Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

nursing cards > 258 revision > Flashcards

258 revision Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

what’s the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic?

A

one actually kills bacteria, the other slows there growth enough to render them harmless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is therapeutic range?

A

the concentration at which drugs have their desired therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the three common gram positive microorganisms

A

staphylococcus, streptococcus and clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the mechanisms of action of antibiotics?

A
  1. disruption of cell membrane function
  2. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  3. inhibit dna and rna synthesis
  4. impact protein synthesis by ribosomes
  5. inhibit folic acid metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what’s the mechanism of action of penicillin and cephalosporins?

A

cell wall destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is antibiotic dosage calculated in paeds?

A

based on weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which antibiotics will need drug plasma concentrations monitored?

A

gentamicin, tobramycin, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is important to note about antibiotic therapy in paeds?

A

cultures should be taken before initiating therapy and continued until infection is no longer present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are macrolides?

A

class of antibiotics that inhibit rna synthesis

used to treat respiratory/ENT infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

give two examples of macrolides

A

erythromycin and roxithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

adverse reactions of macrolides

A

nausea and vomiting
abdo pain
rash
anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are cephalosporins?

A

class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

used for gram positive and some gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how many generations of cephalosporins are there?

A

four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adverse reactions to cephalosporins?

A

impaired vitamin K

high sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

two examples of cephalosporins?

A

cephazolin

cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what were the first broad spectrum antibiotics developed?

A

tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

give an example of a bacteriostatic antibiotic

A

tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are tetracyclines?

A

antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are three examples of tetracyclines?

A

tetracycline
doxycycline
tigercycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are aminoglycasides?

A

antibiotics that bind to ribosomes and inhibit protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

three examples of aminoglycasides?

A

gentamycin, neomycin, tobramycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

adverse effects of aminoglycasides?

A

ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is gentamycin used to treat?

A
  1. Serious or life threatening conditions
  2. When other agents are not appropriate
  3. Gram neg. infections
  4. Surgical prophylaxis
  5. Eye infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the adverse effects of gentamycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity
Vestibular ototoxicity
Use with caution with the elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is gentamycin adminstered?

A

parenterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are penicillins and what do they treat?

A

antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

used to treat respiratory infections, UTIs and systemic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

adverse reactions to penicillins

A

GI upset, nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

examples of penicillins

A
  • amoxycillin
  • ampicillin
  • benzylpenicillin
  • flucloxacillin
  • procaine penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which types of surgery are associated with prophylactic use of antibiotics?

A
  • Joint replacement
  • Bowel
  • Head and neck
  • Dental or oral
  • Emergency
  • Trauma
  • Cardiac

also in people with compromised immune systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how can nurses help to prevent antibiotic resistance?

A 
Educate our patients to 
• Take as prescribed
• Complete the prescribed doses
• Throw away unused antibiotics
• Do not share antibiotics
• Antiseptic use
• Correct medication preparation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is ototoxicity?

A

toxicity to the ear - the cochlea, the auditory nerve and sometimes the vestibular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of T2DM?

A 
polyuria (excessive urination)
glycosuria (glucose in urine)
blurred vision
polydipsia (excessive thirst)
polyphagia (excessive appetite)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the advantages of PCA pumps for analgesua?

A

patients usually require less medication but have better pain relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is risk of overdose managed with a PCA?

A

lockout period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is PCA medication continuous or bolus?

A

can have a continuous infusion/background rate and still allow additional bolus doses

36
Q

how is PCA medication delivered?

A

usually IV but can also be SC or epidural

37
Q

what is a PCA used for?

A

to manage post-op and chronic pain

38
Q

what are the core concepts of family centred care?

A

dignity and respect
information sharing
participation
collaboration

39
Q

what does PEWS stand for?

A

Paediatric Early Warning System or Score

40
Q

what is an IDEAL discharge?

A 
specific to patient and their needs -
Include
Discuss
Educate
Assess
Listen
41
Q

What types of anaesthetics are there?

A 
General
Nerve block - spinal or epidural
Regional
Local infiltration
Sedation/analgesia
42
Q

how do diuretics work?

A

modify kidney function to cause increased diuresis and increased natriuresis

43
Q

what are the main classes of diuretics?

A 
osmotic diuretics
loop diuretics
thiazide diuretics
potassium sparing diuretics
(carbonic anhydrase inhibitors)
44
Q

describe the effects of loop diuretics?

A

they produce rapid and intense diuresis over a fairly short period (4-6 hrs)
they have a number of direct vascular effects: venodilation, reduced responsiveness to angiotensin II and noradrenalin

45
Q

what are loop diuretics commonly indicated for?

A 
oedema
cirrhosis
renal impairment
nephrotic syndrome
adjunct therapy for APO
46
Q

when should loop diuretics be used with caution?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Gout
  • Hearing impairment
  • Hepatic and renal impairment
  • Hypokalaemia
47
Q

adverse reactions to frusemide?

A
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Dizziness
  • Postural hypotension
  • Ototoxicity
48
Q

onset of action for thiazide diuretics?

A

about 12 hours

49
Q

how do thiazide diuretics work?

A

inhibit reabsorption of sodium and water, and promote the excretion of electrolytes

50
Q

how potent are thiazide diuretics?

A

moderately potent

51
Q

what do thiazide diuretics promote the reabsorption of?

A

urea, leading to increased uric acid. can lead to gout.

52
Q

what are thiazide diuretics indicated for?

A

oedema, HTN

53
Q

adverse reactions to thiazide diuretics?

A
  • Dizziness
  • Vertigo
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Photosensitivity - use sunscreen!
54
Q

examples of thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide

55
Q

what diuretics are commonly used in conjunction?

A

thiazides and potassium-sparing diuretics

56
Q

what are potassium-sparing diuretics commonly indicated for?

A
  • Diuretic induced hypokalaemia
  • Treatment of oedema related to heart failure
  • Hepatic cirrhosis
57
Q

example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A

spironolactone (Aldactone)

58
Q

what’s the action of spironolactone?

A

aldosterone receptor blocker

59
Q

indications for spironolactone?

A
  • Oedema
  • Heart failure
  • Hyperaldosteronism
  • Hirsutism
60
Q

which diuretic doesn’t interfere with sodium and cholride transport?

A

spironolactone

61
Q

how do osmotic diuretics work?

A

they add to solutes already present, increasing the osmolality of the filtrate in the nephrons

62
Q

indications for osmotic diuretics?

A
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Reduce intraocular pressure
  • Acute closed angle glaucoma
63
Q

examples of osmotic diuretics?

A

mannitol

acetazolamide

64
Q

nursing care considerations for diuretics - what should be monitored?

A

fluid input and output
blood pressure
blood serum levels
BGLs

65
Q

nursing care considerations for diuretics - patient education points

A

education: avoid sudden posture changes
take in the morning
use sunscreen

66
Q

other nursing care considerations for diuretics

A

ensure patients have access to toileting
if IDC is present, ensure it’s patent etc
monitor for dehydration

67
Q

potential post-op complications of the cardiovascular system?

A 
haemorrhage
hypovolemic shock
hypo/hypertension
 deep vein thrombosis
 Anticoagulants, antiplatelets, NSAIDs increase bleeding
68
Q

potential post-op complications of the respiratory system?

A

hypoxia because of increased secretions and bronchoconstriction

atelectasis (collapsed lung) after artificial airway

laryngospasm - uncontrolled spasm or constriction due to anaesthetic gas or airway intubation

infection

pulmonary embolus

69
Q

potential post-op complications of the renal system?

A

urine retention
fluid and electrolyte imbalance
renal failure esp due to dehydration

70
Q

potential post-op complications of the GIT system?

A

constipation, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, paralytic ileus

71
Q

potential post-op complications of the integumentary system?

A

infection,
dehiscence,
scarring,
pressure injuries,
nerve injuries due to innappropriate positioning
hypothermia (can lead to cardiac arrhythmias)

72
Q

potential post-op complications of the nervous system?

A

confusion (post-operative emergence deirium)

chronic pain

73
Q

potential post-op complications of the endocrine system?

A

hormone imbalance e.g. loss of control of diabetes

74
Q

potential post-op complications of the musculoskeletal system?

A

loss of mobility and strength

75
Q

potential psychosocial post-op complications?

A

anxiety, depression, altered body image, anger

76
Q

important pre-op diagnostics

A
  1. Urinalysis
  2. Renal function – urea, electrolytes, creatinine (UEC)
  3. Full blood count/examination (FBC or FBE)
  4. Coagulation studies
  5. Cross match, group and hold
77
Q

what are the different types of nurses involved at the intra-op stage?

A

anaethetic nurse
instrument/scrub nurse
circulation/scout nurse

78
Q

electrolytes: role of sodium?

A

nerve transmission, muscle contraction, maintains normal

concentration of ECF

79
Q

electrolytes: role of chloride?

A

acid/base balance, nerve transmission

80
Q

electrolytes: role of potassium?

A

nerve transmission, muscle contraction, normal heart rhythms, concentration of ICF

81
Q

electrolytes: role of calcium?

A

nerve transmission, muscle contraction, strong bones and teeth, blood clotting, enzyme reactions

82
Q

electrolytes: role of magnesium?

A

enzyme reactions; cardiac and respiratory function

83
Q

why are patients at risk of developing fluid or electrolyte imbalances in the perioperative period?

A 
release of hormones due to stress of surgery - ADH, aldosterone
IV fluid administration
fluid shifts
transfusion
parenteral nutrition
84
Q

what should we assess for around fluid/electrolyte imbalance?

A 
nausea and vomiting
diarrhoea
renal function
intake and output
serum electrolytes
medications (e.g. diuretics, opioid analgesia)
85
Q

potential complications around fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

A
  • Hyponatraemia Na+ <135mmol/L due to release of antidiuretic hormone which retains H2O in the circulation and dilutes Na+
  • Hypokalaemia K+ <3.5mmol/L due to release of aldosterone which retains Na+ and excretes K+
  • other electrolyte imbalances - calsium, magnesium
  • Hypovolaemia/hypervolaemia

nursing cards (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions