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Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

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1
Q

Briefly describe the main contributions of Paul Broca to neuropsychology

A

correlated pathology with specific brain regions, such as speech production from Broca’s area

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2
Q

What parts of the nervous system are in the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

brain and spinal cord

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3
Q

What parts of the nervous system are in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

most of the cranial and spinal nerves and sensors

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4
Q

What do afferent neurons do?

A

afferent (sensory) neurons bring signals from a sensor to the central nervous system

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5
Q

What do efferent neurons do?

A

efferent (motor) neurons bring signals from the central nervous system to an effector

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6
Q

What functions are accomplished by the somatic nervous system?

A

responsible for voluntary actions; most notably, moving muscles

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7
Q

What functions are accomplished by the autonomic nervous system?

A

responsible for involuntary actions, like heart rate, bronchial dilation, dilation of the eyes, exocrine gland function, and peristalsis

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8
Q

What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

promotes a fight-or-flight response, with increased heart rate and bronchial dilation, redistribution of blood to locomotor muscles, dilation of the eyes, and slowing of digestive and urinary functions

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9
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

promotes rest-and-digest functions, slowing heart rate and constricting the bronchi, redistributing blood to the gut, promoting exocrine secretions, constricting the pupils, and promoting peristalsis and urinary function

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10
Q

What are the main functions of the hindbrain?

A

balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, general arousal processes (sleeping and walking); “vital functioning”

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11
Q

What are the main functions of the midbrain?

A

receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body; reflexes to auditory and visual stimuli

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12
Q

What are the main functions of the forebrain?

A

complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes; emotion and memory

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13
Q

What structures surround and protect the brain?

A

from most deep to most superficial, the structures surrounding the brain are the meninges, bone, periosteum, and skin

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14
Q

What is the basic function of the basal ganglia?

A

smooth movement

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15
Q

What is the basic function of the cerebellum?

A

coordinated movement

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16
Q

What is the basic function of the cerebral cortex?

A

complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes

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17
Q

What is the basic function of the hypothalamus?

A

hunger and thirst; emotion

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18
Q

What is the basic function of the inferior and superior colliculi?

A

sensorimotor reflexes

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19
Q

What is the basic function of the limbic system?

A

emotion and memory

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20
Q

What is the basic function of the medulla oblongata?

A

vital function (breathing, digestion)

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21
Q

What is the basic function of the reticular formation?

A

arousal and alertness

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22
Q

What is the basic function of the thalamus?

A

sensory relay station

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23
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

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24
Q

What is the basic function of the frontal lobe?

A

executive function, impulse control, long-term planning (prefrontal cortex), motor function (primary motor cortex), speech production (Broca’s area)

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25
Q

What is the basic function of the parietal lobe?

A

sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain (somatosensory cortex); spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation

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26
Q

What is the basic function of the occipital lobe?

A

visual processing

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27
Q

What is the basic function of the temporal lobe?

A

sound processing (auditory cortex), speech perception (Wernicke’s area), memory, and emotion (limbic system)

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28
Q

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral communication between the brain and body?

A

ipsilateral communication occurs when cerebral hemispheres communicate with the same side of the body
contralateral communication occurs when cerebral hemispheres communicate with the opposite side of the body

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29
Q

How is the dominant hemisphere typically defined?

A

the dominant hemisphere is typically defined as the one that is more heavily stimulated during language reception and production

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30
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine?

A

voluntary muscle control

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31
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter dopamine?

A

smooth movements and steady posture

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32
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter endorphins?

A

natural painkillers

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33
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter epinephrine/norepinephrine?

A

wakefulness and alertness, fight-or-flight responses

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34
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter GABA/glycine?

A

brain “stabilizer”

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35
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter glutamate?

A

brain excitation

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36
Q

What is the basic function of the neurotransmitter serotonin?

A

mood, sleep, eating, dreaming

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37
Q

Which endocrine organs influence behavior? What hormones do the use, and what do they accomplish?

A

The hypothalamus controls release of pituitary hormones; the pituitary is the “master gland” that triggers hormone secretion in many other endocrine glands.
The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine, which causes sympathetic nervous system effects throughout the body.
The adrenal cortex produces cortisol, a stress hormone.
The adrenal cortex and testes produce testosterone, which is associated with libido.

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38
Q

Briefly discuss the influence of nature vs. nurture on behavior.

A

Nature is defined as heredity, or the influence of inherited characteristics on behavior.
Nurture refers to the influence of environment and physical surroundings on behavior.

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39
Q

Describe the process of neurulation.

A

Neurulation occurs when a furrow is produced from ectoderm overlying the notochord and consists of the neural groove and two neural folds. As the neural folds grow, the cells at their leading edge are called neural crest cells. When the neural folds fuse, this creates the neural tube, which will form the CNS.

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40
Q

Briefly describe the observed behavior of rooting.

A

turns head toward direction of any object touching the cheek

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41
Q

Briefly describe the observed behavior of moro.

A

in response to sudden head movement, arms extend and slowly retract; baby usually cries

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42
Q

Briefly describe the observed behavior of babinski.

A

extension of big toe and fanning of other toes in response to brushing the sole of the foot

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43
Q

Briefly describe the observed behavior of grasping.

A

holding onto any object placed in the hand

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44
Q

What do photoreceptors respond to?

A

electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum (sight)

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45
Q

What do mechanoreceptors respond to?

A

pressure or movement. Hair cells, for example, respond to movement of fluid in the inner ear structures (movement, vibration, hearing, rotational and linear acceleration)

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46
Q

What do nociceptors respond to?

A

painful or noxious stimuli (somatosensation)

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47
Q

What do thermoreceptors respond to?

A

changes in temperature (thermosensation)

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48
Q

What do osmoreceptors respond to?

A

osmolarity of the blood (water homeostasis)

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49
Q

What do olfactory receptors respond to?

A

volatile compounds (smell)

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50
Q

What do taste receptors respond to?

A

dissolved compounds (taste)

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51
Q

What is the absolute threshold?

A

the minimum of stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system

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52
Q

What is the threshold of conscious perception?

A

the level of intensity that a stimulus must pass in order to be consciously perceived by the brain

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53
Q

What is the difference threshold?

A

the minimum change in magnitude required for an observer to perceive that two different stimuli are, in fact, different

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54
Q

What is Weber’s law?

A

the idea that difference thresholds are proportional and must be computed as percentages
3 Hz/440 Hz = 0.0068 = 0.68%

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55
Q

What is the pathway for a stimulus to reach conscious perception?

A

sensory receptor –> afferent neuron –> sensory ganglion –> spinal cord –> brain (projection areas)

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56
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

gathers and focuses the incoming light

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57
Q

What is the function of the pupil?

A

allows passage of light from the anterior to posterior chamber

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58
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

controls the size of the pupil

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59
Q

What is the function of the ciliary body?

A

produces aqueous humor; accommodation of the lens

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60
Q

What is the function of the canal of schlemm?

A

drains aqueous humor

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61
Q

What is the function of the lens?

A

refracts the incoming light to focus it on the retina

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62
Q

What is the function of the retina?

A

detects images

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63
Q

What is the function of the sclera?

A

provides structural support

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64
Q

List the structures in the visible pathway, from where light enters the cornea to the visual projection areas in the brain

A

cornea –> pupil –> lens –> vitreous –> retina (rods and cones) –> bipolar cells –> ganglion cells –> optic nerve –> optic chasm –> optic tract –> lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of thalamus –> radiations through parietal and temporal lobes –> visual cortex (occipital lobe)

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65
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

the ability to simultaneously analyze color, shape, and motion of an object and to integrate this information to create a cohesive image of the world. Parallel processing also calls on memory systems to compare a visual stimulus to past experiences to help determine the object’s identity

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66
Q

In feature detection, what type of cells are responsible for color?

A

cones

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67
Q

In feature detection, what type of cells are responsible for form?

A

parvocellular cells

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68
Q

In feature detection, what type of cells are responsible for motion?

A

magnocellular cells

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69
Q

In feature detection, what type of cells are responsible for depth?

A

binocular neurons

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70
Q

What structures are used to detect linear acceleration?

A

linear acceleration is detected by the utricle and saccule

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71
Q

What structures are used to detect rotational acceleration?

A

rotational acceleration is detected by the semicircular canals

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72
Q

List the structures of the auditory pathway, from where sound enters the pinna to the auditory projection areas in the brain

A

pinna –> external auditory canal –> tympanic membrane –> malleus –> incus –> stapes –> oval window –> perilymph in cochlea –> basilar membrane –> hair cells –> vestibulocochlear nerve –> brainstem –> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus –> auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

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73
Q

How does the organization of the cochlea indicate the pitch of an incoming sound?

A

the basilar membrane is tonotopically organized; high-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the apex of the cochlea

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74
Q

List the structures in the olfactory pathway, from where odor molecules enter the nose to where olfactory signals project in the brain.

A

nostril –> nasal cavity –> olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) on olfactory epithelium –> olfactory bulb –> olfactory tract –> higher-order brain regions, including limbic system

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75
Q

Both smell and taste are sensitive to chemicals. What is different about the types of chemicals each one can sense?

A

smell is sensitive to volatile or aerosolized compounds

taste is sensitive to dissolved compounds

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76
Q

What are the four main modalities of somatosensation?

A

pressure, vibration, pain, temperature

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77
Q

How is sensory information integrated in bottom-up processing?

A

bottom-up processing requires each component of an object to be interpreted through parallel processing and then integrated into one cohesive whole

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78
Q

How is sensory information integrated in top-down processing?

A

top-down processing starts with the whole object and, through memory, creates expectations for the components of the object

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79
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of proximity

A

components close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit

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80
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of similarity

A

components that are similar (in color, shape, size) tend to be grouped together

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81
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of good continuation

A

components that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together; abrupt changes in form are less likely that continuation of the same pattern

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82
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of subjective contours

A

edges or shapes that are not actually present can be implied by the surrounding objects (especially if good continuation is present)

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83
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of closure

A

a space enclosed by a contour tends to be perceived as a complete figure; such figures tend to be perceived as more complete (or closed) than the really are

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84
Q

Briefly describe the Gestalt principle of prägnanz

A

perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible

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85
Q

What is associative learning?

A

the creation of a pairing, or association, either between two stimuli or between a behavior and a response
two types of associative learning: classical and operant conditioning

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86
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

a type of associative learning that takes advantage of biological, instinctual responses to create associations between two unrelated stimuli (Pavlov’s dogs)

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87
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

it examines the ways in which consequences of voluntary behaviors change the frequency of those behaviors

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88
Q

What are positive reinforcers?

A

they increase the frequency of a behavior by adding a positive consequence or incentive following the desired behavior

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89
Q

What are negative reinforcers?

A

they increase the frequency of a behavior, but they do so by removing something unpleasant (taking an aspirin to reduce a headache)
can be subdivided into escape learning and avoidance learning

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90
Q

What is escape learning?

A

describes a situation where the animal experiences the unpleasant stimulus and, in response, displays the desired behavior in order to trigger the removal of the stimulus

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91
Q

What is avoidance learning?

A

occurs when the animal displays the desired behavior in anticipation of the unpleasant stimulus, thereby avoiding the unpleasant stimulus

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92
Q

What is observational learning?

A

the process of learning a new behavior or gaining information by watching others

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93
Q

What is encoding?

A

the process of putting new information into memory

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94
Q

What are the different types of encoding?

A

visual encoding: visualize information
acoustic encoding: store the way it sounds
elaborative encoding: link it to knowledge that is already in memory
semantic encoding: put it into meaningful context
(semantic encoding is the strongest and visual encoding is the weakest)

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95
Q

What is sensory memory?

A

the most fleeting kind of memory storage, which preserves information in its original sensory form (auditory, visual, etc) with high accuracy and lasts only a very short time, generally less than one second

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96
Q

What are the two types of long-term memory?

A

implicit memory: consists of our skills, habits, and conditioned responses, none of which need to be consciously recalled
explicit memory: consists of those memories that require conscious recall

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97
Q

In what ways is maintenance rehearsal different from elaborative rehearsal?

A

maintenance rehearsal is the repetition of information to keep it within short-term memory for near-immediate use. Elaborative rehearsal is the association of information to other stored knowledge and is a more effective way to move information from short-term to long-term memory.

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98
Q

What is neuroplasticity and how does it change during life?

A

neuroplasticity is the ability of the brain to form new connections rapidly. The brain is most plastic in young children, and plasticity quickly drops off after childhood

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99
Q

What is the term for removing weak neural connections?

A

pruning

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100
Q

What is the term for strengthening memory connections through increased neurotransmitter release and receptor density?

A

long-term potentiation

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101
Q

What are the three steps in the information processing model?

A

encoding, storage, and retrieval

102
Q

What are the four stages and key features of Paiget’s cognitive development?

A

sensorimotor: focuses on manipulating environment for physical needs; circular reactions; ends with object permanence
preoperational: symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and centration

concrete operational: understands conversation and the feelings of others; can manipulate concrete objects logically

formal operational: can think abstractly and problem solve

103
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

the inability to consider how to use an object in a nontraditional manner

104
Q

What is belief perseverance?

A

the inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence to the contrary

105
Q

What is availability heuristics?

A

is used for making decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined

106
Q

What is representativeness heuristics?

A

is used for making decisions based on how much a particular item or situation fits a given prototype or stereotype

107
Q

For each of the sleep stages, list its EEG waveforms and main features

A

awake: beta and alpha waves; able to perceive, process, access information, and express that information verbally

stage 1: theta waves; light sleep and dozing

stage 2: theta waves; sleep spindles and K complexes

stage 3: delta waves; slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage

stage 4: delta waves; slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage

REM: mostly beta waves; appears awake physiologically; dreams; procedural memory consolidation; body is paralyzed

108
Q

Which two hormones are most associated with maintaining circadian rhythms?

A

melatonin and cortisol

109
Q

What is the difference between a dyssomnia and a parasomnia? Provide an example of each

A

dyssomnias are disorders in which the duration or timing of sleep is disturbed. Examples include insomnia, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea

parasomnias are disorders in which abnormal behaviors occur during sleep. Examples include night terrors and sleepwalking

110
Q

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase GABA activity in the brain?

A

alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines (marijuana inhibits GABA activity)

111
Q

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin activity in the brain?

A

amphetamines, cocaine, and ecstasy

112
Q

What are the three main structures in the mesolimbic reward pathway? What is this pathway’s primary neurotransmitter?

A

nucleus accumbent, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral segmental area. The neurotransmitter of this pathway is dopamine

113
Q

Compare and contrast controlled (effortful) processing and automatic processing

A

Controlled (effortful) processing is used when maintaining undivided attention on a task, and is usually used for new or complex actions.

Automatic processing is used for less critical stimuli in divided attention, and is usually used for familiar or repetitive actions

114
Q

Briefly describe the function of the “filter” used in selective attention

A

The filter in selective attention permits us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background for important information (such as our name or a significant change in the environment)

115
Q

List the expected milestones of language development at each age

A

9 to 12 months: babbling

12 to 18 months: increase of about one word per month

18 to 20 months: “explosion of language” and combining words (two-word sentences)

2 to 3 years: longer sentences of three or more words

5 years: language rules largely mastered

116
Q

For the nativist (biological) theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?

A

an innate ability to pick up language via the language acquisition device

117
Q

For the learning (behaviorist) theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?

A

operant conditioning with reinforcement by parents and caregivers

118
Q

For the social interactionist theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?

A

a desire to communicate and act socially

119
Q

Briefly describe the clinical features of Broca’s aphasia

A

Broca’s aphasia is marked by difficulty producing language, with hesitancy and great difficulty coming up with words

120
Q

Briefly describe the clinical features of Wernicke’s aphasia

A

Wernicke’s aphasia is fluent, but includes nonsensical sounds and words devoid of meaning; language comprehension is lost

121
Q

Briefly describe the clinical features of conduction aphasia

A

Conduction aphasia is marked by difficulty repeating speech, with intact speech production and comprehension

122
Q

What creates motivation in instinct theory?

A

instincts: innate, fixed patterns of behavior

123
Q

What creates motivation in arousal theory?

A

maintaining a constant level of arousal, the psychological and physiological state of being awake and reactive to stimuli

124
Q

What creates motivation in drive reduction theory?

A

drives: internal states of tension or discomfort that can be relieved with a particular action

125
Q

What creates motivation in need-based theories?

A

needs: factors necessary for physiological function or emotional fulfillment

126
Q

List Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in decreasing priority

A

physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self-actualization

127
Q

Based on opponent-process theory, what clinical features would be expected with withdrawal from cocaine use?

A

Cocaine is a stimulant, causing euphoria, restlessness, increased heart rate, increased temperature, and anxiety. According to opponent-process theory, cocaine withdrawal should be the opposite: depressed mood, fatigue, decreased heart rate, decreased temperature, and apathy

128
Q

What are the three elements of emotion? Provide a brief description of each.

A

Physiological response (autonomic nervous system): heart rate, breathing rate, skin temperature, blood pressure

Behavioral response: facial expressions, body language

Cognitive response: subjective interpretation, memories of past experiences, perception of cause of emotion

129
Q

What are the seven universal emotions?

A

happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger

130
Q

Compare and contrast the James-Lange, Cannon-Bard, and Schachter-Singer theories of emotion

A

James-Lange: stimulus leads to physiological arousal, arousal leads to the conscious experience of emotion, “my skin is hot and my blood pressure is high so I must be angry”, requires connection between sympathetic nervous system and brain

Cannon-Bard: stimulus leads to physiological arousal and feeling of emotion, thalamus processes sensory information, sends it to cortex and sympathetic nervous system, action is secondary response to stimulus, “I see a snake, so I am afraid and my heart is racing…let me get out of here!”, does not explain vagus nerve

Schachter-Singer: both arousal and labeling based on environment are required to experience an emotion, “I am excited because my heart is racing and everyone else is happy”

131
Q

What is the function of the amygdala in the limbic system?

A

involved with attention and emotions (specifically fear), helps interpret facial expressions, and is part of the intrinsic memory system for emotional memory.

132
Q

What is the function of the thalamus in the limbic system?

A

a sensory processing station

133
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus in the limbic system?

A

releases neurotransmitters that affect mood and arousal

134
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus in the limbic system?

A

creates long-term explicit memories (episodic memories)

135
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex in the limbic system?

A

involved in decision making and controlling emotional responses from the amygdala

136
Q

What are the key features of primary and secondary cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

Primary appraisal is categorizing the stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.
Secondary appraisal is the evaluation of the ability of the organism to cope with that stress

137
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? What physiological changes are evident in each stage?

A

alarm: activation of sympathetic nervous system, release of ACTH and cortisol, stimulation of adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine
resistance: continuous release of hormones activates sympathetic nervous system
exhaustion: can no longer maintain elevated sympathetic nervous system activity, more susceptible to illness and medical conditions, organ system deteriorate, death

138
Q

What are some common stressors? What are some effective techniques for managing stress?

A

Common stressors include environmental or physical discomfort, daily events, workplace or academic setting, social expectations, and chemical or biological stressors. Effective stress management techniques include exercise, relaxation techniques (meditation, diaphragmatic breathing, progressive muscle relaxation), spiritual practice, and many more

139
Q

What is the difference between self-concept and identity?

A

Self-concept describes the sum of all of the phrases that come to mind when we think of who we are, who we used to be, and who we may become in the future. Identity, on the other hand, describes a set of behaviors and labels we take on when in a specific group.

140
Q

List three factors that contribute to a person’s ethnic identity. How are these factors different from those that determine national identity?

A

Ethnic identity is determined by common ancestry, cultural heritage, and language, among other similarities. Rather than being determined by birth, national identity is determined by the political borders of where one lives and the cultural identity of that nation.

141
Q

Explain internal locus of control.

A

People with an internal locus of control view themselves as controlling their own fate

142
Q

Explain external locus of control.

A

People with an external locus of control feel that events in their lives are caused by luck or outside influences

143
Q

Freud, Erikson, and Kohlberg evaluate an individual and determines that the person has failed in completing one of the theorists developmental stages. What would each say is the most likely outcome for this person?

A

Freud would say that the individual has become fixated in that stage and will display the personality traits of that fixation for the rest of his or her life.
Erikson would say that the individual will still move through subsequent phases, but will be lacking the skills and virtues granted by successful resolution of that stage.
Kohlberg would say that the individual was incapable of reasoning at the level of failure, and that the individual would use the reasoning described in previous stages to resolve moral dilemmas.

144
Q

Name and briefly describe the three major phases of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development

A

Preconventional: Reasoning is based on individual rewards and punishments

Conventional: Reasoning is based on the relationship of the individual to society

Postconventional: Reasoning is based on abstract principles

145
Q

What is Vygotsky’s concept of zone of proximal development?

A

It refers to those skills and abilities that have not yet fully developed but are in the process of development. Gaining these skills successfully requires the help of a “more knowledgeable other,” typically an adult.

146
Q

Briefly describe how the psychoanalytic perspective would define personality.

A

Personality is the result of unconscious urges and desires

147
Q

Briefly describe how the humanistic perspective would define personality.

A

Personality comes from conscious feelings about oneself resulting from healthy striving for self-realization

148
Q

Briefly describe how the type perspective would define personality.

A

Personalities are sets of distinct qualities and dispositions into which people can be grouped

149
Q

Briefly describe how the trait perspective would define personality.

A

Personalities are assembled from having different degrees of certain qualities and dispositions

150
Q

Briefly describe how the behaviorist perspective would define personality.

A

Personality is the result of behavioral responses to stimuli based on prior rewards and punishments

151
Q

Briefly describe how the social cognitive perspective would define personality.

A

Personality comes from the interactions between an individual and his or her environment

152
Q

Briefly describe how the biological perspective would define personality.

A

Personality is based on genetic influences and brain anatomy

153
Q

What is the role of the id according to the psychoanalytic perspective?

A

The id is the sum of our basic urges to reproduce and survive

154
Q

What is the role of the ego according to the psychoanalytic perspective?

A

The ego mediates the anxieties caused by actions of the id and superego by using defense mechanisms

155
Q

What is the role of the superego according to the psychoanalytic perspective?

A

The superego is our sense of perfectionism and idealism

156
Q

What are the traits described by the Eysenck’s PEN theory, and what does each describe?

A

Psychoticism: nonconformity or social deviance

Extraversion: tolerance for social interaction and stimulation

Neuroticism: emotional arousal in stressful situations

157
Q

What are the Big Five personality traits?

A 
Openness
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
(OCEAN)
158
Q

What is the difference between the biomedical and biopsychosocial models of psychological disorders?

A

Whereas the biomedical model considers only the physical, pathological mechanisms that underlie mental illness, the biopsychosocial model considers the contributions of the biological factors along with psychology (thoughts, emotions, or behaviors) and social situation (environment, social class, discrimination, or stigmatization)

159
Q

Name three psychological disorders with greater than 2% one-year prevalence in the United States (affecting more than 1 in 50 people per year)

A

The following disorders occur in greater than 2 percent of the United States population per year: specific phobia, social anxiety disorder, major depressive disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder, bipolar disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and panic disorder.

160
Q

A schizophrenic patient is started on the atypical antipsychotic risperidone, which is effective for treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but not the negative symptoms. Which of the patient’s symptoms are likely to improve and which are not?

A

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, including delusions, hallucinations (usually auditory), disorganized thought, and disorganized behavior, are likely to improve rom treatment with an antipsychotic medication. Negative symptoms, including disturbance of affect and abolition. are largely unaffected by antipsychotic medications.

161
Q

What are the features of a major depressive episode? Of a manic episode?

A

Major depressive episodes include a two-week duration of at least five of the following symptoms: depressed mood, loss of interest (anhedonia), sleep disturbance, feelings of guilt, lack of energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, psychomotor symptoms, and suicidal thoughts (SIG E. CAPS). At least one of the symptoms must be depressed mood or anhedonia.

Manic episodes include a one-week duration of at least three of the following symptoms: elevated or expansive mood, distractibility, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, flight of ideas or racing thoughts, agitation, pressured speech, and engagement in risky behavior.

162
Q

Describe the makeup of major depressive disorder with respect to depressive episodes, manic episodes, and other mood disturbances.

A

Major depressive disorder contains at least one major depressive episode with no manic episodes.

163
Q

Describe the makeup of bipolar I disorder with respect to depressive episodes, manic episodes, and other mood disturbances.

A

Bipolar I disorder has at least one manic episode with or without depressive episodes.

164
Q

Describe the makeup of bipolar II disorder with respect to depressive episodes, manic episodes, and other mood disturbances.

A

Bipolar II disorder has at least one hypomanic episode with at least one major depressive episode.

165
Q

Describe the makeup of cyclothymic disorder with respect to depressive episodes, manic episodes, and other mood disturbances.

A

Cyclothymic disorder has hypomanic episodes and dysthymia that is not sever enough to be a major depressive episode.

166
Q

A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder believes that she must check the latch on her apartment door five times before she goes to bed. If she does not check the latch five times, she cannot sleep for fear that someone will break into her apartment. Identify her obsession, her compulsion, and how they are related in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A

Obsessions are persistent, intrusive thoughts and impulses that produce tension. In this case, the obsession is the patient’s thought that someone will break into her apartment. Compulsions are repetitive tasks that relieve tension but cause significant impairment in a person’s life. This patient’s compulsion is that she must check the latch on her apartment door five times before going to bed. Their relationship is that obsessions raise tension while compulsions relieve that tension.

167
Q

What features describe cluster A of personality disorders? Which personality disorders fall into this cluster?

A

Features: odd or eccentric

Personality disorders: paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

168
Q

What features describe cluster B of personality disorders? Which personality disorders fall into this cluster?

A

Features: dramatic, emotional, or erratic

Personality disorders: antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

169
Q

What features describe cluster C of personality disorders? Which personality disorders fall into this cluster?

A

Features: anxious or fearful

Personality disorders: avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

170
Q

Which hormone and neurotransmitter concentrations are elevated in depression? Which ones are reduced?

A

In depression, levels of cortisol are increased. Many neurotransmitter levels are reduced, including norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine.

171
Q

Provide an example of a genetic factor that appears to increase risk of Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Mutations in the presenilin genes (chromosomes 1 and 14) and beta-amyloid precursor protein gene (chromosome 21) are associated with increased risk for Alzheimer’s disease.

172
Q

How are dopamine levels related in schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopamine levels are elevated in schizophrenia and reduced in Parkinson’s disease. Thus, treatments for one disorder may cause symptoms similar to those of the other.

173
Q

Provide a brief definition for the social phenomena of social facilitation

A

Social facilitation describes the tendency of people to perform at a different level based on the fact that others are around

174
Q

Provide a brief definition for the social phenomena of deindividuation

A

Deindividuation is the idea that people will lose a sense of self-awareness and can act dramatically different because of the influence of a group

175
Q

Provide a brief definition for the social phenomena of the bystander effect

A

The bystander effect describes the observation that individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need when in a group

176
Q

Provide a brief definition for the social phenomena of social loafing

A

Social loafing refers to a decrease in effort seen when individuals are in a group

177
Q

Provide a brief definition for the social phenomena of peer pressure

A

Peer pressure refers to the social influence placed on individuals by others they consider their equals

178
Q

What are the similarities and differences between group polarization and groupthink?

A

Group polarization and groupthink are both social processes that occur when groups make decisions. Group polarization is the tendency toward extreme decisions in a group. Groupthink is the tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas, given the pressure to conform and remain loyal to the group.

179
Q

What are the differences between assimilation and multiculturalism?

A

Societies that contain multiple cultures can exhibit multiculturalism or assimilation. Assimilation is the process by which multiple cultures begin to merge into one, typically with an unequal blending of ideas and beliefs. Multiculturalism refers to the idea that multiple cultures should be encouraged and respected without one culture becoming dominant overall.

180
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary socialization?

A

Primary socialization refers to the initial learning of acceptable behaviors and societal norms during childhood, which is facilitated mostly by parents and other trusted adults. Secondary socialization refers to learning the norms of specific subgroups or situations during adolescence and adulthood

181
Q

What is conformity?

A

Conformity is changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

182
Q

What is compliance?

A

Compliance occurs when individuals change their behavior based on the request of others who do not wield authority over the individual

183
Q

What is obedience?

A

Obedience is a change in behavior because of a request from an authority figure

184
Q

Provide a brief description of the foot-in-the-door technique.

A

The foot-in-the-door technique refers to asking for favors that increase in size with each subsequent request.

185
Q

Provide a brief description of the door-in-the-face technique

A

The door-in-the-face technique refers to making a large request and then, if refused, making a smaller request.

186
Q

Provide a brief description of the lowball technique

A

The lowball technique refers to gaining compliance without revealing the full cost (money, effort, or time) of the favor.

187
Q

Provide a brief description of the that’s-not-all technique

A

The that’s-not-all technique refers to increasing the reward for a request before an individual has the chance to make a decision.

188
Q

What are the three components of attitude?

A

The three components of attitude are affective, behavioral, and cognitive (ABC)

189
Q

What are the four functional areas of the functional attitudes theory?

A

The four functional areas of the functional attitudes theory are knowledge, ego expression, adaptation, and ego defense

190
Q

What are the routes of processing used to explain the elaboration likelihood model? Which is associated with high elaboration?

A

The routes of processing used to explain the elaboration likelihood model are central route processing and peripheral route processing. Central rout processing is associated with high elaboration

191
Q

What are the three interactive factors of Bandura’s triadic reciprocal causation?

A

The three interactive factors of Bandura’s triadic reciprocal causation are behavior, personal factors, and environment.

192
Q

List the three types of statuses and provide an example of each

A

ascribed: any status given involuntarily, due to factors such as race, ethnicity, gender, and family background
achieved: any statues that is gained as a result of one’s efforts or choices
master: any status by which a person would be most readily identified and that pervades all aspects of an individual’s life

193
Q

Provide a brief definition for status

A

Statuses are positions in society used to classify individuals

194
Q

Provide a brief definition for role

A

Roles are the behaviors and expectations associated with a status in a particular context

195
Q

Provide a brief definition for group

A

A group is a collection of at least two individuals

196
Q

Provide a brief definition for network

A

A network is a more formal illustration of the relationships between individuals, usually through graphic representation

197
Q

Provide a brief definition for organization

A

An organization is a body with a specific set of goals, a structure, and a culture; organizations are complex secondary groups that are set up to achieve specific goals

198
Q

Is American Sign Language a verbal or nonverbal form of communication?

A

verbal

199
Q

Is turning your body away from another person a verbal or nonverbal form of communication?

A

nonverbal (body language)

200
Q

Are text messages a verbal or nonverbal form of communication?

A

verbal

201
Q

Is giving a “high five” a verbal or nonverbal form of communication?

A

nonverbal (gesture)

202
Q

Is frowning a verbal or nonverbal form of communication?

A

nonverbal (facial expression)

203
Q

What is the front stage self? The back stage self?

A

The front stage self refers to when we are on stage and performing. This requires us to live up to the roles and expectations assumed by our status.

The back stage self is when we are away from others and may include behaviors that would not be appropriate or consistent with the from stage self.

204
Q

Provide an example of body language

A

dogs: tail between legs

205
Q

Provide an example of facial expressions

A

various animals: baring teeth

206
Q

Provide an example of visual displays

A

peacocks: colorful plumage

207
Q

Provide an example of scents

A

insects (and others): pheromones

208
Q

Provide an example of vocalizations

A

birds: birdcalls

209
Q

What is interpersonal attraction, and what are three factors that influence this attraction?

A

Interpersonal attraction is what makes people like each other and is influenced by at least five factors discussed in the chapter: physical attractiveness, similarity, self-disclosure, reciprocity, and proximity

210
Q

For a behavior to be considered aggressive, is it necessary to have the intent to do harm? Does the behavior have to be physical in nature?

A

No, in addition to behavior with the intent to cause harm, aggression can also be a behavior that increases relative social dominance. Aggression can be physical, verbal, or nonverbal.

211
Q

What are the four types of attachment? How does a child with each form of attachment act with regard to his or her caregiver?

A

Secure attachment: upset at departure of caregiver, comforted by return; trusts caregiver, who is viewed as a secure base

Avoidant attachment: shows no preference for a stranger or caregiver; shows little distress at departure and little relief by return of caregiver

Ambivalent attachment: distressed by departure of caregiver with mixed reactions at return

Disorganized attachment: no clear pattern of behavior; sometimes exhibits repetitive behaviors or seems dazed, frozen, or confused

212
Q

What is social support? List three of the common types of social support.

A

Social support is the perception or reality that one is cared for by a social network. There are fives types discussed in this chapter: emotional support, esteem support, material support, informational support, and network support

213
Q

What is altruism?

A

Altruism is a form of helping behavior in which the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him or herself.

214
Q

Provide a brief description of the primacy effect

A

The primacy effect is the power of first impressions over later impressions of an individual

215
Q

Provide a brief description of the recency effect

A

The recency effect is weighing the most recent information of a person as the most important

216
Q

Provide a brief description of the halo effect

A

The halo effect occurs when one applies general feelings about a person (usually “good” or “bad”) to specific characteristics of that person.

217
Q

Provide a brief description of the just-world hypothesis

A

The just-world hypothesis is the belief that good things happed to good people and bad things happen to bad people

218
Q

Provide a brief description of the self-serving bias

A

Self-serving bias is the tendency to attribute our successes to internal factors and our failures to external factors

219
Q

What is attribution theory? What are the two types of attribution?

A

Attribution theory focuses on the tendency of individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior. Attributions are divided into two types: dispositional (internal) causes, which relate to the features of the target, and situational (external) causes, which relate to features of the surroundings or context

220
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error?

A

Fundamental attribution error is the general bias toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions about the behavior of others, especially in negative contexts.

221
Q

What is attribute substitution?

A

Attribute substitution occurs when individuals must make judgments that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic.

222
Q

What are the distinctions between stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination?

A

Stereotypes occur when attitudes and impressions are made based on limited and superficial information about a person or a group of individuals and are cognitive

Prejudice is defined as an irrational negative, or occasionally positive, attitude toward a person, group, or thing, which is formed prior to an actual experience and is affective

Discrimination is when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently than others and is behavioral

223
Q

List three types of social inequality that can influence prejudice

A

Power, prestige, and class all influence prejudice through unequal distribution of wealth, influence, and resources.

224
Q

What is the difference between ethnocentrism and cultural relativism?

A

Ethnocentrism refers to the practice of making judgments about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture. Cultural relativism refers to the recognition that social groups and cultures must be studied on their own terms. In both cases, an individual perceives another group to which he or she does not belong; however, it is the reaction to that other group that determines which paradigm is being used

225
Q

What are manifest and latent functions?

A

Manifest functions are actions that are intended to help some part of a system

Latent functions are unintended, unstated, or unrecognized positive consequences of these actions on society

226
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of functionalism?

A

Each part of society serves a function; when these functions work together correctly, society overall can function normally

227
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of conflict theory?

A

Power differentials are created when groups compete for economic, social, and political resources; these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order

228
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of symbolic interactionism?

A

Humans communicate through words, gestures, and other symbols to which we attach meaning

229
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of social constructionism?

A

Individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality

230
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of rational choice-exchange theory?

A

Individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm

231
Q

What is the primary thesis or idea of feminist theory?

A

Explores the ways in which one gender can be subordinated, minimized, or devalued compared to the other

232
Q

What are the four key tenets of American medical ethics? Provide a short description of each.

A

Beneficence: act in the patient’s best interest

Nonmaleficence: do no harm; acid interventions where the potential for harm outweighs the potential for benefit

Respect for autonomy: respect patient’s decisions and choices about their own healthcare

Justice: treat similar patients with similar care; distribute healthcare resources fairly

233
Q

What are material and symbolic culture?

A

Material culture focuses on the artifacts associated with a group: the physical objects, such as artwork, emblems, clothing, jewelry, foods, buildings, and tools

Symbolic culture focuses on the ideas and principles that belong to a particular group

234
Q

What is the difference between a value and a belief?

A

A value is what a person deems to be important; a belief is what a person deems to be true. While these terms are often used interchangeably in everyday life, they have specific definitions in the social sciences

235
Q

What is the difference between race and ethnicity?

A

Race is based on phenotypic differences between groups of people. Ethnicity is based on common language, religion, nationality, or other cultural factors.

236
Q

What is symbolic ethnicity?

A

Symbolic ethnicity is recognition of an ethnic identity on special occasions or in specific circumstances, but not during everyday life

237
Q

Define fertility rate

A

Fertility rate is the average number of children a woman has during her lifetime in a population

238
Q

Define birth rate

A

Birth rate is the number of births in a population per unit time, usually measure as births per 1000 people per year.

239
Q

Define mortality rate

A

Mortality rate is the number of deaths in a population per unit time, usually measured as deaths per 1000 people per year

240
Q

During demographic transition, what happens to the mortality rate? To the birth rate?

A

During demographic transition, both the mortality and birth rate decrease

241
Q

What are the two types of social movements? How do they differ?

A

Proactive social movements are in favor of a specific social change

Reactive social movements run against a specific social change

242
Q

How is socioeconomic status (SES) determined?

A

SES is determined by two factors: it can be ascribed according to physical or external characteristics such as age, gender, or skin color, or acquired through direct efforts such as hard work or merit.

243
Q

How does social capital affect social cohesion?

A

The less social capital a person has (reduced network equality and equality of opportunity), the more social inequality. This, in turn, decreases social cohesion.

244
Q

What are some groups that suffer disproportionate social inequality?

A

Social inequality is highest among racial and ethnic minorities (especially African Americans and Hispanics), female-headed families, and the elderly. It is also most prevalent among those living in poverty.

245
Q

What is the relationship between merit and social mobility?

A

Social mobility can be dependent of intellectual talent and achievement (meritocratic competition) but can also be obstructed by concentrated power as well as discrimination based on ethnicity, gender, age, or other identifiable characteristics.

246
Q

With regard to health, which groups are most often affected by environmental hazards?

A

Environmental hazards tend to be located in low-income areas with a higher population of racial and ethnic minorities. Poor living conditions can result in increased illness and disease among these groups of people

247
Q

What is Waitzkin’s second sickness?

A

The second sickness refers to the fact that health outcomes are exacerbated by social inequalities and social injustice. As a result, higher-income groups have longer life expectancies than lower-income groups

248
Q

What is the relationship between class, ethnicity, and health?

A

Low-income racial and ethnic minorities have higher morbidity rates and overall worse health compared to the middle and upper classes. The lower class also has higher infant mortality rates, homicide rates, and suicide rates in comparison to wealthier classes.

249
Q

Why are women more likely to have better health profiles than men?

A

Women typically have longer life expectancies and an overall better health profile in comparison to men. This can be attributed to both biological and sociological causes: women are less likely to have life-threatening conditions, although they do have higher morbidity rates. Women are also more likely to seek care and utilize healthcare services than men

250
Q

What are some of the factors that contribute to healthcare disparities between classes?

A

Low-income groups have less access to healthcare services and often experience lower quality healthcare. Poor Americans are less likely to be insured and consequently are less likely to seek medical attention until conditions have become extremely serious, thereby limiting available interventions. As a result, morbidity and mortality rates are highest among low-income groups

MCAT (9 decks)

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