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bio deck 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what happens at the sodium-potassium exchange pump?

A

the sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the cell’s resting potential by ejecting three sodium ions for every two potassium ions it brings in from the ISF
(3 Na+ out; 2 K+ in)

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2
Q

what effect would a chemical that blocks the voltage-gated sodium channels in the plasma membrane of a neutron have on its ability to depolarise?

A

if the voltage-gated sodium channels couldn’t open, sodium ions could not flood into the neutron and it would not be able to depolarise

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3
Q

describe four features of a polarised neuron

A

resting membrane potential
-70 volts
more K+ inside
more Na+ outside

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4
Q

which branch of the ANS has short pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres?

A

sympathetic

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5
Q

in which branch of the ANS do pre-ganglionic fibres release acetylcholine?

A

both

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6
Q

in which branch of the ANS do the post-ganglionic fibres release noradrenaline?

A

sympathetic

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7
Q

in which branch of the ANS do the post-ganglionic fibres release acetylcholine?

A

parasympathetic

may increase or decrease activity of effect (slows heart rate; increases motility)

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8
Q

what is special about cranial nerve x?

A

it’s the only non local cranial nerve

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9
Q

what is atmospheric pressure at sea level?

A

760mm Hg

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10
Q

where is the atrioventricular node located?

A

in the floor of the right atrium, near the septum

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11
Q

what is the significance of protein in the urine?

A

consistent presence suggests glomerular of tubular damage

transient proteinuria quite common

can indicate a UTI

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12
Q

what is the chemical symbol for carbonic acid?

A

H2CO3

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13
Q

what is the left AV valve also know as?

A

bicuspid valve or mitral valve

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14
Q

which layer of the blood vessel contracts to cause vasoconstriction?

A

smooth muscle of the tunica media

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15
Q

what is isovolumetric contraction?

A

all valves are closed, ventricles contractin

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16
Q

what is thrombin’s action in the clotting cascade?

A

converts fibrinogen into fibrin

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17
Q

what is CO2?

A

carbon dioxide is a byproduct of aerobic metabolism (cellular metabolism)

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18
Q

what is pulse pressure?

A

the difference between systolic BP and diastolic BP

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19
Q

what are the cells of the blood and where are they formed?

A

RBCs, WBCs and platelets

all formed in the bone marrow

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20
Q

what is the most common circulating WBC? what is its purpose?

A

neutrophils

phagocytosis

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21
Q

what are ketones, and what is indicated by their presence in the urine?

A

breakdown products of fat metabolism

they indicate the body has run out of glucose

ketones can be very high in diabetes; indicating an insulin deficiency

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22
Q

what NT causes vasoconstriction? what is the receptor for this NT?

A

noradrenaline

adrenergic receptors

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23
Q

what is MAP going to be in a person with 120/80 BP?

A

MAP = diastolic BP + 1/3 pulse pressure

80 is diastole
PP is 120 - 80 = 40

one third of 40 is 13.3
therefore MAP = 93.3 (80 + 13.3)

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24
Q

what breaks down the fibrin in a clot?

A

plasmin

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25
Q

what is fibrinolysis?

A

the slow process of dissolving a clot once healing is complete

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26
Q

where is angiotensinogen produced?

A

the liver

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27
Q

what does RAAS stand for?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

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28
Q

what are the two types of cardiac muscle cell and what do they do?

A

conducting system cells: control and coordinate the heartbeat

contractile cells: produce contraction that propel blood

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29
Q

what two things does oxytocin stimulate during childbirth?

A

uterine contractions

production of prostaglandins in endometrium which stimulate further uterine contractions

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30
Q

what hormones are secreted by the testes?

A

androgens, including testosterone

inhibin

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31
Q

what do width and height equal on an ECG?

A

height equals voltage

width equals time

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32
Q

what effect would an increase in venous return have on stroke volume?

A

increased venous return = more stretch in heart muscle = greater force of contraction = higher stroke volume

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33
Q

what does isovolumetric mean?

A

all valves are closed.

same volume.
like squeezing a bottle with the lid on - pressure increases, but volume remains the same

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34
Q

what part of the lungs is regulated by the autonomic nervous system?

A

the bronchioles

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35
Q

what effect would an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart have on end-systolic volume?

