Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

2025 Spring > BIO 112 Exam 3 > Flashcards

BIO 112 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define the central dogma.

A

DNA -> transcription -> RNA -> translation -> protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of DNA (central dogma)?

A

stores information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of RNA (central dogma)?

A

copies information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of protein (central dogma)?

A

the product of gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the role of transcription (central dogma)?

A

a mRNA copy of a DNA gene is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the role of translation (central dogma)?

A

mRNA works with tRNA to produce a protein at a ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the four nitrogenous bases. Which pairs are complementary?

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
A-T, C-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Write the complementary DNA sequence for this strand of DNA:
5’ CTAATGCTAGATACGA 3’

A

3’ GATTACGATCTATGCT 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNA synthesis occurs in a 5’ to 3’ direction. Explain what this means and why synthesis occurs in this direction and not the opposite direction.

A

The 5’ end of a new nucleotide links to the 3’ end of the existing DNA molecule. This occurs because the 5’ end has phosphate groups that provide the energy necessary to create the chemical bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe DNA structure.

A

The DNA molecules is a double-helix with strands in an antiparallel orientation. The bases are aligned in the center and joined with hydrogen bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe semi-conservative DNA replication.

A

Each DNA molecule contains one parent template strand and one newly-synthesized daughter strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the order of the processes that occur during DNA replication?

A
  • Helicase
  • Binding proteins
  • Primase
  • DNA polymerase
  • Ligase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of helicase (DNA replication)?

A

unwinds and separate DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of binding proteins (DNA replication)?

A

hold separated DNA strands apart (keeps them separated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of primase (DNA replication)?

A

adds RNA primer to DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase (DNA replication)?

A

adds complementary DNA bases to synthesize a new DNA molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of ligase (DNA replication)?

A

links Okazaki fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the difference in daughter strand synthesis on the leading and lagging strands of template DNA.

A

leading strand has continuous synthesis, lagging strand has discontinuous synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

sections of DNA made during discontinous synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the main difference in function between DNA and RNA?

A

DNA stores information
RNA copies information and uses it to make a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List four differences in structure between DNA and RNA.

A
  • DNA is large, RNA is small
  • DNA is double-stranded, RNA is single-stranded
  • DNA has thymine, RNA has uracil
  • DNA has deoxyribose sugar, RNA has ribose sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens during transcription?
Where does it occur?

A

a DNA gene is copied into a RNA molecule, happens in the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Write the RNA sequence that is complementary to this DNA sequence:
5’ TTGACCGATCGATAGCTTGACAT 3’

A

3’ AACUGGCUAGCUAUCGAACUGUA 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA? What are their functions?

A

mRNA (messenger): makes a copy of a DNA gene
rRNA (ribosomal): combines with proteins to make a ribosome
tRNA (transfer): brings amino acid to ribosome and attaches it to the protein that is being made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What happens during translation? Where does it occur?
ribosome moves along mRNA and tRNA brings new amino acids to a protein that is being made cytoplasm
26
What is a codon? Where is it located?
a sequence of 3 RNA bases that code for a specific amino acid located on mRNA
27
What is an anticodon? Where is it located?
3 RNA bases that are complementary to codon bases located on tRNA
28
List the types of mutations. (5)
- Silent - Missense - Nonsense - Insertion - Deletion
29
What happens during silent mutation? Is it a point or frameshift mutation?
changes DNA but NOT amino acid point
30
What happens during missense mutation? Is it a point or frameshift mutation?
changes DNA AND amino acid point
31
What happens during nonsense mutation? Is it a point or frameshift mutation?
codes for a stop codon point
32
What happens during insertion? Is it a point or frameshift mutation?
inserts an extra base into DNA and changes all following amino acids frameshift
33
What happens during deletion? Is it a point or frameshift mutation?
deletes a DNA base and changes all following amino acids frameshift
34
What is the amino acid sequence of the protein that will be translated on the ribosome using this mRNA sequence: 5’-CCUGAUGGGUCAACGCUUAUGAG-3’
Always start with AUG 5'-CCUG AUG (Met) GGU (Gly) CAA (Gln) UUA (Leu) UGA (Stop) G-3'
35
What type of mutation occurs when the 8th base is changed from G to U? 5’-CCUGAUGGGUCAACGCUUAUGAG-3’
GGU changes to UGU, Gly changes to Cys, missense mutation
36
Define somatic cell. Is it diploid or haploid?
any cell in the body except for a gamete - the cell is diploid (it contains two copies of every gene, one from each parent)
37
Define gamete cell. Is it diploid or haploid?
reproductive egg or sperm cells - the cell is haploid (it contains one copy of every gene)
38
Describe the difference between mitosis and meiosis.
- mitosis starts with one diploid cell and produces two diploid cells - meiosis starts with one diploid cell and produces four haploid cells
39
What is the order of the phases of interphase? (4)
- G1 phase - G0 phase - S phase - G2 phase
40
What happens during G1 phase?
initial cell growth after cell division
41
What happens during G0 phase?
no cell growth but cell is metabolically active; nerve and heart cells remain in this phase because they don't reproduce
42
What happens during S phase?
DNA is replicating to make 2 copies; one for each cell when the cell divides
43
What happens during G2 phase?
cell prepares for mitosis
44
What is the order of the phases of mitosis? (6)
- prophase - prometaphase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase - cytokinesis
45
What happens during prophase?
chromosomes condense
46
What happens during prometaphase?
nuclear membrane starts to break down
47
What happens during metaphase?
chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
48
What happens during anaphase?
chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell
49
What happens during telophase?
nuclear membrane reforms and chromosomes start to decondense
50
What happens during cytokinesis?
one cell divides into two cells
51
List 3 advantages of asexual reproduction. List 2 disadvantages.
A: rapid reproduction, no mates required, low energy investment D: low genetic diversity, low ability to adapt to natural selection
52
List 2 advantages of sexual reproduction. List 2 disadvantages.
A: high genetic diversity, greater chance of adaptation to natural selection D: large energy investment, requires more time to produce offspring
53
Define allele.
version of a gene; each organism has two alleles for every gene (one from each parent)
54
Define genotype.
alleles that an organism has
55
Define homozygous alleles.
both alleles are the same homozygous dominant - two dominant alleles homozygous recessive - two recessive alleles
56
Define heterozygous alleles.
each allele is different (one dominant, one recessive)
57
Define phenotype.
the product of gene expression
58
Describe the differences between complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance.
Complete: 3 possible genotypes, 2 possible phenotypes Incomplete: 3 possible genotypes, 3 possible phenotypes Codominance: both alleles are dominant, 6 possible genotypes, 4 possible phenotypes
59
Explain evolution using the terms population and natural selection.
evolution is a change in population genetic variability over time in response to natural selection
60
List 2 things that cause genetic variation in populations.
random mutation sexual reproduction
61
Define natural selection.
individuals with traits that are favorable are more likely to survive and produce offspring than those who do not have those traits
62
What happens to gene frequencies over time?
gene frequencies change over time as populations adapt to natural selection
63
What happens if a population does not contain favorable genes/traits?
it may go extinct
64
How can genetic variability in traits lead to a differential reproduction?
organisms with traits that provide a selective advantage to natural selection are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass those genes on to the next generation
65
Define fitness in terms of evolution. What do higher fitness and lower fitness mean?
fitness refers to the ability to survive and reproduce higher fitness = greater chance of survival and reproduction lower fitness = lower chance
66
Describe the difference between microevolution and macroevolution.
Micro: changes in population genetic variability that do not lead to speciation Macro: long-term, large-scale changes that lead to speciation (new species)
67
Describe epigenetics and its impact on evolution.
epigenetics is when environmental factors (pollutants, drugs, stress, diet) can activate or deactivate normal gene expression epigenetic changes can be passed on to offspring, rendering them more susceptible to certain diseases or conditions (diabetes) than offspring who were born without parental epigenetic changes
68
Describe the 3 types of horizontal gene transfer and their impact on evolution.
- transduction: living bacteria take in genes from dead and decaying bacteria - conjugation: genes are transferred from one living bacteria to another - transduction: viruses transfer genes from one bacteria to another *horizontal gene transfer is the primary mechanism responsible for the drastic rise in antibiotic resistance
69
Describe how endosymbiosis occurred and its impact on evolution.
endosymbiosis occurred when two free-living bacteria merged into one organism this process produced the origin of all eukaryotes (animals, fungi, plants, protists)
70
Explain how humans can genetically modify organisms with recombinant DNA technology and the impact on evolution.
a gene of interest is transferred to a plasmid and the plasmid is inserted into bacteria or plants this process has allowed use to genetically modify corps to resist pests and herbicides, and bacteria to produce human insulin
71
Describe CRISPR-Cas9 technology and its impact on evolution.
CRISPR-Cas9 technology can identify a specific DNA sequence, cut the DNA strands, and insert any gene into the genome it has the potential to cure conditions such as sickle cell anemia, cancer, cardiovascular diseases and is the main mechanism used to bring back organisms that are currently extinct

2025 Spring (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions