Basic Psychology Flashcards
1
Q
Definition of Non-associative learning
A
Simple form of learning where only a single event is used
2
Q
Types of non-associative learning
A
Habituation
Sensitization
Pseudo-conditioning
3
Q
What is habituation?
A
Repeated stimulation leads to reduction in response over time
4
Q
What is sensitization?
A
Increase in response to stimulus due to repeated presentations of that stimulus
5
Q
What is pseudoconditiong/cross-sensitization?
A
Emergence of a response to a previously neutral stimulus due to exposure to a different but more powerful stimulus
6
Q
What type of learning is cross-sensitization?
A
Non-associative learning
7
Q
What is associative learning?
A
Learning through the association of two events
8
Q
Types of associative learning
A
Classic conditioning
Operant conditioning
Social learning theory
9
Q
What is classical conditioning?
A
Learning through repeated pairing of a neutral conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus which evokes an unconditioned response. Eventually, the neutral stimulus will evoke the desired response; the conditioned response.
10
Q
What is operant conditioning?
A
Learning from the consequence of ones actions.
11
Q
In which type of associative learning is the organism instrumental?
A
Operant conditioning
Social learning theory
12
Q
What is social learning theory?
A
Combination of classic and operant conditioning, as well as cognitive processes and social interactions
13
Q
What is the conditioned response in classical conditioning?
A
The desired response once it is evoked by the neutral stimulus.
14
Q
What is the name of the association between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned response?
A
Acquisition
15
Q
What is acquisition in classical conditioning?
A
The association between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned response.
16
Q
What is trace conditioning?
A
When the conditioned stimulus is presented and removed before the unconditioned stimulus is presented.
17
Q
What is the optimum delay for trace conditioning?
A
0.5ms
18
Q
What is temporal contiguity in classical conditioning?
A
The time between stimulus and response.
19
Q
What is counter conditioning?
A
When a previously conditioned response is replaced by a new, more desirable response.
20
Q
What is latent inhibition in classical conditioning?
A
Where there is a delay in learning the association between the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus due to previous exposure of an isolated presentation of the conditioned stimulus
21
Q
What is Premack’s principle?
A
That high-frequency behaviour can be used to reinforce low-frequency behaviour.
22
Q
What is aversive conditioning?
A
Where punishment is used to reduce the frequency of target behaviour
23
Q
What type of conditioning is this:
The use of disulfram to reduce alcohol intake
A
Operant conditioning
Punishment
Aversive conditioning
24
Q
What is covert reinforcement?
A
Using an imagined positive event to reinforce behaviour.
25
What is covert sensitization?
Using an imagined negative event to reduce the frequency of undesired behaviour.
26
What is reciprocal inhibition?
When a stimulus with a desired response and a stimulus with an undesired response are presented together repeatedly, this results in a reduction in the frequency of the undesired response.
27
What is Bandura's social learning theory?
That people can learn behaviour by observing others behaviours and their outcomes.
28
What are the cognitive processes during social learning?
1. Attention to observed behaviour
2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory
3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal
4. Motor copying of behaviour and imitative reproduction
5. Motivation to act
29
What is Gagne's hierarchy of learning?
1. Classical conditioning
2. Operant conditioning
3. Chaining
4. Verbal association
5. Discrimination learning
6. Concept learning
7. Rule learning
8. Problem learning
30
What does Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation include?
```
Proximity
Closure
Continuity
Similarity
Common fate
```
31
What does proximity mean in Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation?
Objects close to each other are perceived as one
32
What does closure mean in Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation?
Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed
33
What does continuity mean in Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation?
Continuous items are perceived as one
34
What does similarity mean in Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation?
Similar items are grouped together based on shape, colour etc.
35
What does common fate mean in Gestalt's law of perceptual organisation?
Things moving together are perceived as one
36
What type of cues does depth perception depend upon?
Pictorial
| Non-pictorial
37
What are non-pictorial cues for depth perception?
Retinal image disparity
Stereopsis
Accommodation (monocular)
Convergence
38
What are pictorial cues for depth perception?
```
Size
Brightness
Superimposition
Texture
Linear perspective
Aerial perspective
Motion parallax
```
39
What is autokiniesis?
The phenomenon that if light is shown from a small, dim and fixed light source for an extended period of time in a dark room it will appear as if the light is moving.
40
What is the phi phenomenon?
When a false perception of motion is produced by a succession of still images shown with fixed time interval rapidly.
41
What type of theory is Gestalt's theory?
Bottom-up theory
42
What do bottom-up theories in visual & auditory perception suggest?
That perception is purely data driven and directly starts with the optic array. Piercing together of basic elements of this data leads to more complex systems.
43
What does a top-down theory suggest?
That retinal images cannot explain complex and fully formed perceptions, and that perception is defined as a process of using information known already to formulate/test a hypothesis.
44
What is a perceptual set?
The readiness to perceive selected features as an object (related to motivation, hunger, emotion etc)
45
Define an illusion
When a physical object is perceived but appears different from what it really is
46
Define a hallucination
When an object is perceived in the absence of any corresponding object in the real world.
47
List some learnt visual processes
Size constancy
Shape constancy
Depth perception
Shape discrimination
48
List some innate visual processes
Visual scanning
Tracking
Fixating
Figure-ground discrimination
49
By what age is 6:6 acuity achieved?
6 months
50
By what age is accommodation and colour vision achieved?
4 months
51
By what age is depth perception achieved?
2-4 months
52
What is capacity/divided attention?
The upper limit of the amount of processing that can be performed on incoming information at any on time.
53
What is dichotic listening?
Feeding one message into the left ear and another into the right, and asking the person to repeat only one of the messages.
54
What does Broadbent's early selection filter theory suggest?
1. Our ability to process information is capacity limited
2. A temporary buffer system receives all information and passes it to a selective filter.
3. Selection is based on physical characteristics of information - one source is selected and others are rejected.
4. Processing two different pieces of information will take longer and will be less efficient.
55
What does Triesman's attenuation theory suggest?
That physical characteristics and semantic relevance and used to select one message for full processing while others are given partial processing.
56
What does Deutsch-Norman late selection filter model/pertinence model suggest?
That filtering only occurs once all inputs are analysed at a higher level.
57
What is pigeon-holding?
When filtering is done based on categorization rather than physical characteristics.
58
What is open loop control?
Process that is controlled by automatic motor processes.
59
What is closed loop control?
Learning a task under conscious attention.
60
What is the highest level of attention?
Divided attention
61
What is divided attention?
The ability to respond simultaneously to multiple tasks.
62
How long does iconic/visual memory last?
0.5 seconds
63
How long does echoic/auditory memory last?
2 seconds
64
What is the capacity of short-term memory?
7+/-2 items
65
How long does short-term memory last, unaided?
15-30 seconds
66
How is information lost from short-term memory?
Displacement
| Decay
67
How do items move from short-term to long-term memory?
Elaborative encoding
| Rehearsal
68
What is the main type of coding in short-term memory?
Visual
| Acoustic
69
What is the main type of memory in long-term memory?
Semantic
70
What is elaborative rehearsal?
Where encoding is semantically elaborated or changed
71
How can rehearsal be processed?
Shallow (surface features only)
Phonemic (sound is rehearsed)
Semantic (meaning is processed)
72
What is remote memory?
Events in distant past (weeks to years)
73
What is Tulving's multistore model?
Long-term memory is divided into declarative (explicit - semantic and episodic) and non-declarative memory.
74
What is implicit memory?
Procedural memory such as classical conditioning and non-associative learning
75
What is episodic memory?
Autobiographical, spatio-temporal
76
What is semantic memory?
Factual knowledge of the world.
77
Who proposed the working memory model?
Baddley & Hitch
78
What are the components of the working memory model?
One central executive and two arms - the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad.
One episodic buffer
79
What is the phonological loop in the working memory model?
It consists of auditory rehearsal loops
80
What does the visuospatial sketchpad in the working memory model consist of?
Pattern recognition and movement perception components.
81
What is the episodic buffer in the working memory model?
This integrates information from slave systems into long-term memory - important for chunking.
82
What is the serial position effect?
When recalling a list of words, the first word (due to LTM) and the last word (due to STM) will be remembered better.
83
In what type of amnesia are the last words recalled better than the first in a list?
Organic anterograde amnesia
84
What is the problem in organic anterograde amnesia?
Difficulty in transferring information from STM to LTM, and retrieval from LTM
85
What is reconstruction?
Recollection of past experiences based on certain cues
86
What is the decay theory?
That neural engrams breakdown with time, thereby disuse with time causes forgetting.
87
What is retrieval failure?
When we forget things due to lack of proper cues.
88
What is retroactive interference?
When newly learnt material interferes with old material leading to forgetting
89
What is the encoding specificity principle?
The more similar the retrieval situation is to the encoding situation, the better the retrieval.
90
Define amnesia
Marked impairment in episodic memory.
91
Define anterograde amnesia
Loss of the ability to form or retain new episodic memories after injury/event/lesion
92
What type of amnesia would hippocampal damage lead to?
Anterograde amnesia
93
Define retrograde amnesia
Loss of episodic memories that were stored before damage had occred.
94
What causes transient global amnesia?
Transient cerebral ischaemia which results in temporary lack of blood supply to regions of the brain concerned with memory functions.
95
Symptoms of transient global amnesia
Sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia
| Retrograde amnesia for preceding days or weeks
96
What is fugue?
Sudden loss of all autobiographical memories and period of wandering, with amnesic gap on recovery.
97
Type of memory loss in Korsakoff's syndrome
Retrograde: autobiographical (sparing of distant memories)
| Anterograde
98
Which types of memories are kept intact in Korsakoffs?
Working memory
| Procedural memory
99
Define post-traumatic amnesia
The time between injury and recovery of normal continuous memory
100
Give an example of a test for anterograde memory
Three words learning task - apple, table, penny
101
What is the Rey-osterrieth complex figure test?
Non-verbal memory test:
participant is asked to copy a complex geometric figure and to redraw it from memory after 30 minutes.
102
Average age of earliest retrieved memory?
3.5 years
103
What is the mood-congruent effect?
The ability to more easily recall information if it is congruent with ones current mood.
104
What is it called when one is able to retrieve information easier if the emotional state at the time is the same as the state at the time of encoding?
Mood-state dependent retrieval
105
What is a schema?
Organized set of facts, to help elaborate and reconstruct memory at test.
106
What is inference?
When known, easily accessible information is used to piece together retrieval information, resulting in biased recall.
107
Which areas of the brain mediate STM?
Pre-frontal lobes
108
Which area of the brain mediates the phonological STM?
Left hemisphere regions of Broca's area and prefrontal cortex
109
Which area of the brain mediates the visuospatial STM?
Parietal and prefrontal areas of the right hemisphere
110
Which areas of the brain mediate the LTM?
Limbic system - hippocampus and entorhinal cortex of the medial temporal lobe
111
What is Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?
That the grammatical structure of ones mother tongue influences how we perceive the world (e.g. a language that does not have a word for a specific colour means that colour is less likely to be remembered)
112
What is the behavioural economics theory of language?
People are more likely to believe events that are verbally described more vividely
113
What is the prospect theory in language?
That people make different economic choices based on how something is gramed.
114
What is the cognitive distortions theory in language?
That challenging our internal dialogue can change our cognitive distortions.
115
What is the neuro-linguistics programming theory of language?
That language patterns can affect behaviour
116
What is a constituent of thought called?
Concept
117
What is the protype theory of language?
That we can conceptualize that something will fall under a concept if sufficient number of constituent features are recognised.
118
What is deductive reasoning?
Starting with a theory from which a hypothesis is formed, leading to a collection of observations to confirm or dispute this hypothesis.
119
What is inductive reasoning?
Starting with observations and formulating a hypothesis which is then explored to form a theory.
120
In which type of reasoning do we start with a theory?
Deductive
121
What types of problem-solving are there?
Algorithmic
| Heuristic
122
What is the algorithmic method os problem-solving?
Step-by-step search which guarantees solutions but is time-consuming
123
What is the heuristic method of problem-solving?
Using rule of thumb; more likely solutions are trialled. Therefore this solution is not guaranteed but is quicker.
124
What is availability heuristics?
Decision based on readily available information without systematic search
125
What is representativeness bias?
Fitting a problem into a well-known category to solve it in a similar fashion
126
What is the gambler's fallacy?
The thought that an outcome is due as it hasn't happened for some time.
127
What is the base rate fallacy?
When one ignores the relative frequency of occurrence of events but sticks to stereotypes.
128
What is the sunk cost bias/entrapment?
The belief that one has no choice but to continue with a decision as withdrawl would not justify the cost incurred.
129
What is the nomoethic theory of personality?
That traits are shared and comparable
130
What is the name of the theory that describes personality as unique to individuals and therefore not comparable?
Idiographic
131
What is the dispositional theory of personality?
That personality is enduring and consistent
132
Define a personality trait
Enduring disposition viewed as a continuous dimension
133
Name the three types of personality traits
Cardinal (influential, core)
Central (5-10, less general)
Secondary (least important, least consistent -only close friends notice)
134
Which personality theory refers to personality traits?
Allport's theory
135
What does Cattell's approach divide personality into?
Surface traits; correlated to each other but not important in understanding personality
Source traits: basic building blocks of 16 dimensions of personality
136
Who believed that there is a difference (categorical) between normal and abnormal personality?
Catell
137
What did Eysenck's approach to personality suggest?
Three dimensions:
| Neuroticism, psychoticism and extraversion.
138
Which part of the body is neuroticism supposedly related to?
Sympathetic system reactivity
139
What type of arousal state do extraverts have?
Low
140
Are intraverts easily conditionable?
Yes
141
Who believed in the dimensional view of personality?
Eyseneck
142
What are the four temperamental dimensions of personality according to Cloninger?
Novelty-seeking
Harm-avoidance
Reward-dependence
Persistence
143
What are the character dimensions of Cloninger's theory of personality?
Self-directedness
Cooperativeness
Self-transcendence
144
Which personality theory is a single trait theory?
Rotter's - internal and external loci are used to measure personality attributes
145
What are the five personality traits?
```
Openness
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeablness
Neuroticism
```
146
Which personality traits increase with age?
Agreeableness
| Conscientiousness
147
Who believed that personality could only be understood through ones interpersonal relationships?
Kelly's personal construct theory
148
Which model of personality views personality as dynamic?
Humanistic/phenenological
149
What does the interactionism theory suggest?
Personality and environment interact with each other to form the observed behaviour
150
What is typology in personality theory?
That body shape describes associated personality types
151
What are the three body types in Typology according to Kretschmer?
Asthenic - thin, aloof
Pyknic - plump, childish
Athletic - well-built, steady temperament
152
Which Typology body type is linked to schizoprhrenia according to Kretschmer?
Asthenic
153
What are the three body types according to Sheldon?
Endomorphic - plump
Mesopmorphic - strong
Ectomorphic - tall, thing
154
Which body type is associated with schizophrenia according to Sheldon?
Ectomorphic
155
Which body type is associated with assertiveness according to Sheldon?
Mesomorphic
156
Who introduced Type A/Type B personality?
Friedman & Rosenman
157
What is a projective test in personality?
Individually administered to obtain information about emotional functioning.
158
What is the principle underlying projective tests in personality?
That an unstructured and open-ended situation will stimulate projection of a persons emotional internal world onto the environment.
159
Name examples of projective tests re personality
Thematic Apperception test (Murray)
Draw-a-person test
Sentence completion tests
160
Most commonly used Projective test
Rorsarch
161
E.g. of a Rosarsch test re projective test
Association inducing; verbalizing response pertaining to a stimuli
162
What are the scales in the Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory?
```
Hypochonriasis
Depression
Hysteria
Psychopathic deviance
Masculinity-femininity
Paranoia
Psychasthenia
Schizophrenia
Hyponamia
Social introversion
```
163
Which personality test allows the individual to sort cards with descriptive statements about themselves into 'self' and 'ideal'?
Q-sort technique
164
What is the International Personality Disorder Examination?
77 self-reported questions
| Semi-structured
165
What type of diagnoses does the International Personality Disorder Examination allow?
>5 years of age
Definite, probable or negative diagnosis
Allows past personality disorder in past 12 months
Allows late onset diagnosis if criteria met after 25 years of age
166
What are D motives according to Maslow?
Deficiency needs
167
What is at the top of Maslows pyramid of needs?
Self-Actualization
168
What is the aim of the drive in drive-reduction theory re motivation?
Homeostasis
169
What are secondary drives in drive-reduction theory?
Psychological and learned from primary drives
170
What is Yerkes-Dodson Law?
Motivation: Optimum arousal (moderate) is needed for best performance
171
What is the strongest type of curiosity?
Optimal discrepancy - when information appears different from what we know but is not so dissimilar to be strange/irrelevant
172
what are the emotions that Ekman identified?
```
Surprise
Fear
Sadness
Anger
Happiness
Disgust
```
173
What are the three components of an emotion?
Subjective 'cortical' experience
Physiological 'visceral' changes
Associated behavioural 'skeletal' changes
174
What does the James-Lange theory of emotions suggest?
Perception of stimulus leads fo skeletal and visceral change.
Peripheral response sends feedback to thalamus to cortex leading to perception of emotion.
175
Which emotions are associated with the drop in temperature?
Fear
| Disgust
176
Which emotion produces the greatest increase in heart rate?
Sadness
177
What is Cannon-Bard's theory on emotions?
Once an emotion is perceived, the thalamus coordinates signals to the cortex leading to a conscious experience and sends signals to the hypothalamus leading to physiological changes.
178
What is Schachter-Singer labelling theory re emotion?
When an emotion is perceived, both physiological and conscious changes take place. This is then interpreted as either positive or negative and labelled according to situational cues.
179
What is the jukebox/two-factor theory re emotion?
Schachter-Singer labelling theory
180
What happens if there is no appropriate label in the jukebox theory?
By default, negative appreciation of arousal occurs
181
What is Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory re emotion?
An individual first appraises a situation (evaluates the situation to see how they experience it) before reacting to it with emotion.
182
Which theory suggests that we first appraise a situation before reacting to it emotionally?
Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory
183
Categories of stress
Crises/catastrophes
Major life events
Daily hassles/microstressors
Ambient stressors
184
What is the approach-avoidance conflict
Choosing an attractive option but incurring an unattractive debt
185
What is Lazarus's cognitive-mediation model?
```
Three stages:
Primary appraisal (evaluate stressor)
Secondary appraisal (evaluate resources and options to manage)
Coping stage (choose and use strategy)
```
186
What can coping strategies for stress be divided into?
Problem-focused - try to change external
| Emotion-focused
187
What are the four features of the locus of control theory?
```
Ability (internal and stable)
Effort (internal unstable)
Task difficulty (external stable)
Luck (external unstable)
```
188
Define consciousness
Awareness of stimuli
189
What does Freud's topographical model of the mind divide the mind into?
Conscious
Preconscious
Unconscious
190
What does the conscious system do according to Freud?
Receives and processes information from the outside world and communicates it via speech and behaviour.
191
What is attention cathexis according to Freud?
