Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IUSM Anatomy > Back Blue Boxes > Flashcards

Back Blue Boxes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a common metabolic bone disease that is often detected during routine radiographic studies?

A

Vertebral body osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What results from a net demineralization of the bones caused by a disruption of the normal balance of calcium deposition and resorption?

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Osteoporosis affects which areas of the skeleton the most?

A

neck of the femurbodies of the vertebraemetacarpalsradius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vertical striping on radiographs of the vertebral column indicates what?

A

loss of the horizontal supporting trabeculae and thickening of vertical struts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the general name for posterior concave curvature of the spine?

A

lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the general name for anterior concave curvature of the spine?

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and the adjacent supporting vertebral laminae

A

laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Performed surgically to gain access to the vertebral canal, providing exposure of the spinal cord

A

laminectomies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Often performed to relieve pressure on the spinal cord or nerve roots cuased by a tumor, herniated IV disc, or bony hypertrophy

A

surgical laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which vertebrae can be dislocated in neck injuries with less force than is required to fracture them?

A

cervical vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Slight dislocation of the cervical vertebrae can occur without damaging the spinal cord because of what?

A

large vertebral canal in the cervical region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stage I cervical vertebrae dislocation

A

flexion sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stage II cervical vertebrae dislocation

A

anterior subluxation with 25% anterior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stage III cervical vertebrae dislocation

A

50% translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stage IV cervical vertebrae dislocation

A

complete dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bony ring, with two wedge-shaped lateral masses, connected by a relatively thin anterior and posterior arches and a transverse ligament

A

the atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A Jefferson or burst fracture is fracture of which vertebrae?

A

the atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vertical forces, as would result from striking the bottom of a pool in a diving accident, can easily fracture which vertebrae

A

atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spinal cord injury is more likely with a C1 fracture if what has also been ruptured?

A

transverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

One of the most common injuries of the cervical vertebrae (up to 40%)

A

fratures of the vertebral arch of the axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bony column formed by the superior and inferior articular processes

A

pars interarticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fracture in the pars interarticularis of the axis is called?

A

traumatic spondylolysis of C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A traumatic spondylolysis of C2 most often occurs as a result of what?

A

hyperextension of the head on the neck (whiplash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How was hyperextension of the head and neck used to kill people?

A

execution of criminals by hanging (hangman’s fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Paralysis of all four limbs

A

quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fracture that can result from a horizontal blow to the head or as a complication of osteopenia (40-50% of axis injuries)

A

fractures of the dens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Narrowing of the vertebral formane in one or more lumbar vertebrae

A

lumbar stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lumbar spinal nerves ______ in size as the vertebral column descends, but the IV foramen ______ in size

A

increasedecrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When the developmental costal element of C7 becomes abnormally enlarged in 1-2% of people

A

cervical rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When a supernumerary (extra) rib places pressure on structures that emerge from the superior thoracic aperture

A

thoracic outlet syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

closes the sacral hiatus

A

sacrococcygeal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

connective tissue strand extending from the tip of the spinal cord to the coccyx

A

filum terminale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

local anasthetic agent is injected into the fat of the sacral canal that surrounds the proximal portions of the sacral nerves

A

caudal epidural anesthesia or caudal analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

palpable bony landmarks important for locating the hiatus

A

sacral cornua and S4 spinous process (medial sacral crest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Caudal epidural anesthesia acts on which spinal nerves of the cauda equina?

A

S2 - Co1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Sensation is lost ____ to epidural blocks

A

inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anesthetic agents is injected through the posterior sacral foramina into the sacral canal around the spinal nerve roots

A

transsacral epidural anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

An abrupt fall onto your ass may cause a painful subperiosteal bruising or fracture/ dislocation of what?

A

coccyx / sacrococcygeal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Condition in approx 5% of people where L5 is partly or completely incorporated into the sacrum

A

hemisacralization / sacralization of the L5 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Condition where S1 is separated from the sacrum and is partly or completely fused with L5 vertebra

A

lumbarization of the S1 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When L5 is sacralized, the ______ level is strong, and the _____ level degenerates

A

L5-S1 (strong)L4 - L5 (degenerates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

As you get older, the IV discs become increasingly _____

A

convex

43
Q

What are osteophytes?

A

bony spurs

44
Q

Birth defect where the neural arches of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and fuse posterior to the vertebral canal

A

spina bifida occulta

45
Q

Spina bifida is often concelaed by the overlying skin but its location can often be indicated by what?

A

a tuft of hair

46
Q

One or more vertebral arches fail to develop completely

A

spina bifica cystica

47
Q

spina bifida associated with a meningeal cyst

A

meningocele

48
Q

spina bifida associated with the spinal cord

A

meningomyelocele

49
Q

IV discs lose their turgor, becoming stiffer and more resistant to deformation when what dehydrates?

A

nuclei pulposi

50
Q

It has been shown that the IV discs ____ in size with age

A

increase

51
Q

When ______ degenerates, the _______ may herniate into the vertebral column and compress the spinal cord.

A

anulus fibrosusnucleus pulposus

52
Q

Where herniations of the nucleus pulposus usually extend in which direction

A

posterolaterally, where the anulus fibrosus is relatively thin

53
Q

A posterolateral herniated IV disc is more likely to be symptomatic becuase of the proximity of what?

A

spinal nerve roots

54
Q

Posterolateral herniations of the nucleus pulposus are most common here

A

lumar and lumbosacral regions(IV discs are largest in these regions)

55
Q

Approximately 95% of lumbar disc protrustions occur at which spinal levels?

A

L4 - L5L5 - S1

56
Q

Often caused by a herniated lumbar IV disc that compresses and compromises the L5 or S1 component of the sciatic nerve

A

sciatica

57
Q

Make up 40% of fractures of the axis

A

fractures of the dens

58
Q

incomplete dislocation of the median atlanto-axial joint

A

atlanto-axial subluxation

59
Q

When the transverse ligament of the atlas ruptures, the dens of the axis is set free, resulting in what?

A

atlanto-axial subluxation

60
Q

20% of people with Down syndrome exhibit laxity or agenesis of which ligament?

A

transverse ligament of the atlas

61
Q

Steele’s Rule of Thirds?

A

Approximately 1/3 of the atlas ring is occupied by the dense, 1/3 by the spinal cord, and the remaining 1/3 by the fluid-filled space and tissues surrounding the cord

62
Q

Where are the alar ligaments?

A

extend from the sides of the dnese of the axis to the lateral margins or the foramen magnum(attach the cranium to the C1 vertebra and act as check ligaments in preventing excessive rotation at the joints)

63
Q

Combined flexion and rotation of the head may tear which ligaments?

A

alar ligaments

64
Q

Rupture of an alar ligament results in what?

A

increase of approx 30% in the range of the movement of the contralateral side

65
Q

Cervical IV discs most common ruptured

A

C5 - C6 and C6 - C7

66
Q

Head butting or illegal face blocking in football may lead to what kind of injury?

A

hyperextension injury of the neck

67
Q

Type of hyperextention injury where the anterior longitudinal ligament is severely stretched and may be torn

A

severe hyperextesion of the neck (whiplash)

68
Q

The most commonly fractured noncervical vertebrae

A

T11 and espicially T12

69
Q

Dislocation of the vertebrae in the thoracic and lumbar regions is uncommon becuase of what?

A

interlocking of their articular processes

70
Q

dislocation between adjacent vertebrae

A

spondylolisthesis

71
Q

Ear of the scotty dog sign

A

superior articular process

72
Q

eye of the scotty dog sign

A

pedicle

73
Q

nose of the scotty dog sign

A

transverse process

74
Q

neck of the scotty dog sign

A

pars interarticularis

75
Q

front leg of the scotty dog sign

A

inferior articular process

76
Q

body of the scotty dog

A

lamina

77
Q

tail of the scotty dog

A

spinous process

78
Q

hind leg of the scotty dog

A

contralateral inferior articular process

79
Q

consists of all the muscles or part of muslces receiving innervation from one spinal nerve

A

myotomes

80
Q

a procedure used for the treatment of back pain caused by disease of the zygapophysial joints involving percutaneous rhizolysis

A

denervation of lumbar zygapophysial joints

81
Q

rhizolysis

A

nerves are sectioned or destroyed by radiofrequency to reduce pain

82
Q

Second most common reason people visit their doctor

A

general back pain

83
Q

The 5 categories of structures that receive innervation in the back and can be sources of pain

A

fibroskeletal structures (periosteum, ligaments etc)meningessynovial jointsmusclesnervous tissue

84
Q

Characterized by an abnormal increase in the thoracic curvature, the therbetral column curves posteriorly

A

excessive thoracic kyphosis

85
Q

Dowager’s hump

A

excessive thoracic kyphosis resulting from osteoporosis

86
Q

characterized by an anterior tilting of the pelvis with increased extension of the lumbar vertebrae

A

excessive lumbar lordosis

87
Q

Women often develop this spinal curvature temporarily during late pregnancy

A

excessive lumbar lordosis

88
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae

A

scoliosis

89
Q

An injury in which only ligamentous tissue, or the attachment of ligament to bone is involved, without dislocation or fracture

A

back sprain

90
Q

Common injury resulting from overly strong muscular contraction

A

back strain

91
Q

A sudden involuntary contraction of one or more muscle groups

A

spasm

92
Q

hardening of arteries

A

arterioslerosis

93
Q

radiopaque contrast procedure that allows visualization of the spinal cord and spinal nerve roots

A

myelography

94
Q

the arachnoid and pia mater form the?

A

leptomeninges

95
Q

withdrawal of CSF from the lumbar cistern

A

Lumbar puncture

96
Q

in a lumbar puncture, the needle is inserted in the midling between the spinous processes of which vertebrae?

A

L3 and L4 (or L4 and L5)

97
Q

plane transecting the highest points of the iliac crests

A

supracristal plane (marker for a lumbar puncture)

98
Q

deficient blood supply

A

ischemia

99
Q

Transection of the spinal cord at C1-C3 level will result in?

A

no function below head level; ventilator is required to maintain respiration

100
Q

transection of the spinal cord at the C4-C5 level results in?

A

quadriplegia; respiration occurs

101
Q

transection of the spinal cord at the C6-C8 level results in?

A

loss of lower limb function combined with a loss of hand and variable amount of upper limb function

102
Q

transection of the spinal cord at the T1 - T9 level

A

paraplegia

103
Q

transection of the spinal cord at the T10-T1 level

A

some thigh muscle function, may allow walking with long leg braces

104
Q

transection of the spinal cord at the L2-L3 level

A

retention of most leg muscle function; short leg braces may be required for walking

IUSM Anatomy (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions