressure of CO2 is high in the pulmonary capillaries and low in the alveoli -> CO2 diffuses across the respiratory membrane into the alveoli

115
Q

external respiration

A

refers to gas exchange that occurs in the alveoli

116
Q

internal respiration

A

refers to gas exchange that occurs in the tissue

117
Q

perfusion

A

affects the flow of blood in the capillaries

118
Q

transport of oxygen

A

is primarily transported through the blood by erythrocytes

blood cells contain a metalloprotein called hemoglobin -> composed of 4 subunits with a ring-like structure, each subunit contains one atom of iron bound to a molecule of heme

119
Q

heme

A

binds oxygen so that each hemoglobin molecule can bind up to 4 oxygen molecules

when all heme units are bound to oxygen, the hemoglobin is saturated

partially saturated hemoglobin is when only some units are bound to oxygen

120
Q

transport of CO2

A

3 different mechanisms
- dissolved carbon dioxide (10%)
- bicarbonate (70%)
- carbominohemoglobin (20%)

carbon dioxide + water + enzyme carbonic anhydrase -> carbonic acid -> spontaneously dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions

121
Q

bicarbonate

A

as it builds up in erythrocytes, it moves across the membrane into the plasma in exchange for chloride ions by a mechanism called the chloride shift

122
Q

polycythemia

A

elevated count of red blood cells due to chronic exposure to high altitudes

123
Q

digestive system

A

includes the organs of the alimentary canal (aka the digestive tract) and accessory structures

alimentary canal forms a continuous tube that is open to the outside environment at both ends

organs include:
- mouth
- pharynx
- esophagus
- stomach
- small intestine
- large intestine

accessory structures:
- teeth
- tongue
- salivary glands
- liver
- pancreas
- gallbladder

124
Q

tissue layers of the alimentary canal

A

inner to outer layers

  • mucosa
    -submucosa
    -muscularis
    -serosa
125
Q

enteric nervous system

A

provided intrinsic innervation to the digestive system

126
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

provides extrinsic innervation to the digestive system

127
Q

myenteric plexus

A

aka plexus of Auerbach

is responsible for motility

stimulates the smooth muscles in the intestines

128
Q

submucosal plexus

A

aka plexus of Meissner

responsible for regulating digestive secretions and reacting to the presence of food

129
Q

blood supply in the digestive system

A

transport the protein and carbohydrate nutrients absorbed by mucosal cells after food is digested in the lumen

lipids are absorbed via lacteals

blood vessels’ second function is to supply nutrients and oxygen

130
Q

aortic arch and thoracic aorta (digestive system)

A

supply the more anterior parts of the intestines with branching arteries

131
Q

abdominal aorta (digestive system)

A

supply the inferior alimentary canal with branching arteries

132
Q

celiac trunk

A

supplies the liver, stomach, and duodenum with blood

133
Q

superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

A

supply blood to the small and large intestines

134
Q

6 activities of the digestive system

A
  • ingestion
  • motility/propulsion/peristalsis
  • mechanical/physical digestion
  • chemical digestion
  • absorption
  • defecation

these processes are regulated by neural and hormonal mechanisms

134
Q

neuronal mechanisms of the digestive system

A

mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, and osmoreceptors (osmotic stimuli)

135
Q

GI hormones

A

are secreted by endocrinocytes located in the mucosal epithelium of the stomach and small intestines

stomach secretes gastrin

small intestine secretes secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), and gastric inhibitory peptide

136
Q

gastrin

A

secreted in response to the presence of food

stimulates the secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach mucosa

released mainly by the enteroendocrine G cells

137
Q

secretin

A

stimulates a watery secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas

138
Q

cholecystokinin (CCK)

A

stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile from the liver and release bile form the gallbladder

139
Q

gastric inhibitory peptide

A

inhibits gastric secretion and slows gastric emptying and motility

140
Q

mouth and accessory structures

A

the mouth, tongue and teeth begin mechanical digestion

saliva begins chemical digestion

141
Q

saliva

A

98-99.5% water and remaining % is ions, glycoproteins, enzymes (amylase), growth factors, and waste products

142
Q

lingual lipase

A

minor role in breaking down triglycerides

143
Q

pharynx

A

runs from the nasal and oral cavities to the esophagus (for digestion) and to the larynx (for respiration)

during swallowing the soft palate rises to close off the nasopharynx, the larynx elevates, and the epiglottis fold over the glottis

144
Q

sections of the esophagus

A

the upper esophageal sphincter -> protects against the reflux of food into the airways and prevents entry of air into the digestive tract
-> made of skeletal muscle

the lower esophageal sphincter -> protects the esophagus from the reflux of gastric contents -> made of smooth muscle

cells in the esophageal wall secrete mucus that eases the passage of the food bolus

145
Q

stomach

A

participates in all digestive activities except ingestions and defecation

it vigorously churns good
secretes gastric juices that break down food and absorbs certain drugs, including aspirin and some alcohol

begins the digestion of proteins and continues the digestion of carbs and fats

stores food as an acidic liquid called chyme and releases it gradually into the small intestine through the pyloric sphincter

146
Q

pyloric sphincter

A

the sphincter between the stomach and small intestines

147
Q

parietal cells

A

located primarily in the middle region of the gastric glands

they are relatively large cells that produce HCl and intrinsic factor

148
Q

HCl

A

is responsible for the high acidity (pH 1.5 to 3.5) of the stomach and is needed to activate the protein-digesting enzyme, pepsin that helps denature proteins

149
Q

Intrinsic factor

A

necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine

150
Q

chief cells

A

they secrete pepsinogen, the inactive proenzyme from of pepsin

HCl is necessary for the conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin

150
Q

enteroendocrine cells

A

secrete various hormone into the interstitial fluid of the lamina propria (the mucosa) -> gastrin

151
Q

3 main regions of the small intestine

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

152
Q

purpose of small intestine

A

where digestion is completed and virtually all absorption occurs

these activities are facilitated by structural adaptations that increase mucosal surface area
-> circular folds, villi, and microvilli

153
Q

microvilli in small intestine

A

around 200 million per square mm of small intestine

they contain brush border enzymes that complete digestion or carbs and proteins

154
Q

intestinal juices

A

combined with pancreatic juice, they provide the liquid medium that is needed to further digestion and absorb substances from chyme

155
Q

main regions of the large intestine

A

cecum, colon (ascending, transverse, and descending), and rectum

156
Q

purpose of the large intestine

A

absorbs water and forms feces

is responsible for defecation

157
Q

bacterial flora in large intestine

A

break down additional carbohydrate residue and synthesize certain vitamins

158
Q

mucosa of the large intestine

A

has a large amount of goblet cells that secrete mucus that eases the passage of feces

the entry of feces into the rectum activates the defecation reflex

159
Q

accessory organs for the small intestine

A

chemical digestion in the small intestine is enhanced by :

  • the liver -> produces bile and delivers it to the common hepatic duct (bile contains bile salts and phospholipids that emulsify large lipid globules into small lipid droplets)
  • the gallbladder -> stores and concentrates bile, releasing it when it is needed by the small intestine
  • the pancreas -> produces amylase, lipase, trypsin (activates chymotrypsin), and bicarbonate rich pancreatic juice and delivers it to the small intestine through ducts
160
Q

pancreatic juice

A

buffers the acidic gastric juice in chyme, inactivates pepsin from the stomach, and secretes chymotrypsin and elastase

161
Q

difference between male and female urinary structures

A

the urethra is the only urinary structure that is significantly different

the male urethra is longer than the female urethra

162
Q

who has a higher chance of developing an UTI

A

females shorter urethra contributes to the higher incidence of UTIs

163
Q

what is filtered to form urine

A

blood is filtered through the kidneys to form urine

164
Q

what does the urinary system protect the body against

A

protects the body against the accumulation of waste products and excess substances in the bloodstream

maintains proper fluid balance and regulating electrolyte levels

165
Q

pathway of the urethra

A

stemming from the bladder, the urethra transports urine to the outside of the body

166
Q

trigone

A

the trigone is a triangular area in the urinary bladder formed by the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice

located at the base of the bladder (inside)

167
Q

internal urinary sphincter

A

under involuntary control

made of smooth muscle

controls urination

168
Q

external urinary sphincter

A

under voluntary control

made of skeletal muscle

controls urination

169
Q

urethra

A

arises from the trigone area at the base of the bladder

170
Q

prostatic urethra

A

the portion of the male urethra that travels through the prostate that is located just below the bladder

171
Q

retroperitoneal

A

means that an organ is positioned behind the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity)

172
Q

bladder

A

is largely retroperitoneal and can hold up to 500 - 600 nL urine

173
Q

micturition

A

the process of voiding the urine and involves both involuntary and voluntary actions

aka urination

174
Q

detrusor muscle

A

the wall of the bladder

comprised of smooth muscle fibres oriented in multiple different directions

it is not the only way to create enough force to void urine, the external urinary sphincter, pelvic floor muscles, and abdominal muscles all assist

175
Q

voluntary control of micturition

A

requires a mature and intact sacral micturition centre

also requires an intact spinal cord

176
Q

sacral micturition centre

A

an area of the spinal cord near the base, between S2 and S4

controls your bladder and internal sphincter

177
Q

flap valve

A

the oblique angle that the ureters join the bladder creates a valve-like sphincter or flap valve

prevents urine from backing up into the ureters and kidneys

178
Q

ureters

A

are not passive, they actively move urine through muscular contractions (peristalsis)

there are smooth muscles in the walls of the ureters -> thick muscular wall

are retroperitoneal

lead from the renal pelvis of the kidney to the trigone area of the bladder

179
Q

what protects kidneys

A

they are protected by several layers or tissues and fat in the retroperitoneal space -> includes the renal fat pad, overlying ribs, and muscle

180
Q

amount of cardiac output kidneys receive at rest

A

20 -25 % of the cardiac output from the heart

181
Q

left kidney placement

A

located higher than the right kidney because it the right kidney is displaced by the liver -> the liver pushes it down

182
Q

renal fat pad

A

aka adipose capsule

serves as a protective cushioning layer around the kidneys

provides insulation and protection against physical trauma

surrounds the kidneys in the retroperitoneal space

183
Q

adrenal glands

A

found on top of the kidneys

they produce the hormones adrenaline, aldosterone, and cortisol

184
Q

structure of kidney

A

divided into two regions

cortex (outer)

medulla (inner)

185
Q

distribution of cardiac output to body

A

brain 15%
skin 5%
heart 5%
muscles 20%
kidneys 20-25%
liver 25%
other 10%

186
Q

renal arteries

A

arise directly from the aorta

187
Q

renal papillae

A

bundles of collecting ducts the transport urine to the calyces

187
Q

renal vein

A

drain directly into the inferior vena cava

188
Q

renal hilum

A

the renal artery, renal vein, and renal pelvis all enter or exit the kidney from the renal hilum

189
Q

efferent arterioles

A

carry blood away from the glomerulus

blood that is not filtered into the nephron via the renal corpuscle, passes form the glomerulus to the efferent arteriole -> becomes the peritubular capillaries and then the vasa recta

goes around the nephron and drains into the renal vein

190
Q

afferent arterioles

A

carry blood towards the glomerulus and supplies the nephrons with blood

branch off from the renal artery

191
Q

nephrons

A

filter waste products and excess substances from blood to form urine

the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney

1,3 million per kidney

consists of the renal corpuscle, PCT, loop of Henle, and DCT

192
Q

glomerulus

A

is formed from a tuft of the afferent arteriole

filters blood and the filtrate is captured by Bowman’s capsule

193
Q

renal corpuscle

A

formed by Bowmans capsule and the glomerulus

is the blood filtering component of the nephron

194
Q

Vasa recta

A

form the second capillary bed that surrounds the proximal and distal convolutes tubules and the loop of Henle

remove water and solute from the nephron

195
Q

reabsorption

A

occurs as the filtrate flows through the nephron

substances that the body needs is reabsorbed back into the blood -> glucose and water

begins in the proximal convoluted tubule which majority of the tubular reabsorption occurs, but also occurs through the length of the nephron

196
Q

secretion

A

a process in which substances move from the blood to the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate

allows for additional wastes and other materials to leave the body in the urine

197
Q

filtrate

A

is processed and gathered by collecting ducts that are connected to the distal convoluted tubules

the collecting ducts drain into the renal papilla which merge with the renal calyx -> the filtrate then moves from the calyx to the renal pelvis and then the ureters

198
Q

nephron in cortex

A

bowmans capsule

proximal convoluted tubule

distal convoluted tubule

parts of the collecting duct

199
Q

nephron in the medulla

A

the loop of Henle descends into the medulla in juxtamedullary nephrons

200
Q

juxtamedullary nephrons

A

nephrons that have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the medulla

15% of nephrons of juxtamedullary

201
Q

cortical nephrons

A

have short loops of Henle

202
Q

principle functions of the nephrons

A

filtration

reabsorption (back into the blood)

secretion (from the blood into the urine)

203
Q

renin

A

an enzyme made by special cells in your kidneys

part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system -> designed to regulate your blood pressure

renin controls the production of aldosterone

204
Q

podocytes and their pedicels

A

are found in the lining of the Bowman’s capsule

the pedicels extend from the podocytes and warp themselves around the capillaries of the glomerulus to form filtration slits

205
Q

fenestrated

A

small pores or opening

the glomerulus is fenestrated which allows for efficient filtration of blood plasma

allows for the passage of water, ions, and small molecules but prevents proteins and blood cells from passing

206
Q

mesangial cells

A

smooth muscle-like cells that contain actin and myosin

contraction of mesangial cells regulates the size of the capillary lumen and the amount of glomerular blood flow

they can also phagocytize trapped debris and protein within the glomerulus, prevents blockages

207
Q

filtration regulation

A

regulated by fenestration in capillary endothelial cells, podocytes with filtration slits, membrane charge, and the basement membrane between capillary cells

208
Q

juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

A

is a microscopic structure located between the renal corpuscle and the returning DCT

maintains blood pressure and acts as a quality control mechanism to ensure proper glomerular flow rate and efficient sodium reabsorption

JGA cells produce the enzyme renin -> central role in blood pressure regulation

209
Q

Macula densa

A

the wall of the DCT that forms part of the JGA

are salt sensors that generate chemical signals in the JGA that control kidney functions

sense changes in sodium chloride levels and will tigger a response to increase of decreases reabsorption of ions and water in the blood

cluster of cuboidal cells

release paracrine signals

210
Q

blood osmolarity

A

when blood osmolarity goes up, filtration and urine formation decrease and water is reabsorbed and conserved

-> more ADH is secreted, less urine is secreted

When blood osmolarity goes down, filtration and urine formation increase and
water is excreted

-> less ADH is secreted, more urine is produced

211
Q

aldosterone

A

helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidneys, by keeping sodium in and releasing potassium from the body

212
Q

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

is influenced by hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure

under normal circumstances -> hydrostatic pressure is significantly greater and filtration occurs

blood inside the glomerulus creates glomerular hydrostatic pressure which forces fluid out of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule

213
Q

hydrostatic pressure of the glomerulus

A

depends on systemic blood pressure, auto regulatory mechanisms, the sympathetic nervous system, and paracrine hormone

the kidney can function under a wide range of blood pressures due to the auto regulatory nature of smooth muscle

214
Q

mechanisms of solute recovery

A

active transport

simple diffusion

facilitated diffusion

215
Q

formation of filtrate

A

most filtered substances are reabsorbed back into the bloodstream

urea, NH3, creatinine, and some drugs are filtered or secreted as wastes

H+ and HCO3- are secreted or reabsorbed as needed to maintain acid-base balance

water movement is primarily due to pressure

216
Q

PCT

A

proximal convoluted tubule

the most metabolically active part of the nephron

almost 100% of glucose, amino acids, and vitamins are recovered in the PCT

217
Q

descending loop of Henle

A

promotes the recovery of water due to high interstital osmolarity

218
Q

ascending loop of Henle

A

does not allow water to pass through, but actively recovers Na+, reducing filtrate osmolarity

90% of water is recovered before the forming urine reaches the DCT, which will recover another remaining 10%

219
Q

ANS of the kidneys

A

the kidneys are supplied with
sympathetic nerves (innervated) from the ANS

sympathetic nerves typically decreases blood flow to the kidney,increases renin production

220
Q

chemical reactions of life

A

take place in aqueous solutions

body is mostly water

balance of water and solute concentrations must be maintained to ensure cellular functions

221
Q

electrolyte

A

an mineral dissociated from a salt that carries an electrical charged (ions) is called an electrolyte

help stabilize enzyme structures and conduct electrical impulses along cell membranes

222
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

the force exerted by a fluid against a wall, causes movement of fluid between compartments

223
Q

state of the cytosol

A

if the cytosol is too concentrated due to water loss, cell functions begin to deteriorate

if the cytosol becomes too dilute due to water intake, cell membranes can be damages and the cell can burst

224
Q

hypertonic

A

external environment has increased concentration of solutes and water will flow out of the cell

cell shrinks

225
Q

isotonic

A

no net movement of water into or out of the cell

226
Q

hypotonic

A

external environment has decreased concentration of solutes and water will flow into the cell

cell expands

227
Q

water intake

A

homeostasis requires that water intake and output be balanced

10% of water available to the body is generated at the end of aerobic respiration during cellular metabolism, the rest comes from food and liquid

228
Q

ADH

A

a hormone that helps the body to retain water by increasing reabsorption by the kidneys

released by the posterior pituitary gland

229
Q

plasma osmolality

A

the ratio of solutes to water in blood plasma

osmoreceptors are sensory receptors in the thirst centre in the hypothalamus that monitors osmolality -> stimulates the release of ADH

230
Q

aquaporin

A

are strongly expressed and functionally important is the kidneys, CNS, eyes, skin, and exocrine glands

purpose is to transport water across cell membranes in response to osmotic gradients created by active solute transport

pores the increase the flow of H2O

231
Q

electrolyte stimulation on hormones

A

electrolytes stimulate the release of aldosterone

232
Q

6 key electrolytes

A

Sodium -> major extracellular fluid cation

Potassium -> major intracellular fluid cation

Chloride

Bicarbonate -> buffer systems

Calcium

Phosphate

233
Q

Hyponatremia/ Hypernatremia

A

hyper = too much sodium and not enough fluid

causes -> dehydration, diarrhea, kidney disfunction, taking diuretics

hypo = too much fluid and not enough sodium

causes -> diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea, CHF, renal and liver disease

234
Q

hypokalemia/ hyperkalemia

A

hyper = too much potassium in your blood

causes -> high diet in potassium, kidney disease, drug use

hypo = low potassium levels in blood

causes -> alcohol uses, chronic kidney disease, excessive sweating, diarrhea

235
Q

Hypochloremia/ Hyperchloremia

A

hypo = reduced levels of chloride in blood

causes -> diarrhea, vomiting, kidney problems, excessive sweating, chronic respiratory acidosis

hyper = increased levels of chloride in blood

causes -> renal failure, diarrhea

236
Q

hypocalcemia/ hypercalcemia

A

hyper = increased levels of calcium in blood

causes -> excess parathyroid hormone produced

hypo - decreased levels of calcium in blood

causes -> vitamin D deficiency, hypoparathyroidism, renal disease

237
Q

Hypophosphatemia/ Hyperphosphatemia

A

hypo = decreased phosphate in blood

causes -> malnutrition, vitamin D deficiency, issues with electrolytes

hyper = increased phosphate in blood

causes -> advanced chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, metabolic and respiratory acidosis

238
Q

Angiotensin II and Aldosterone

A

control the exchange of sodium (reabsorbed) and potassium (excreted) between the renal filtrate and the renal collecting tubule

239
Q

PTH, calcitriol, and calcitonin

A

regulate calcium and phosphate

240
Q

ideal pH of the blood and body fluids

A

7.35 - 7.45

241
Q

buffers

A

a substance that prevents radical change in fluid pH by absorbing excess hydrogen or hydroxyl ions

buffers in the body include

  • cell and plasma proteins
  • hemoglobin
  • phosphates (travels in weak acid or base forms)
  • bicarbonate ions
  • carbonic acid
242
Q

acid-base homeostasis

A

the respiratory and renal systems play major roles in acid-base homeostasis by removing CO2 and hydrogen ions, respectively

243
Q

bicarbonate buffer

A

the primary buffering system of the intracellular fluid surrounding the cells in tissues

(increases pH, more basic) carbon dioxide + water <-> carbonic acid <-> bicarbonate and hydrogen ion (decreases pH, more acidic)

244
Q

hemoglobin as a buffer

A

during the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate, hydrogen ions liberated in the reaction are buffered by hemoglobin