BCN Back of book questions Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the anteroposterior subdivisions of the hypothalmus? Ch 18

A

Chiasmic
Tuberal
Mamillary

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2
Q

What is the chief Neural output of the hypothalmus? Ch 18

A

Anterior thalamic nucleus –> medial dorsal thalamic nucleus –> brainstem and spinal motor and autonomic centers

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3
Q

What is the hypophysial portal system? Ch 18

A

Vascular connection between tuberal region and anterior pituitary.

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4
Q

Which part of the hypothalmus is associated with temperature regulation? Ch 18

A

Heat loss Anterior

Heat conservation Posterior

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5
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with parasympatheminmetic activity? Ch 18

A

Anterior

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6
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with sympathomimetic activity? Ch 18

A

Posterior

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7
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with hypothalamic regulatory hormones? Ch 18

A

Tuberal part

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8
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with water balance? Ch 18

A

Anterior

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9
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with Sleep-wake cycle? Ch 18

A

Anterior

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10
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is associated with emotions? Ch 18

A

Tuberal and posterior

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11
Q

What are the chief differences between the somatic and autonomic efferent systems? Ch 19

A

Somatic - voluntary control, consists of alpha motor neurons and axons (directly innervates skeletal muscle)
Autonomic - involuntary, has preganglionic neuron, located in brainstem or spinal cord, and has postganglionic neuron, located in autonomic ganglion. Innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or glandular tissue

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12
Q

Describe the origin of the sacral parasympathetic system? Ch 19

A

Arise from neurons in and near intermediolateral nucleus of

S2, S3, S4

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13
Q

Describe the origin of the cranial parasympathetic system? Ch 19

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus axons travel to oculomotor
Superior Salivatory nucleus axons travel to facial
Inferior Salivatory nucleus axons travel to glossopharyngeal
Dorsal Vagal nucleus axons travel to vagus nerve

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14
Q

Describe the origin of pregaglionic sympathetic fibers. Ch 19

A

Arise from sympathetic nucleus
Extends from C7 or C8 to L2 or L3
Comprises intermediolateral part of the lateral horn

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15
Q

Which cranial nerves contain autonomic afferent fibers, and describe their connections? Ch 19

A

CN IX - Go to oral cavity, pharynx, and carotid body and sinus
CN X - Go to thoracic and abdominal viscera

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16
Q

What are the exceptions to the general rule of visceral pain fibers from the thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic viscera coming from T1-T2 spinal nerves? Ch 19

A

The sigmoid colon, rectum, neck of bladder, prostate gland, and cervix of uterus
These come from S2, S3, and S4 spinal nerves

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17
Q

Contrast the effects of stimulation of parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves on the heart, urinary bladder, and sex organs? Ch 19

A

Parasympathetic
Decrease HR, emptying of urinary bladder, and erection
Sympathetic
Increase HR, relaxation of bladder, ejaculation

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18
Q

A young man seriously injured in a MVA is quadriplegic and incontinent. Urination occurs in this patient in an automatic and abrupt manner, but bladder emptying is incomplete. Where is the lesion? Ch 19

A

Above the lumbar enlargement

19
Q

Another patient has bladder dysfunction of a different type. This patient was injured while diving into a shallow pool of water, sustaining a low back injury. In addition to motor and sensory losses, the patient is incontinent and urine is expelled only when a catheter is inserted into the bladder. Sensations are normal on the anterior surface of the thigh, leg, and foot, but absent on most of the posterior thigh, leg and foot. the urinary incontinence is the result of? Ch 19-11

A

Spinal cord injury to sacral cord

20
Q

A 63 y/o male was initially admitted to the neurology service because the patient complained of slightly drooping eyelid and a small pupil on the right side (Horners Syndrome). The patient also had a persistent cough, and the history revealed that the patient was a long-term smoker. Physical exam revealed asymmetric sweating on the face with anhidrosis on the right side. Sensory and motor responses were normal. The patient was in the process of being transferred to the oncology service. What caused the anhidrosis, partial ptosis, and miosis? Ch 19-12

A

A lesion of the cervical sympathetic trunk

21
Q

Chronic vagal nerve stimulation reportedly modulates seizure activity and mood disorders. Chronic vagal nerve stimulation would also be expected to increase? Ch 19-13

A

Decrease HR
Decrease RR
Increase Gastric secretions**
Decrease libido

22
Q

A 32 y/o male has paralysis of facial movements on the entire right side of the face. The onset of the deficits was sudden and occurred overnight. In addition to being unable to elevate the ipsilateral corner of the mouth, the patient would also have? Ch 19-14

A

Dry mouth
(decreased nasal and lacrimal secretion)
(abnormal everything else on there except chewing movements, that is trigeminal nerve so would be normal)

23
Q

Alterations in which basal forebrain nucleus are associated with decreased cerebral cortical cholinergic activity in Alzheimers disease? Ch 20-3

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert

24
Q

The pleasure induced by psychostimulants such as amphetamine or cocaine is associated with increased activity of what neurotransmitter in which limbic system center? Ch 20-4

A

Accumbens nucleus,
Receives strong dopaminergic projection from the ventral tegmental area of midbrain
Increases dopamine activity

25
Q

Bilateral lesions at which central nervous system levels result in respiratory arrest? 20-5

A

Medulla between obex and C3 spinal cord segment

26
Q

Which parts of the hypothalamus are associated with sleep and arousal? 20-6

A
Anterior = Sleep (impaired = insomnia)
Posterior = arousal (impaired = hypersomnia)
27
Q

Which part of the brain is chiefly associated with REM sleep? 20-7

A

Neurons located in the dorsolateral pontine reticular formation near locus ceruleus

28
Q

A head trauma patient with CN III signs who now has become semicomatose may be suffering from damage to which part of the CNS? 20-8

A

Paramedian midbrain reticular formation

29
Q

After being involved in a serious MVA and sustaining a server concussion, a 33 y/o male is in the ICU in a comatose state. The patient’s breathing pattern consists of regularly alternating hyperpnea and apnea. This respiration pattern indicates dysfunction at the level of? 20-9

A

diencephalon

30
Q

Look up question for 20-10, 20-11, 20-12, 20-13, 20-14

A
20-10 = Uncal herniation
20-11 = damage to right oculomotor nerve
20-12 = A and B (pyramidal and rubrospinal system)
20-13 = Ascending reticular activating system (ARAS)
20-14 = central neurogenic hyperventilation (decerberate posture leads us to midbrain lesion)
31
Q

The central nervous system develops from what layer of gastrula? 24-1

A

Ectoderm along midline of gastrula

32
Q

Which develops from the neural crest? 24-2

A

Gives rise to

1: neurons in cranial sensory, spinal sensory and autonomic ganglia
2. supporting cells in ganglia and peripheral nerves
3. meniges surrounding the brain and spinal cord

33
Q

What developmental defect results in anecephaly? 24-3

A

Brain is exposed

34
Q

What is the importance of the notochord in the development of the CNS? 24-4

A

Includes by diffusible trophic signals the formation of the neural plate, neural folds, neural tube

35
Q

What specialized glia are critically important for guiding migratory neurons? 24-5

A

Radial glia

36
Q

What is the name of the condition in which cortical gyri fail to develop? 24-8

A

Lissencephaly

37
Q

Upon delivery, a newborn presents with a birth defect of the lower back. It revealed a saclike protrusion containing fluid and tissue. What’s the condition? 24-9

A

Meningomyelocele

38
Q

How can spina bifida be prevented? 24-10

A

Folic acid

39
Q

A baby is born alive but dies shortly after. There is no scalp and neural tissue can be seen. What is the defect? 24-11

A

Anencephaly

40
Q

A child is born without complications. However, delays in appearance of developmental behavioral landmarks and seizures start. MRI reveals smooth surface of brain. The lack of gyri and sulci leads to diagnosis of lissencephaly. What causes this? 24-12

A

Delayed neurogenesis of cortical neurons

41
Q

What are the hallmark neurophathological changes seen in the postmortem brains of Alzheimer disease patients? 25-1

A

Neurofibrillary Tangles

Amyloid plaques

42
Q

What is the most common cause of senile dementia? 25-2

A

Alzheimers

43
Q

MRI of the brain of a patient with atrophy of the brain would reveal what neuropathalogic changes? 25-3

A

Wide sulci

Narrow gyri

44
Q

Where do most neuropathologic changes occur in the aging cerebral cortex? 25-4

A

Prefrontal, Posterior parietal, and temporal lobe