Investment of psychic energy on a particular idea/feeling to process it consciously
192
What is the unconscious system according to Freud?
Contains contents of censored/repressed wishes, characterised by primary-process thinking.
193
What is the unconscious system (Freud) governed by?
Pleasure principle
194
How is Freud's unconscious system evident to us?
```
Freudian slips (parapraxes)
Dreams
```
195
What is the purpose of Freud's preconsious system?
Maintains a repressive barrier to censor unacceptable wishes and desires
196
How did Carl Jung categorize the unconscious?
Personal unconsciousness - individual memories
| Collective unconsciousness - - memories of a species passed down generations
197
What is the arousal system?
Activation of the reticular activating system in brain stem + autonomic nervous system.
198
What does arousal regulate?
Consciousness
Attention
Fight-or-flight response
Sexual activity
199
What is ultradian?
Biological cycle lasting less than a day
200
What is the name of a biological cycle lasting more than a day?
Infradian
201
What regulates biorhythms?
Suprachiasmatic nucles in anterior hypothalamus
202
What is sleep-deprivation psychosis
Sleep deprivation leading to delusional ideations, paranoia, loss of sense of identity, disorganized speech
203
Define hypnosi
State of consciousness involving focused attention and reduced peripheral awareness
204
Define meditation
Inducing a mode of consciousness for the benefit or as an and itself.
205
What are the two factors of the two-factor theory of intelligence?
General intelligence and specific factor.
206
What does the two-factor theory of intelligence suggest individual differences are due to?
General intelligence
207
Who created the two-factor theory of intelligence?
Spearman
208
What does the Triarchic theory of intelligence suggest?
Intelligent behaviour arises from a balance of analytical, creative and practical abilities, implemented in context.
209
Who created the triarchic theory of intelligence?
Sternberg
210
What does the triarchic theory of intelligence suggest is needed for the three abilities of intelligence?
Knowledge-acquisition
Meta-component
Performance component
211
What is the phenomenon that IQ increases from one generation to the next?
Flynn phenomenon
212
Where is the largest gain in intelligence from one generation to the next?
Problem solving (fluid intelligence)
213
Name common tests used to measure IQ in adults
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
214
Name common tests used to measure IQ in children
Stanford-Binet scale (2-18)
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for children (6-16)
Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligene (4-6)
215
What is delayed/forward conditioning?
Conditioned stimulus prior to unconditioned stimulus; this continues until unconditioned response appears.
216
What is background conditioning?
Unconditioned stimulus presented before conditioned stimulus
217
When is backword conditioning used?
Advertising
218
What is simultaneous conditioning?
Unconditioned stimulus and conditioned stimulus presented together
219
Which type of classical conditioning occurs in real life situations?
Simultaneous
220
Who termed the term predictability in classical conditioning?
Rescorla
221
What does predictability mean in classical conditioning?
Being able to predict the response based on the unconditioned stimulus.
222
What is stimulus generalisation?
Spread of associative learning from one stimulus to another
223
What is discrimination in classical conditioning?
Learned response to a specific stimuli and not to other, similar stimuli
224
What is extinction in classical conditioning?
When the unconditioned stimulus - conditioned stimulus pairing no longer occurs, leading to disappearance of a learned response
225
What is spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning?
Regaining a previously extinguished learned response after a period of time.
226
What is the name of conditioning that leads to increase in frequency of behaviour following learning?
Reinforcement
227
Which type of operant conditioning schedule is most resistant to extinction?
Variable ratios (reward occurs after random number of responses)
228
What does contingency mean in operant conditioning?
Learning the probability
229
What is avoidance conditioning?
When an organism learns to avoid certain responses or situations.
230
What is escape conditioning?
Places in which panic occurs are avoided/escaped from.
231
What is flooding in operant conditioning?
Exposure to feared stimulus takes place for a substantial amount of time so the accompanying anxiety response fades.
232
What is implosion in operant conditioning?
When a person is exposed to an imagined feared stimulus for a substantial amount of time so the anxiety response fades.
233
What is shaping/successive approximation in operant conditioning?
Desirable behaviour pattern is learnt by successive reinforcement of behaviours closer to desired one.
234
When is shaping used in operant conditioning?
When the target behaviour is yet to appear.
235
What is chaining in operant conditioning?
Reinforcing a series of related behaviours, each of which provides the cue for the next to obtain a reinforcer.
236
When is chaining used?
When the target behaviour is notable in some form.
237
What is incubation?
An emotional response increases in strength if brief but repeated exposure of the stimulus.
238
What is stimulus preparednesness (Seligman)?
Stimuli (as per evolution) that were threatening to hunter-gatherers are wired into our system, eliciting immediate responses - phobia develops more readily for such prepared stimuli.
239
What is learned helplessness?
When confronted with aversive stimuli from which escape is impossible, an organism stops making attempts to escape.
240
What is cueing/prompting?
Specific cues used to elicit specific behaviours.
241
What is fading?
Process of unlearning cue associations.
242
What is the name of the apparatus used to test an infants perception of depth?
Visual cliff
243
What is perceptual constancy?
The ability to perceive objects to be the same and unchanging despite varied inputs.
244
What is visual acuity/focusing at birth?
20cm
245
What is the pertinence model?
Deutsch-Normal late selection filter model: filtering occurs later after all inputs are analysed at a higher level.
246
What is focused attention?
Ability to perceive individual items of information
247
What is sustained attention?
Ability to maintain a consistent, behavioral response during continuous and repetitive activity (vigilance)
248
What is selective attention?
Ability to avoid distractions from internal/external cues and maintain behavioural/cognitive set in face of competing stimuli
249
What is alternating attention?
Ability of mental flexibility that allows people to fix their focus of attention
250
What is working memory?
Allows cognitive processes to be performed on data that is in STM
251
What is procedural/implicit memory?
Procedural memory for skills/habits.
| Non-conscious
252
Which type of memory is not affected by organic amnesia from hippocampus?
Procedural/implicit
253
What is priming?
Form of learning that occurs w/o conscious recall of the episode of learning.
254
What is working memory important for?
```
Eexecutive functions
Decision-making
Error detection and correction
New learning
Judgement
```
255
What is primacy in learning?
Remembering the first words in a list of words
256
What is recency in learning?
Remembering the last words in a list of words
257
In which type of amnesia is recency preserved?
Organic anterograde amnesia
258
Modes of retrieval from LTm to STM?
Recognition
Recall (actively searching and reproducing)
Reintegration/reconstruction
259
When is forgetting information at its maximum?
In first few hours
260
Common test for auditory, verbal working memory?
Digit span
261
Common test of recent verbal memory?
Name and address recall task - subject asked to recall items w/o prompt
262
What is mood-conruent effect?
Ability to recall information more easily if it is congruent with current mood
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What is distortion?
Occurs during recall to ensure information fits the schema
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What is Shiffrin and Schneider's theory of attention?
Two types of processing - controlled and automatic processing. Automatic processing involves attention to patterns and deviations. Controlled processing is employed when evaluating a situation in more detail.
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This type of reinforcement is the least resistant to extinction
Continuous reinforcement
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This type of reinforcement takes the longest to establish.
Intermittent reinforcement
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This type of reinforcement leads to highest rate of responding
Fixed ratio
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How can information be recalled from LTM to STM?
1. Recognition (solving MCQs)
2. Recall (actively searching and reproducing), 3.Reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past experiences based on certain cues).
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What are deficiency needs according to Maslow's hierarchy?
Physiological needs
Safety needs
Love and belonging needs
Esteem needs
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What was Hermann Ebbinghaus's curve?
Memory loss is most likely in the first 9 hours, especially in the first hour
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What is blocking?
When the subjects are unable to access information that they know exists in their memory despite great efforts at recalling even in the presence of retrieval cues.