A

increased heart rate and increased force of contraction leads to higher stroke volume = lower end-systolic volume

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36
Q

which cells produce antibodies?

A

plasma cells

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37
Q

define end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (EDV)

A

EDV - amount of blood in left in the ventricle at the end of relaxation

ESV - amount of blood left in the ventricle at the end of contraction

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38
Q

list the phases of the cardiac cycle

A

atrial systole
atrial diastole
ventricular systole
ventricular diastole

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39
Q

describe the blood supply to the brain

A

two internal carotid arteries
two vertebral arteries - join to form basilar artery

all join to form the arterial circle of Willis

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40
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

the amount of blood that leaves the heart with each beat

ml/beat

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41
Q

which blood vessels supply the heart with oxygenated blood?

A

coronary arteries

cardiac veins

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42
Q

what are the three functions of platelets?

A

release important clotting chemicals
temporarily patch damaged vessel walls
reduce size of a break in vessel wall

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43
Q

which hormone regulates the secretion of potassium in the nephron?

A

aldosterone

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44
Q

ADH

  • where?
  • what?
A

anti-diuretic hormone
made in the hypothalamus, secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
causes kidney to retain water; less urination leads to increased blood volume, therefore increased BP

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45
Q

describe the pericardium

A

pericardial sac - visceral and parietal layers with pericardial cavity containing pericardial fluid in between

serous membrane!

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46
Q

dopamine - physiology?

-pathophysiology?

A

neurotransmitter
dopaminergic receptors
can be excitatory or inhibitory

physiology: 
motor control
emotion and reward
decreased prolactin
vomiting

pathology:
schizophrenia
parkinsons
addiction

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47
Q

acetylcholine
physiology?
pathophysiology?

A

neurotransmitter

physiology:
cognition
learning and memory
consciousness
motor control

pathophysiology:
alzheimers

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48
Q

glutamate
physiology?
pathophysiology?

A

amines
main NT in brain
NMDA receptor

physiology:
learning and memory

pathophysiology
epilepsy
chronic pain
drug dependence

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49
Q

noradrenaline-
physiology?
pathophysiology?

A

neurotransmitter

physiology
arousal and mood
blood pressure

pathophysiology
bipolar disorder
depression

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50
Q

5HT:
physiology?
pathophysiology?

A

there are lots of 5HT receptors

physiology - 
digestion
sleep/wake
mood
appetite 
vomiting

pathophysiology
depression
mania
eating disorders

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51
Q

what are the steps of carcinogenesis?

A

initiation
proliferation
progression

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52
Q

pharmacodynamics of NSAIDs

A

competitive inhibition of cox-1 and cox-2 inhibitors

inhibits prostoglandin synthesis

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53
Q

what are the monoamine NTs?

A 
noradrenaline
adrenaline
dopamine
5HT
histamine (excitatory)
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54
Q

describe the nerve supply of the kidneys

A

sympathetic fibres regulate renal blood flow according to the body’s requirements

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55
Q

what is RV?

A

residual volume = amount of air left in passageways and lungs after maximal exhalation

about 1200ml men//1100ml women

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56
Q

what hormones do the ovaries secrete?

A

oestrogen
progesterone
inhibin

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57
Q

what is normal tidal volume at rest?

A

200-500ml

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58
Q

in kidney autoregulation, what mechanisms are used to increase glomerular blood pressure?

A

dilation of afferent arterioles

constriction of efferent arterioles

contraction of mesangial cells

59
Q

what is the process that forms new bone matrix known as?

A

osteogenesis

60
Q

describe a muscle

A

fascicles (bundles of muscle fibres) surrounded by the epimysium

61
Q

what is the connective tissue layer that surrounds each fascicle?

A

the perimysium

62
Q

what is VC?

A

vital capacity - the amount of air you can move through the lungs

IRV+TV+ERV

about 4.8L men // 3.3L women

63
Q

what is another name for a diarthrosis joint?

A

synovial joint

64
Q

what are the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

A

small
branched
single nucleus
intercalated discs

65
Q

what is the layer that surrounds a bone called?

A

periosteum (but not within joint cavities)

66
Q

define the respiratory defence system

A

a series of filtration mechanisms the prevent airway contamination by debris and pathogens

includes mucociliary escalator

67
Q

what physical changes affect the total volume of the lungs?

A

movement of the diaphragm and ribs

68
Q

define nerve

A

bundle of nerve fibres

69
Q

why is the lining of the nasopharynx different from that of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx?

A

nasopharynx and nasal cavity - psuedostratified ciliated columnar epithelium - this area only receives air through the nose.

oropharynx and laryngopharynx need more protection as they also have contact with food, so have stratified squamous epithelium

70
Q

identify the neuroglia of the CNS

A

ependymal cells
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia

71
Q

between which two layers of the meninges is the CSF?

A

CSF is in the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

72
Q

which glial cell protects the CNS from chemical and hormones circulating in the blood?

A

astrocytes maintain the blood brain barrier

73
Q

what three things protect the brain from mechanical forces?

A

cranium bones, cranial meninges, CSF

74
Q

which neuroglia in the CNS myelinated and stabilise axons?

A

oligodendrocytes.

each one will myelinated several axons; each axon is myelinated by several oligodendrocytes

75
Q

describe the neurilemma

A

the outer surface of a Schwann cell when it covers an axon is called the neurilemma

76
Q

what is the main neurotransmitter?

A

glutamate

77
Q

what is inflammation?

A

a localised tissue response to injury that stimulates immune response and enables healing

78
Q

what kind of immune defence is inflammation?

A

second line, non-specific defence

79
Q

what is the purpose of inflammation?

A

destroys/neutralises the injurious agent (limits the extent of injury)

stimulates immune response

cleans up dead tissue and debris

enables healing

80
Q

what are the stimuli for inflammation?

A 
infections
trauma
physical agents (radiation or temps)
chemical agents
ischemia/tissue necrosis
foreign bodies
immune reactions
genetic defects
81
Q

describe the vascular phase of inflammation

A
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. vasodilation
    - increased blood flow
    - redness and warmth
  3. increased vascular permeability - ‘leaky capillaries’ -
    • plasma -> interstitial fluid -> oedema
82
Q

describe the cellular phase of inflammation

A

leukocytes are recruited from the blood

they migrate to the site of injury via chemotaxis

leukocytes are activated to perform phagocytosis

83
Q

what’s the difference between acute and chronic inflammation?

A

chronic inflammation

  • persistent
  • two weeks +
  • associated with tissue destruction
  • macrophages and lymphocytes main WBCs instead of neutrophils
84
Q

what are the systemic effects of inflammation?

A 
fever (due to increased prostoglandins)
malaise
anorexia
degradation of skeletal muscle proteins
increased hepatic protein synthesis
leukocytosis (increased WBCs)
85
Q

what are the six links in the chain of infection?

A 
infectious agent
reservoir
portal of exit
means of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host
86
Q

what are the modes of transmission?

A

contact - direct

          - indirect (fomites)
          - droplets

via vehicle - non living agents such as air, water or food

via vectors (living agents)

  • mechanical vectors such as flies
  • biological vectors such as mosquitos
87
Q

what is first line defence?

A
  • non specific
  • prevents entry of antigens into cells
eg skin
tears, mucus, saliva, sweat
stomach acid
beneficial bacteria
urine flow flushes bacteria from bladder

can also include neutrophils

88
Q

what is the fluid that exits capillaries during inflammation due to leaky capillaries called?

A

exudate (protein rich)

89
Q

what are mediators of inflammation?

A

chemicals released from cells (eg histamine, prostoglandin, thromboxanes)

and/or chemicals in the bloodstream (eg in the complement cascade)

90
Q

what are the phases of inflammation?

A

vascular phase
cellular phase

vascular phase - changes in cascular calibre and flow

cellular phase - emigration of white blood cells

91
Q

how do antibodies cause elimination of antigens?

A
  1. activation of the complement cascade
  2. attraction of phagocytes
  3. stimulation of inflammation
  4. prevention of viral/bacterial adhesion
  5. precipitation and agglutination
  6. neutralisation
  7. opsenisation
92
Q

what are the ‘pathogenic properties’ of a microorganism?

A 
AITEA
adherence
invasiveness
toxins
evasiveness
antibiotic resistance
93
Q

list the chemical agents of disinfection

A

soaps/ detergents
acids/alkalis
alcohols
chlorine (bleach)

94
Q

what’s the difference betweeen sterilisation, disinfection and cleaning?

A

sterilsation is the complete destruction of all living material, including spores (steam under pressure, chemical, radiation)

disinfection destroys most agents, reducing them to a safe level (chemical, heat)

cleaning removes surface material (only clean things can be disinfected)

95
Q

what are the types of adaptive or specific immunity?

A

active - make your own antibody

passive - ready made antibodies given

naturally acquired - come into contact in the natural course of life

artificially acquired - needs outside intervention

*naturally acquired passive: ie through breast milk or the placenta

96
Q

types of vaccines

A

live attenuated

  • weakened live microorganism
  • not for the immunosuppressed
  • great immunity
  • MMR, varicella

inactivated

  • less immunity
  • more adverse reactions
  • polio, hep A, rabies

subunit (just the antigen)

  • safe
  • hep B, HPV

toxoid

97
Q

what is an antibody?

A

a protein secreted by plasma cells,

it binds with a specific antigen and promotes its removal or destuction

also known as an immunoglobulin

98
Q

give an example of mechanical vector transmission.

contrast with biological vector transmission.

A

mechanical - fly lands on poo, then on food - passively spreading disease

biological vector involves a bite from a mozzie, tick etc

99
Q

at any moment, where are most of the body’s lymphocytes to be found?

A

in connective tissue and the organs of the lymphatic system ( and a small percentage are circulating in the blood)

100
Q

what are the three types of lymphocytes?

A

t cells, b cells and NK cells

101
Q

explain the difference between specific and non-specific immunity

A

non-specific defences are innate (you’re born with them) and they don’t distinguish between potential threats - they respond the same way every time

specific defences have to be activated, and provide an adaptive defence against that particular antigen/pathogen

102
Q

what are the lymphoid organs and tissues?

A

red bone marrow, thymus, spleen, tonsils, appendix and MALT tissue

103
Q

where is MALT tissue found?

A

the digestive, urinary, respiratory and reproductive tracts

104
Q

what does MALT stand for?

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

105
Q

in what ways do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries?

A

they originate as pockets rather than forming continuous tubes

they have larger diameters

the have thinner walls

they typically have a flattened or irregular outline in sectional view

106
Q

which areas of the body lack lymphatic capillaries?

A

those without a blood supply, such as the cornea of the eye, as well as the red bone marrow and the CNS

107
Q

what are the four main types of t cells?

A

cytotoxic t cells, helper t cells, suppressor t cells and memory t cells

108
Q

what can b cells differentiate into when stimulated?

A

plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies

109
Q

what are the main cells involved in antibody-mediated immunity?

A

b cells

110
Q

what is antibody-mediated immunity also known as?

A

humoral immunity (humoral meaning liquid, as antibodies are found in body fluids)

111
Q

what is the function of overlapping endothelial cells in lymphatic capillaries?

A

they act as one way valves that permit the entry of fluids, solutes, and pathogens but prevent their return to the intercellular spaces

112
Q

compare lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine with those found elsewhere

A

lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lacteals and transport lipids

113
Q

which cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A

t cells, particularly cytotoxic t cells

114
Q

what type of immune response are NK cells involved in?

A

non-specific immunity. they continually monitor peripheral tissues for foreign cells, virus-infected cells and cancer cells - known as immune surveillance

115
Q

what are the tonsils and where are they located?

A

large lymphoid nodules in the walls of the pharynx

116
Q

name the five tonsils

A

pharyngeal (aka adenoid)( in the nasopharynx)

left and right palatine tonsils (at the border of the oral cavity and the pharynx)

lingual tonsils (pair at the base of the tongue)

117
Q

what are the clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the intestine known as?

A

Peyer’s patches

118
Q

where is the thymus located?

A

in the mediastinum, generally just posterior to the sternum

119
Q

what is the largest lymphoid organ?

A

the spleen

120
Q

what is the role of the spleen in the body?

A

essentially, it performs the same functions for blood as the lymph nodes perform for lymph:

  • removing abnormal blood cells and other components via phagocytosis
  • storing iron recycled from red blood cells
  • initiating immune responses by B cells and T cells in response to antigens in circulating blood
121
Q

what are the largest lymph nodes also known as, and where are they found?

A

also known as lymph glands, found where the peripheral lymphatics from neck and limb connect with the trunk - base of neck, groin, armpits

122
Q

what do lymph nodes do?

A

function like a kitchen water filter, straining and purifying the lymph before it returns to venous circulation

they remove at least 99% of antigens in the lymph as it flows through, and stimulate an immune response as needed

123
Q

what are the body’s innate defences?

A 
physical barriers (skin, mucous membranes)
phagocytes
immune surveillance (by NK cells)
interferons
the complement cascade
inflammation
fever
124
Q

how does the integumentary system protect the body?

A

provides a physical barrier that is a first line of defence in preventing pathogens and toxins from entering the body

  • secretions flush the surface
  • hair and nails protects against physical abrasions
  • multiple layers of the epithelium create an interlocking barrier
125
Q

what are the body’s first-line defences?

A

first-line defences are non-specific, and stop an antigen from getting into the body

they can be physical, chemical or biological

126
Q

what are the body’s second-line defences?

A

second-line defences are non-specific, and limit the spread of an antigen once it is in the tissues

  1. phagocytes and NK cells
  2. inflammations
  3. fever
  4. antimicrobial compound chemicals such as interferon and the complement system of plasma proteins
127
Q

what are the different types of phagocytes?

A

neutrophils, eiosinophils and macrophages

128
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

phagocyte movement in response to chemical stimuli

129
Q

which cells are responsible for recognizing and destroying the body’s own abnormal cells?

A

NK cells

130
Q

how do NK cells detect cancer cells?

A

plasma membranes of cancer cells generally contain abnormal proteins called tumor-specific antigens

131
Q

define interferons

A

small proteins that are released by activated lymphocytes, macrophages and cells infected by viruses

they trigger the production of antiviral proteins that interfere with viral replication within tissue cells

132
Q

what is a cytokine?

A

a chemical released by a cell to coordinate local activities, for example interferons.

most cytokines are used only for cell-to-cell communications within a tissue, but those released by phagocytes and lymphocytes can also act as hormones, affecting cells and tissues throughout the body

133
Q

what is the effect of histamine release?

A

histamine release by mast cells and basophils increases local inflammation, accelerating blood flow to the region

134
Q

what is the complement system?

A

special proteins in plasma which complement the actions of antibodies.

they interact with each other in a cascade, similar to the blood clotting system

135
Q

what are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

redness, swelling, warmth, pain, loss of function

136
Q

what is fever?

A

a generalised response to tissue damage and infection

137
Q

what role does fever play in the body’s immune response?

A

high body temps may inhibit some viruses and bacteria

increase in body temperature leads to increase in body’s metabolic rate, so that tissue defence systems are mobilised more quickly and repair process speeds up

138
Q

what effect do pyrogens have in the body?

A

they reset the temperature thermostat in the hypothalamus, increasing the body temperature

139
Q

which cells coordinate specific (adaptive immunity)?

A

B cells, T cells

140
Q

what is the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity?

A

cell-mediated immunity - t cells (generally) defend against abnormal cells and pathogens inside cells
humoral immunity - b cells produce antibodies which defends against antigens and pathogens in bodily fluids

141
Q

modes of transmission: what is the difference between vetical direct contact and horizontal direct contact?

A

vertical - mother (or father) to child: in utero, during childbirth or postnatally, including via breastmilk

horizontal is peer to peer, usually via contact with excretions/body fluids

142
Q

what is the name of an inanimate object capable of transmitting organisms?

A

a fomite

143
Q

what are the five classes of antibodies?

A

IgA: found primarily in glandular secretions: mucus, tears,
saliva, semen; but also in in blood
-Attack pathogens before they gain access to internal
tissues

IgD: B cell surfaces, bind with antigens in ECF and plays a
role in sensitising B cells
-IgD is membrane-bound, is a marker of maturity in b cells, and the exact action is not perfectly understood

IgE: active in allergies, protection from parasites

  • chain end binds to active sites on mast cells and basophils, with fab area ready to bind to antigen
  • Once bound to an antigen, mast cell releases histamine and accelerates inflammation

IgG: ‘memory’ antibody (80% of antibodies)
- responsible for resistance against many viruses,
bacteria and bacterial toxins
- Smaller, can cross the placenta

IgM: first one made after antigen encountered
- IgM population declines as IgG population increases
- Anti-A and anti-B antibodies responsible for
agglutination of incompatible blood types are IgM

144
Q

which cells produce antibodies?

A

plasma cells

nursing cards (13 decks)

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