BIO CHEM & BIO Flashcards

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1
Q

In animals do we have L or D amino acids? Sugars?

A

L amino acids and D sugers

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2
Q

Proteases usually have which aa in their active cite? Why?

A

Serine, OH group act as a nucleophile

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3
Q

Recognition pcoket

A

pocket in the enzyme which attracts certain residues on substrate polypeptides.

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4
Q

Cofactors

A

metal ions or small molecules requireed for activity of enzyme

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5
Q

Coenzyme

A

a subgroup of cofactors that are organic

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6
Q

covalent modification happens most often to which aa? by which enzyme?

A

ser, the, tyr by kinase to switch OH with PO4

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7
Q

Kinase vs phosphorylase?

A

Kinase use P from organic, Phosphorylase use P from floating inorganic P

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8
Q

Phosphatase is the opposite of which enzymes (2)?

A

Kinase (from ATP) and phosphorylases (from inorganic P)

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9
Q

Zymogen?

A

Inactive protien that needs to have a haircut

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10
Q

Ways of regulating enzymes (4)?

A

Covalent modification
proteolytic cleavage
association with other polypeptides
allosteric regulation

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11
Q

Feedback inhibition vs feedback stimulation vs feedforward stimulation

A

page 85 Bio chem

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12
Q

If there is only a little substrate, then the rate V is …

A

directly proportional to the amount of substrate (i.e. linear)

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13
Q

What is the difference between allosteric and cooperative enzymes?

A

Cooperativity takes place at an active site which acts as an allosteric site as well (i.e. specail case of allosteric). While other allosteric happen just on an allosteric site.

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14
Q

Compatitve inhibitor Vmax & Km? Site? molecule (free or complex enzyme?)
Non- comp?
Un comp?
Mixed ?

A

Comp = same Vmax increase Km, active site, free enz
Non comp = decrease Vmax same Km, allosteric, free
Un comp = decrease Vmax increase Km, allosteric, complex
Mixed = decrease Vmax Km varies, allosteric, both free and complex (if more affinity to free enzyme = like comp inhib, if affinity for complex = like uncomp),

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15
Q

Lineweaver Burk Plot
what is the y-intercept
x-intercept?
How un/non/and comp inhibitors act on LBP?

A
y = 1/vmax
x = 1/-km
non comp = higher y same x
un comp = higher y and x
comp = same y smaller x
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16
Q

Gibbs free energy equation

A

4G=4H-T4S

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17
Q

First law of thermo

2nd?

A
1st = energy conservation
2nd = entropy increase
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18
Q

Keq equation?

A

[c][d]/[a][b]

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19
Q

Dalta G’ equation

A

G’ = -RT InKeq

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20
Q

The higher the Ka the xxxxxxxxxx the acid

A

stronger

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21
Q

Ka equation

A

Ka = [H3O+][A-]/[HA]

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22
Q

high pka means?

A

Weak acid

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23
Q

polyprotic vs amphoteric?

A

poly protic = multiple hydro to lose as acid

amphoteric = can be acid twice

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24
Q

ph =

A

ph= -log[h+]

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25
Q

pka =

A

pka = -log [ka]

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26
Q

aa? R = CH2COOH

A

Aspartic acid

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27
Q

aa? R= CH2CH2COOH

A

Glutamic acid (other name for deprotonated?)

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28
Q

Lysine structure? one letter?

A

c-c-c-c-N

K

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29
Q

Arginine Structure? one letter

A

c-c-c-n-c(2N)

R

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30
Q

Histidine structure? One letter?

A

c-ring with NH

h

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31
Q

Glycine

A

r = H

G

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32
Q

Alanine?

A

A

CH3

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33
Q

valine

A

V carbons

V

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34
Q

Leucine?

A
L 
Y carbons (4 c total)
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35
Q

Isoleucine?

A

Sowrd carbons C(C)-C-C

I

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36
Q

Phenylalanine?

A

C-benzene ring

F

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37
Q

Tryptophan?

A

C-RINGRING

W

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38
Q

Serine?

A

C-OH

S

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39
Q

Threonine?

A

T

C(C)-OH

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40
Q

Tyrosine?

A

Y

C-Benzene ring- OH

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41
Q

Asparagine?

A

CC=O/-N

N

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42
Q

Glutamine

A

C-C-C=O/-N

Q

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43
Q

Cysteine?

A

C

c-s

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44
Q

Methionine

A

C-C-S-C

M

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45
Q

Essential aa?

A

Valine Phen “Hiss” and Lys Isolate Leu (the hero) who Met Three Trys (to defeat phen)

Val his leu iso phen try met lys thr

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46
Q

C-C name?

C C name?

A

cystine (bond)

cysteine (no bond)

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47
Q

Hydrolase?

A

Hydrolyzes chemical bonds (ATPases, proteases, etc)

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48
Q

Isomerase?

A

rearrange to make isomers

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49
Q

Ligase?

A

form chemcial bonds (DNA ligase) i.e. glue

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50
Q

lyase?

A

break bonds by ways other than oxidation or hydrolysis (e.g. pyruvate decarboxulase)

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51
Q

Kinase?

A

Put P on a molecule from ATP

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52
Q

oxidoreductase?

A

Runs redox

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53
Q

polymerase?

A

polymerization (DNA polymerase)

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54
Q

phosphatase?

A

remove P group from molecule

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55
Q

phosphorylase?

A

put P on molecule from inorganic (floating) P

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56
Q

protease?

A

hydrolyzes peptide bonds

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57
Q

nucleons

A

protons + neutrons

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58
Q

atomic number Z?

A

Number of protons

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59
Q

Mass number A

A

Number of Nutrons + protons

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60
Q

strong nuclear force works where?

A

In the nucleus. holding together strong protons and neutrons.

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61
Q

can you tell what is radioactive nuclei, radioactive decay, parent and daoughter nuclei?

A

No? Go to page 53 u dump bitch

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62
Q

alpha particle made of?

A

2 proton and 2 nuotrons

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63
Q

Where is waek nuclear force found (decay wise)

A

Beta decay

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64
Q

What are the three types of Beta decay?

A

B- B+ and electron capture

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65
Q

what is positron?

A

positive electron

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66
Q

positron is equivilent to what decay?

A

B+

67
Q

What is electron capture (decay)

A

when the nuecleis of an atom wants to increse the number of neatrons and does that by grabbing the closest electron from the frist shell. Result in decreasing atomic number by 1.

68
Q
gamma decay made of? effect on N/Z
B- decay made of? effect on N/Z
B+ decay made of?effect on N/Z
Alpha decay made of? effect on N/Z
Electron capture? effect on N/Z
A
photon NONE
electron  DEC/INC
positron INC/DEC
helium nucleus DEC/DEC
capture electron from first shell INC/DEC
69
Q

Half life equation

A

N = N0 (1/2)^T/t

70
Q

nuclear inding energy

A

energy that was required to make the nucleus of the atom

71
Q

mass defect? (atoms shit)

its equation?

A

the mass lost when the nucleas was formed (converted to energy).
dalta m = (total mass of separate nucleons) - (mass of nucleus).

72
Q

How can you find the nuclear binding energy from mass defect?

A

Einstein’s equations or mass-energy equivalence EB = (Daltam)c^2
c= 3 x 10^8 m/s

73
Q

emission spectra

A

pg. 61 GCHEM

74
Q

equation relating energy and wavelength?

A

E= hf = h (c/y)

75
Q

bigger wavelength means? —— frequency

A

smaller frequency

76
Q

shell
subshell
orbital
spin #

A

page 65

77
Q

Aufbau principle

A

electrons occcupy the lowest energy orbitals available

78
Q

Hunds rule

A

Electrons fill empty first before pairing up

79
Q

Pauli exclusion principle

A

no more than 2 electrons in any given orbital

80
Q

diamagnetic

A

atom that have all its electrons paired

81
Q

diamagnetic atoms get _________ when in a magnetic field

A

repelled

82
Q

paramagnetic atoms?

A

atoms with unpaired electrons

83
Q

paramagnetic atoms are __________ in a magnetic field

A

attracted

84
Q

What are the 5 atoms that have anomalous electron configurations?

A

Cu Co Mo Ag Au

85
Q

If two atoms have the same electron configuration they are called_______

A

isoelectronic

86
Q

transition metals lose electrons in the s or d orbital?

A

in the s first

87
Q
Name the following from periodic talble:
Group I
GROUP II
GROUP VII
GROUP VIII
D block
s and p blocks
f block?
A
alkali metals
alkali earth metals
halogens
noble gases
transition metals
representative elements
rare earth metals
88
Q

What is a metalloid?

examples?

A

both metals and non metal qualities. N si ge as sb te po

89
Q

how to know if electron affinity for an element is positive or negative?

A

halogens crave electrons = will realeas energy = -ve.

noble gas/ alkali = hate electrons = need energy = +ve

90
Q

electronegatitivy order?

A

F > O > N = Cl > Br > I > S > C=H

91
Q
Acidity trend in periodic table?
atomic radius?
ionization energy?
electron affniity?
electronegativity?
A
increase as you go 
right down
left down
right up
right up (more negative)
right up
92
Q

what is the electronmagnetic spectrum? say everything in order.

A

gamma, x-ray, ultraviolet, visible spectrum, infrared, radar, FM, tv, short wave, am

visible spectrum (violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red)

93
Q

monosaccharids have the general chemical formula ________

A

CnH2nOn

94
Q

bond between two sugars?

A

Glycosidic linkage

95
Q

glycosidic bond is a _______ bond and formed in a ____ reaction

A

covalent bond, dehydration reacton.

96
Q

Ribose structure

A
CHO
H-C-OH
H-C-OH
H-C-OH
CH2OH
97
Q

Glucose structure

A
CHO
H-C-OH
HO-C-H
H-C-OH
H-C-OH
CH2OH
98
Q

Fructose

A
CH2OH
C=O
HO-C-H
H-C-OH
H-C-OH
CH2OH
99
Q

Sucrose made of

A

Glucose + fructose

100
Q

lactose is made of?

A

galactose + glucose

101
Q

maltose made of

A

glucose + glucose

102
Q

people who cant digest lactose are called

A

lactose malabsorbers. which have a problem called lactose intoleranence.

103
Q

NAD+ stands for

A

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

104
Q

FAD stands for?

A

Flavin adenine dinucleotide

105
Q

which pathway is shared by all cells from all domains?

A

glycolysis

106
Q

what does hexokinase do in glycolysis? how is regulated?

A

convert G to G-6-P, requires an ATP. G-6-P inhibite hexokinase

107
Q

What does phosphofructokinase do in glycolysis? What inhibites PFK?

A

F-6-P to F-1,6-bisP. Inhibited by ATP

108
Q

What does pyruvate kinase do in glycolysis? Inhibted by?

A

convert 2 PEP to 2 pyruvates and produce 2 ATP in the process. Inhibited by AcytelCoA.

109
Q

How ATP and NADH go in and out in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP consumed, 4 produced = total is 2

2 NADH produced

110
Q

What are the three regulated steps in glycolysis?

A

The ones that are exorgonic, which are
Glucose to G-6-P
Frcutose-6-P to Fructose-1,6,-bisP
PEP to pyruvate

111
Q

other name for citrate?

A

tricarboxylic acid (TCA)

112
Q

What are the names of the molecules in the TAC cycle?

A

citrate - alpha ketogluterate - succinate - fumarate - malate - oxaloacetate.

113
Q

What is the name of the ETC proteins in order?

A

Coenzyme Q reductase - Coenzyme Q - cytochrome C reductase - cytochrome C - cytochrome C oxidase.

114
Q
NADH = \_\_\_\_\_\_ ATP
FADH = \_\_\_\_\_\_ ATP
A
  1. 5

1. 5

115
Q

What is the total number of ATP per glucose made

in eukaryotes and in prokaryotes?

A

30 in euk and 32 in prok.

116
Q

how many NADH are produced per glucose? Where do they come from exactly? FADH?

A

2 NADH from glycolysis. (put becomes FADH2 when it enters the mitochonderia)
2 NADH from Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
6 NADH from krebs cycle.
2 FADH2 from Krebs cycle.
10 NADH and 2 FADH2 in total

117
Q

anearobic glycolysis in yeast? what is the end product(s)? in humans?

A

pyruvate –> CO2 + ethanol

pyruvate –> lactic acid

118
Q

what does pyruvate carboxylase do? in what pathway?

A

convert pyruvate to oxaloacetate in the gluconeogenesis pathway.

119
Q

what does PEP carboxykinase (PEPCK) do? In what pathway?

A

convert OAA to PEP

120
Q

what is oxidative decarboxylation?

A

Produce NADH and CO2 at once. Happens in pyruvate dehydrogenase complexe and kreb cycle.

121
Q

What are the 3 keton bodies?

A

acetoacetate o-c(=o)-c-c(=o)-c (4C)
hydroxybutyrate o-c(=o)-c-c(oh)-c (4C)
acetone c-c(=o)-c (3C)

122
Q

total gluconeogensis energy requirments

A

6 ATP/GTP

2 NADH

123
Q

what are the two molecules that regulare glycolysis and gluconeogensis? on what enzymes?

hormone regulation?

A

ATP and citrate = inhibit PFK and stimulate fru-1,6-bisPatase.

124
Q

how does Fructose-2,6-bisP Regulate the body? what hormones effect it? what enzyme it affects?

A

Fructose-2,6-bisP stimulate PFK = more glycolysis.
insulin incraese it
glucagon decrease it

125
Q

what is a plaque? (on bacteria plates)?

A

A plaque is a clear area on a plate otherwise covered in bacterial cells. It can be caused by addition of a toxin, antibiotic, or virus; each of these can kill bacteria and would generate a clear area.

126
Q

what are the possibilities if an Hfr bacteria mate with F- bacteria?

A

since the F factor get transported last, the F- could either end as F+ or Hfr or it can remain F- if the F factor was not transported.

127
Q

how fast does myallinated nuorones send signals?

A

120 m/s

128
Q

how can u distinguish dendrites from axons?

A

only by direction of signal (away/toward) the soma

129
Q

what is saltatory conduction?

A

when neuron signals jumg from node to node on the axon.

130
Q

what is depolorize? hyperpolrize?

A

depolorize mean move away from rest potential in the +ve direction. While hyper is same but in negative direction

131
Q

what is equilibirum potentioanl when talking about action potentions and neurons?

A

is the concentration where there is no driving force on the ion to move in or out

132
Q

what is Na and K equilibruim potential in a cell membrane?

A

Na is +50. while K is -90

133
Q

what are the four differences between electrical synapse and chemical one?

A

electrical is bidirectional, unregulated, and always exitotory.

134
Q

where electrical synapse is found?

A

cardic muscle cells

135
Q

if white matter is found in the brain its called

A

tract

136
Q

if white matter is found in the spinal cord its called? two names

A

tract or column

137
Q

if white matter is found outside the CNS its called

A

nerve

138
Q

if gray matter is found deep in the brain its called? if found on the surface? if found on the spinal cord? in PNS?

A

nucleus. or on the surface its called cortex. on spinal cord = horn. in PNS = ganglion,

139
Q

what does each lobe in the brain does? include all senses.

A
140
Q

parasympathetic nervous system release what neurotransmitter? sympathetic?

A
para = Ach
symp = NE (norepinephrine)
141
Q

what does the adrenal medulla release? in response to what?

A

epinephrine in response to the sympathetic NS.

142
Q

What’s the difference between epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

epinephrine lasts longer and is a hormone.

norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter.

143
Q

what are the types of receptores? there are 5. give examples in humans.

A
144
Q
define the following terms related to sensory processing:
absolute threshold.
difference threshold.
bottom-up processing
top-down processing
sensory adaptation.
A
145
Q

eye parts

A
146
Q

what is the difference between cones and rods?

A

cones are for color vision, concentrated at the fovea. and work only under intense light.

rods are for color intensity, NOT found at all in the fovea, and work under dim light too.

147
Q

when does ON bipolar cells activate?

A

when there is light = no signaling from cones/rods = cones and rods are inhabitory for it.

148
Q

when does OFF bipolar cells activate?

A

when there is no light = rods and cones are estimated = they are excitatory for the bipolar

149
Q

what is the outer ear made of? middle ear? inner ear? state middle ear in order.

A

pinna/audiotory canel. tympanic membrane is the boundery between outer and middle. middle = malleus, incus, stapes. innear ear = semicercular canals and cochlea and eustachian tube.

150
Q

what is the name of the tube that connects the mouth and the ear? (2 names)

A

eustachian tube or audiotory tube

151
Q

in the ear, what is the name of the membrane between the middle and inner ear?

A

oval window

152
Q

can you tell what is the follownig in the ear: perilymph, endolymph, basilar membrane, tectorial membrane.

A
153
Q

where is the following detected in the cochlea? (choose between far end or close end)

high frequency? low frequency?
narrow? wide?
high pitch? low pitch?
low energy sound? high?

A

close/far
far/close
close/far
far/close

154
Q

what is the function of the semicircular canal?

A

detect rotational acceleration

155
Q

what organs detect static equilibrium? what organs detect rotational equilibrium? what is the name of the complex that detect both?

A

static = saccule and utricle. rotational = semicircualar canal. name of the whole thing is vestibular complex.

156
Q

dorsal for humans mean

A

dorsal (i.e., posterior) refers to the back portion of the body

157
Q

ventral means

A

front of the body

158
Q

The cell bodies of a somatic sensory nerve are located in the:

A

dorsal root ganglion.

159
Q

The organ of Corti

A

The Organ of Corti is an organ of the inner ear located within the cochlea which contributes to audition

160
Q

Hair cells used to detect motion are found in which of the following structures?

I.

The organ of Corti

II.

The skin

III.

The semicircular canals

Question 23 Answer Choices
  	A.  I only
  	B.  I and III only 
  	C.  III only 
  	D.  I, II, and III
A

B

161
Q
In the condition myopia the inverted image formed by the lens falls:
A. on the retina.
  	B.  in front of the retina. 
  	C.  behind the retina. 
  	D.  on the optic nerve.
A

B

162
Q

Nerve cells that control thermoregulation are concentrated in which portion of the brain?

Question 4 Answer Choices
  	A.  Cerebrum
  	B.  Hypothalamus
  	C.  Medulla 
  	D.  Cerebellum
A

B

163
Q

The cell bodies of a somatic sensory nerve are located in the:

Question 5 Answer Choices
  	A.  ventral horn.
  	B.  dorsal root ganglion. 
  	C.  brain.
  	D.  spinal cord.
A

B

164
Q

which lens, concave or convex. is a diverging lens?

A

Recall that a concave lens is a diverging lens and a convex lens is a converging lens