Autonomics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for symphathetic preganglionic?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for sympathetic postganglionic?

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for parasympathetic preganglionic?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter for parasympathetic postganglionic?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary postsynaptic receptor type for sympathetic preganglionic?

A

Nicotinic-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the primary postsynaptic receptor type for sympathetic postganglionic?

A

Adrenergic (alpha and beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the primary postsynaptic receptor type for parasympathetic preganglionic?

A

Nicotinic-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the primary postsynaptic receptor type for parasympathetic postganglionic?

A

Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the length of sympathetic preganglionic fibers?

A

Short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the length of sympathetic postganglionic fibers?

A

Long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the length of parasympathetic preganglionic fibers?

A

Long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the length of parasympathetic postganglionic fibers?

A

Short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the rate limiting factor in acetylcholine synthesis?

A

Choline availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This synthetic enzyme for acetylcholine is used as a cholinergic marker

A

Choline acetyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Receptors in cholinergic transmission are of either of these types

A

Muscarinic or nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Termination of cholinergic neurotransmission occurs by ACh degradation, involving this enzyme in the synapse

A

Acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Termination of cholinergic neurotransmission occurs by ACh degradation, involving this enzyme in the blood and liver

A

Pseudocholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is the rate limiting factor of catecholamine synthesis

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does termination of cholinergic transmission occur?

A

By acetylcholine degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does termination of adrenergic transmission occur?

A

Synpatic reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor that increases calcium, causes contraction or secretion

A

Alpha 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor that decreases neurotransmitter release (presynaptic effect), and causes contraction (postsynaptic effect)

A

Alpha 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor that relaxes renal and mesenteric vascular smooth muscle

A

D1 (dopamine 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor that increases heart rate and force of contraction

A

Beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Type of adrenergic receptor that relaxes smooth muscle
Beta 2
26
Type of adrenergic receptor that promotes relaxation of bladder
Beta 3
27
This is the single metabolite endpoint associated with dopamine biotransformation Changes in this compound crudely reflect dopamine activity levels
HVA: homovanillic acid
28
This is sometimes used as a neuronal marker of activity and MAO, especially in the brain, is located in the nerve terminal Changes crudely reflect brain dopamine activity
Dihydroxyphenylacetic acid (DOPAC)
29
Dihydroxyphenylacetic acid (DOPAC) is sometimes used as a neuronal marker of the activity of this enzyme DOPAC changes crudely reflect brain dopamine activity
MAO (especially in the brain)
30
Isoform of monoamine oxidase that has nonspecific location and action
MAO-A
31
Monoamine oxidase isoform that has preference for dopamine; highest in CNS
MAO-B
32
In response to high blood pressure, the baroreceptors discharge and: Heart rate falls due to these 2 factors
Vagal stimulation and loss of sympathetic tone
33
In response to high blood pressure, the baroreceptors discharge and: Force of contraction falls due to these 2 factors
Vagal stimulation and loss of sympathetic tone
34
In response to high blood pressure, the baroreceptors discharge and: Vasodilation occurs mainly by this
Loss of sympathetic tone (to decrease peripheral resistance)
35
In response to high blood pressure, the baroreceptors discharge and have these 3 effects
Heart rate falls Force of contraction falls Vasodilation occurs
36
Type of cholinergic receptors that stimulates secretion of GI glands
M1 receptors (Gq)
37
Type of cholinergic receptors that act on the heart (atria but not ventricles) SA node to slow heart rate and AV node to slow conduction velocity
M2 receptors (Gi)
38
M2 receptors act on the SA node to slow this
heart rate
39
M2 receptors act on the AV node to slow this
conduction velocity
40
M1 receptors stimulate secretion of these
GI glands
41
M2 receptors act on this organ
Heart
42
Type of cholinergic receptors that act on smooth muscle, eye, lung, GI tract, bladder, sphincters and glands
M3 receptor (Gq)
43
What effect do M3 receptors have on sphincter muscles of the eye?
Cause contraction for miosis
44
What effect do M3 receptors have on ciliary muscles in the eye?
Contract for accommodation for near vision
45
What effect do M3 receptors have on the GI tract?
Increase motility and activity
46
Form of cholinesterase that is located neuronally pre- and post-junctional
Acetylcholinesterase
47
Form of cholinesterase that is located in liver and plasma
Pseudocholinesterase
48
Do Methacholine, Bethanechol and Carbachol cross the blood brain barrier?
No; they are quaternary amines
49
Methacholine, Bethanechol and Carbachol are this type of amine so they do not cross the blood brain barrier
Quaternary amines
50
Cholinergic agonist that is used for bladder and bowel activation
Bethanechol
51
Do Cevimeline and Pilocarpine cross the blood brain barrier?
Yes; are tertiary amines Thus produce central changes - Parkinson and seizures
52
Cevimeline and Pilocarpine are this type of amine, so they cross into the CNS
Tertiary amines
53
This muscarinic agonist has a black box warning for bronchial hyperreactivity
Methacholine
54
What reaction does tyrosine hydroxylase catalyze?
Tyrosine to Dopa
55
What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of tyrosine to dopa?
Tyrosine hydroxylase
56
What reaction does Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase catalyze?
Dopa to Dopamine
57
What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of Dopa to dopamine?
Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
58
What reaction does Dopamine β-hydroxylase catalyze?
Dopamine to Norepinephrine
59
What enzymes catalyzes the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine?
Dopamine β-hydroxylase
60
Degradative enzyme in adrenergic transmission that is located mainly in terminal
Monoamine oxidase
61
Degradative enzyme in adrenergic transmission that is located terminally, in plasma and liver
Catechol-O-methyltransferase
62
What enzyme in adrenergic biosynthesis is a therapeutic target?
Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
63
What enzyme in adrenergic biosynthesis is rate limiting?
Tyrosine hydroxylase
64
Agonists to this cholinergic receptor can be used to treat glaucoma (both primary open-angle and closed-angle)
Muscarinic agonist (causes contraction of ciliary muscle and iris sphincter)
65
Agonists to this cholinergic receptor can be used to treat dry mouth in Sjogren's syndrome
Muscarinic agonist
66
Agonists to this cholinergic receptor can be used to treat urine retention, leading to urine release
Muscarinic agonists
67
Agonists to this cholinergic receptor can be used in diagnosis of bronchial hyperreactivity
Muscarinic agonists
68
Agonists to this type of receptor are contraindicated in asthma patients
Muscarinic agonist
69
Agonists to this cholinergic receptor are contraindicated in Parkinsonism
Muscarinic agonists
70
Agonists to this type of receptor are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Muscarinic agonists
71
Agonists to this type of receptor are contraindicated in seizure disorders
Muscarinic agonists
72
A patient with a tumor on the adrenal gland may have increased levels of this molecule that crudely reflects dopamine activity levels
HVA: homovanillic acid
73
Homovanillic acid is the breakdown product of this
Dopamine biotransformation
74
Catechol-0-methyl transferase is involved in this process
Adrenergic biotransformation
75
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on heart rate?
Decreases
76
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on heart force?
Decreases
77
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on bronchial tree?
Bronchoconstriction
78
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on circular muscle of iris?
Miosis
79
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on ciliary muscle of eye?
Accommodation
80
What effect does cholinergic (parasympathetic) transmission have on GI tract?
Contraction
81
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on heart rate?
Increases (by beta 1)
82
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on heart force?
Increases (by beta 1)
83
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on arterial vessels?
Vasoconstriction (by alpha 1)
84
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on skeletal blood vessels?
Vasodilation (by beta 2)
85
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on venous vessels?
Vasoconstriction (by alpha 2)
86
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on bronchial tree?
Bronchodilation
87
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on the uterus?
Contraction (by alpha 1)
88
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on radial muscle of iris?
Mydriasis (by alpha 1)
89
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on the kidney?
Renin release increased by beta 1 Renin release decreased by alpha 1
90
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on the ureter?
Contraction (by alpha 1)
91
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on the GI tract?
Relaxation (by alpha 2)
92
What effect does adrenergic (sympathetic) transmission have on insulin release?
Decreases (by alpha 1)
93
Renin release is increased by this adrenergic receptor
Beta 1
94
Renin release is decreased by this adrenergic receptor
Alpha 1
95
Carbamates and organophosphates inhibit this enzyme
Cholinesterase (thus prolong acetylcholine duration and are analogous to agonist action)
96
Ambenonium, Edrophonium, Neostigmine, Physostigmine, Pyridostigmine are examples of this type of drug
Carbamates (cholinesterase inhibitors)
97
Edrophonium is this type of drug
Carbamate
98
Carbamate that is indicated in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and treatment
Edrophonium
99
Carbamate that is indicated in reversal of neuromuscular blockage by non-depolarizing muscle relaxants
Edrophonium
100
Edrophonium is this type of amine
Quaternary
101
Carbamate that is quarternary and highly water soluble Rapid renal elimination
Edrophonium
102
Edrophonium is used in diagnosis and treatment of this condition
Myasthenia gravis
103
Carbamate that is a tertiary amine and is readily absorbed Penetrates the CNS (crosses blood brain barrier)
Physostigmine
104
Physostigmine is this type of drug
Carbamate
105
DUMBBELSS is an acronym describing the toxicities of this type of drug (Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, excitation (muscles and CNS), lacrimation, salivation and sweating)
Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. carbamates, organophosphates)
106
What are the toxicities of cholinesterase inhibitors?
DUMBBELSS Diarrhea Urination Miosis Bronchoconstriction Bradycardia Excitation (muscles and CNS) Lacrimation Salivation Sweating
107
Delayed toxicity of organophosphates is related to this, and results in flaccid and spastic paralysis
Demyelination (delayed toxicity is independent of cholinesterase inhibitory activity)
108
Delayed toxicity of this type of drug is related to demyelination and results in flaccid and spastic paralysis
Organophosphate
109
What is the MOA of carbamates?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
110
What is the MOA of organophosphates?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
111
The treatment of cholinesterase inhibitor overdose involves administration of this type of drug FIRST
Anticholinergic (e.g. atropine)
112
Atropine may be given first in overdose of this type of drug
Cholinesterase inhibitor (e.g. Carbamates, organophosphates)
113
In overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors, is atropine or pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM) given first?
Atropine (atropine saves the patient, 2-PAM saves the enzyme)
114
In overdose of cholinesterase inhibitor, this is always supplemental to atropine and will improve neuromuscular toxicity by restoring cholinesterase activity
Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)
115
Do quaternary amines cross the blood brain barrier?
No so they remain peripheral (examples: Methacholine, Bethanechol)
116
Cholinergic agonist that is used for bladder and bowel activation
Bethanechol
117
Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist used to treat this
Bladder and bowel activation
118
Bethanechol is an agonist to this, and is used for bladder and bowel activation
Cholinergic agonist
119
Methacholine, Bethanechol and Carbachol are agonists to this
Cholinergic agonists
120
Are Methacholine, Bethanechol and Carbachol found centrally or peripherally?
Peripherally - are quaternary amines so they do not cross blood brain barrier
121
Do tertiary amines cross into the CNS?
Yes (examples: Cevimeline and Pilocarpine)
122
Cevimeline and Pilocarpine are agonists to this type of receptor
Cholinergic agonists
123
Methacholine is this type of drug
Cholinergic (muscarinic) agonist
124
Methacholine has this black box warning
Bronchial hyperreactivity
125
How do you treat cholinesterase inhibitor overdose?
Administration of anticholinergic (atropine) THEN pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM) Atropine saves the patient - 2-PAM saves the patient
126
Cholinesterase inhibitors are indirect agonists to this
Cholinergic agonists
127
Organophosphate that is used as insecticides as mammals inactivate the cholinesterase forms of each drug before toxic to mammalian system Insects do not detoxify the toxic form
Malathion
128
Atropine, Darifenacin, Oxybutynin, Scopolamine, Solifenacin, Tolterodine are antagonists to this
Muscarinic receptors
129
Atropine, Darifenacin, Oxybutynin, Scopolamine, Solifenacin, Tolterodine are this type of drug
Muscarinic antagonists
130
Do muscarinic agonists or antagonists inhibit sweating?
Antagonists
131
Do muscarinic antagonists cause mydriasis or miosis?
Mydriasis
132
Do muscarinic antagonists increase or decrease aqueous outflow resistance of the eye?
Increase
133
Do muscarinic antagonists result in increased or decreased GI tract salivation and secretions?
Decreased
134
What effect do muscarinic antagonists have on the bladder?
Urinary retention
135
Do muscarinic antagonists cause bronchial dilation or constriction?
Dilations (and decreased secretions)
136
Do muscarinic antagonists cause bradycardia at high or low doses?
Presynpatic and central low dose effect
137
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for bradycardia
Atropine
138
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for cycloplegia or mydriasis
Atropine
139
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for aspiration prophylaxis
Atropine
140
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for overactive bladder and urinary incontinence
Darifenacin
141
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for amnesia and sedation induction
Scopolamine
142
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for motion sickness
Scopolamine
143
Muscarinic antagonist indicated for Parkinson's disease
Scopolamine
144
Are muscarinic agonists or antagonists contraindicated in glaucoma?
Antagonists
145
Type of drugs that are contraindicated in glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia and cardiac disease
Muscarinic antagonists
146
Infants are more likely to become hyperthermic with use of this type of drug
Muscarinic antagonists
147
Infants are more likely to have this with use of muscarinic antagonists
Hyperthermia
148
Blurred vision, dry mouth/skin, confusion, mydriasis, constipation, urinary retention and sedation are toxicities of this type of drug
Muscarinic antagonists
149
Hyperthermia may occur in small individuals with use of this type of drug
Muscarinic antagonists
150
What are some of the toxicities of Muscarinic antagonists?
Blurred vision Dry mouth/skin (hyperthermia) Confusion Mydriasis (dilated pupils) Constipation Urinary retention Sedation
151
This compound stimulates and desensitizes receptors
Nicotine
152
What effect do nicotine agonists have on heart rate?
Increase
153
What effect do nicotine agonists have on BP?
Increase
154
How do nicotine agonists increase heart rate and BP?
Stimulates adrenal release of catecholamines
155
This drug is a partial agonist at some nicotinic receptor sites (a4B2) and full agonist at other (a7) sites
Varenicline
156
Varenicline is a partial agonist at some of these sites
Nicotinic receptor sites (a4B2) (is a full agonist at other sides; a7)
157
What is an adverse effect of Varenicline?
Negative mood and behavioral changes
158
Adverse neuropsychiatric events (unusual and aggressive behavior) as a result of Varenicline use may be worsened with concomitant use of this
Alcohol
159
Adverse neuropsychiatric events (unusual and aggressive behavior) as a result of use of this drug may be worsened with concomitant use of alcohol
Varenicline
160
OnabotulinumtoxinA inhibits this
Acetylcholine release
161
What are the two phases of depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
1: depolarization block 2: desensitization
162
These inhibitors will not reverse a depolarizing blocker but may intensify blockade
Cholinesterase inhibitors (do not treat paralysis with cholinesterase inhibitors)
163
Succinylcholine is inactivated by this enzyme
Pseudocholinesterase
164
Adverse effect of this includes malignant hyperthermia, especially when used with halothane (inhalation anesthetic)
Depolarizing muscular blockers - Succinylcholine
165
Depolarizing muscular blockers (Succinylcholine) can cause malignant hyperthermia, especially when used with this
Halothane (inhalation anesthetic)
166
Depolarizing muscular blockers (Succinylcholine) can cause this, especially when used with Halothane (inhalation anesthetic)
Malignant hyperthermia
167
Rocuronium is this type of drug
Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers (AKA competitive nicotinic receptor inhibitors)
168
At low doses, this type of drug is competitive reversible blockers of the neuromuscular junction
Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers (AKA competitive nicotinic receptor inhibitors) E.g. Rocuronium
169
These can reverse the action of Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers (AKA competitive nicotinic receptor inhibitors; e.g. Rocuronium)
Cholinesterase inhibitors
170
Cholinesterase inhibitors can reverse action of this type of drug
Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers (AKA competitive nicotinic receptor inhibitors) E.g. Rocuronium
171
Can cholinesterase inhibitors reverse the action of Rocuronium?
Yes (Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker)
172
Nicotine effects on heart are triggered by nicotine release of these from adrenal
Catecholamines
173
This is a partial nicotine agonist and has some increased risk of psychiatric problems with use Is used for tobacco cessation
Varenicline
174
This inhibits release of acetylcholine by interfering with SNAP25
OnabotulinumtoxinA
175
OnabotulinumtoxinA inhibit release of acetylcholine by interfering with this
SNAP25
176
OnabotulinumtoxinA inhibit release of this by interfering with SNAP25
Acetylcholine
177
Varenicline is a partial agonist of this and has some increased risk of psychiatric problems with use
Nicotine
178
This causes tachyphylaxis at neuromuscular junction and results in total paralysis Should only last minutes due to rapid inactivation by pseudocholinesterases (patient deficit in this enzyme and paralysis may last hours)
Succinylcholine
179
What effect does succinylcholine have at the neuromuscular junction?
Causes tachyphylaxis (results in total paralysis)
180
Reversible neuromuscular receptor blockers allow greater dosage flexibility and can be reversed by these inhibitors
Cholinesterase
181
What is a Alpha-1 Adrenergic action on vascular smooth muscle, pupillary radial (dilator) muscle and prostate?
Contraction
182
What is a Alpha-1 Adrenergic action on the heart?
Increased force of contraction
183
What is alpha-2 adrenergic effect on presynaptic nerve terminals?
Inhibition of neurotransmitter release
184
What are two beta-1 adrenergic effects on the heart?
Increase heart rate at SA node Increase force of contraction
185
Beta-1 adrenergic action on heart includes increased heart rate at this
SA node
186
What is beta-1 adrenergic effect on the kidney?
Increase renin release
187
What is beta-2 adrenergic effect on skeletal muscle?
Stimulates glycogenolysis to promote contractility (tremor)
188
What is beta-2 adrenergic effect on bronchioles and uterus?
Relaxation
189
What is beta-3 adrenergic effect on the bladder?
Relaxes detrusor smooth muscle
190
What is dopamine-1 effect on renal, mesenteric and coronary vasculature?
Vasodilation
191
Norepinephrine, epinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, and dobutamine are agonists of this
Adrenergic agonists
192
Norepinephrine is an agonist of these adrenergic receptors
Alpha-1 and -2, beta-1 and -3 (more powerful at alpha activation)
193
Epinephrine is an agonist of these adrenergic receptors
Alphas and betas
194
Dopamine is an agonist of these adrenergic receptors
Dopamine-1, beta-1, alpha-1
195
With norepinephrine, heart rate may decrease by this reflex
Vagal reflex
196
What effect does norepinephrine have on arteries and veins?
Vasoconstriction
197
Tissue necrosis and sloughing in extravasation are black box warnings of this adrenergic agonist
Norepinephrine
198
What is an adverse effect of norepinephrine?
Tissue necrosis and sloughing in extravasation (black box)
199
Epinephrine results in vasoconstriction in most arterial beds except:
Vasodilation in skeletal muscle beds
200
Epinephrine results in this effect on vasculature in most arterial beds (except skeletal muscle beds)
Vasoconstriction
201
Adrenergic agonist used for emergency treatment of anaphylactic shock
Epinephrine
202
Is atropine indicated for bradycardia or tachycardia?
Bradycardia
203
What effect does Isoproterenol have on arteries?
Vasodilation
204
What effect does Isoproterenol have on lungs?
Bronchodilation
205
These are adverse effects of this adrenergic agonist: Palpitation, headache, flushed skin Tachycardia Cardiac ischemia and arrhythmias
Isoproterenol
206
Adrenergic agonist used for short-term cardiovascular support (shock - following hypovolemia correction)
Dopamine
207
Extravasation of this adrenergic agonist can produce ischemic necrosis and sloughing (black box warning)
Dopamine
208
Extravasation of dopamine can produce this
Ischemic necrosis and sloughing (black box warning)
209
Does the alpha or beta effect predominate with use of dobutamine?
Beta
210
Type of adrenergic agonists used as bronchodilators and smooth muscle relaxants
Beta-selective agents
211
Type of adrenergic agonists used for asthma and uterine relaxation
Beta-selective agents
212
Type of adrenergic agonist with adverse effects of: Tremor Cardiovascular effects (tachycardia) Decreased arterial oxygen tension Possible increased risk of death
Beta-selective agents
213
Tachycardia is an adverse effect of beta-selective agents that is mainly due to this stimulation
Beta-1
214
Do beta-selective agents have an adverse effect of bradycardia or tachycardia?
Tachycardia (mainly due to beta-1 stimulation)
215
Tachycardia is an adverse effect of this type of adrenergic agonist mainly due to beta-1 stimulation
Beta-selective agents
216
Arterial oxygen tension may fall during treatment of asthma with beta-selective agents due to vasodilation of these
Pulmonary beds
217
Arterial oxygen tension may fall during treatment of asthma with beta-selective agents due to vasodilation or vasoconstriction of pulmonary beds?
Vasodilation
218
Salmeterol is this type of adrenergic agonist
Beta-selective agent
219
Salmeterol is a beta-selective agent with this black box warning
Possible increased risk of death and near death from asthma
220
Possible increased risk of death and near death from asthma is a black box warning for this beta-selective agent
Salmeterol
221
Adrenergic agonist that is a beta-3 selective agent
Mirabegron
222
What effect does Mirabegron have on the bladder?
Relaxes the detrusor smooth muscle to increase bladder capacity
223
Oxymetazoline, Phenylephrine, and Pseudoephedrine are this type of adrenergic agonist
Alpha-1 selective agents
224
Type of adrenergic agonist used for nasal decongestant, mydriasis, maintenance of BP during surgery
Alpha-1 selective agents (examples: Oxymetazoline, Phenylephrine, Pseudoephedrine)
225
Oxymetazoline, Phenylephrine, and Pseudoephedrine are selective agonists of this adrenergic receptor
Alpha-1
226
Clonidine and Alpha-methyldopa are selective agents of this adrenergic receptor
Alpha-2
227
What is the MOA of Clonidine and Alpha-methyldopa?
Alpha-2 selective agents so Antihypertensive actions
228
Alpha-2 selective agents (e.g. Clonidine, Alpha-methyldopa) have this dominant action
Antihypertensive
229
Rebound effect may occur with abrupt discontinuation of this type of adrenergic agonist
Alpha-2 selective agents (E.g. Clonidine, Alpha-methyldopa)
230
This alpha-2 selective agent is a substrate for catecholamine synthesis pathway End product of alpha-methyl norepinephrine
Alpha-methyl Dopa
231
Alpha-methyl Dopa is an alpha-2 selective agent that is a substrate for this synthesis pathway
Catecholamine
232
Alpha-methyl Dopa is an end product of this (involved in catecholamine synthesis pathway)
Alpha-methyl norepinephrine
233
Adverse effects of this type of adrenergic agonist includes low incidence of rebound hypertension, hemolytic anemia, Parkinson-like effect and hyperprolactinemia
Alpha-2 selective agents (e.g. Clonidine, Alpha-methyldopa)
234
Hemolytic anemia is an adverse effect of this type of adrenergic agonist
Alpha-2 selective agents (e.g. Clonidine, Alpha-methyldopa)
235
Parkinson-like effect and hyperprolactinemia are adverse effects of this type of adrenergic agonist
Alpha-2 selective agents (e.g. Clonidine, Alpha-methyldopa)
236
Alpha-methyl dopamine is partial agonist at this receptor
dopamine
237
Alpha-methyl dopamine is this type of agonist at dopamine receptor
Partial
238
What effect do mixed action agonists have on vascular resistance and BP?
Increases
239
What effect do mixed action agonists have on respirations?
Increased
240
Type of adrenergic agonists with central actions including Increased respiration, increased alertness/confidence, Psychogenic effects, Appetite suppressant
Mixed action agonists
241
Amphetamine, Methamphetamine, Methylphenidate, Ephedrine, and Tyramine are this type of adrenergic agonist
Mixed action agonist
242
Pulmonary hypertension (especially in women) is an adverse effect of this type of adrenergic agonist
Mixed action agonist
243
In presence of monoamine oxidase inhibitors, this mixed action agonist can result in increased pressure (systolic increase > 30 mmHg)
Tyramine
244
In presence of this type of drug, tyramine can result in increased pressure (systolic increase > 30 mmHg)
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
245
In presence of monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tyramine can result in increased pressure (systolic increase > 30 mmHg), mainly through this mechanism
Release of catecholamine
246
In presence of monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tyramine can result in increased pressure (systolic increase > 30 mmHg), mainly through the release of these
Catecholamines
247
Adrenergic receptor that: vasoconstricts the peripheral vascular system (increases resistance), increase heart force
Alpha 1
248
Adrenergic receptor that is a weaker vasoconstrictor, presynaptic modulator
Alpha-2
249
Adrenergic receptor that increases heart rate and force of contraction
Beta-1
250
Adrenergic receptor that relaxes bronchial structures, relaxes skeletal muscle vessels (reduces resistance), and triggers tremor
Beta 2
251
Adrenergic receptor that enlarges bladder
Beta 3
252
Is norepinephrine mainly an alpha or beta response?
Alpha
253
Is epinephrine mainly an alpha or beta response?
Beta
254
Adrenergic agonist that maintains heart rate and opens mesenteric/ renal vascular beds
Dopamine
255
Type of adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchioles for treatment of hyperreactive airways
Beta 2 selectives
256
Adrenergic agonist that enlarges bladder
Mirabegron
257
Non-selective alpha antagonists are used for acute control of this
Hypertension
258
Phenoxygenzamine is a non-selective alpha antagonist that is a reversible or irreversible binding agent?
Irreversible
259
Phentolamine is a non-selective alpha antagonist that is a reversible or irreversible binding agent?
Reversible
260
Phenoxybenzamine is this type of drug
Non-selective alpha antagonist
261
Phentolamine is this type of drug
Non-selective alpha antagonist
262
This type of adrenergic antagonist has cardiovascular effects including vasodilation, hypotension, tachycardia and venous pooling
Non-selective alpha antagonist (Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine)
263
Non-selective alpha antagonists are used for control of this in pheochromocytoma
Blood pressure
264
Non-selective alpha antagonists are used for blood pressure control in patients with this
Pheochromocytoma
265
Type of adrenergic antagonist used for BP control in pheochromocytoma
Non-selective alpha antagonist (Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine)
266
Type of adrenergic antagonist used for benign prostatic hypertrophy
Non-selective alpha antagonists (Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine)
267
What is the First Doses effect?
Severe postural hypotension that occurs early in therapy or when dose is increased
268
Antagonists to this have First Doses effect
Alpha (Non-selective alpha antagonists especially)
269
Hypotension, tachycardia and sexual dysfunction are adverse effect to these types of drugs
Non-selective alpha antagonists (Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine)
270
This non-selective alpha antagonist can be used in clonidine-withdrawal hypertension
Phentolamine
271
Drug names that end in -osin are this type of drug
Selective alpha-1 antagonists
272
Are selective alpha-1 antagonists reversible or irreversible blockers?
All are reversible blockers
273
Selective alpha-1 antagonists have names ending in this
"-osin"
274
Type of adrenergic antagonist that is indicated for general treatment of hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy
Selective alpha-1 antagonists
275
What effect do Selective alpha-1 antagonists have on vascular resistance?
Reduce
276
Do non-selective alpha or selective alpha-1 antagonists have a lower incidence of postural hypotension?
Selective alpha-1 antagonists
277
Fluid retention, tachycardia and nasal stuffiness are adverse effects to this type of adrenergic antagonist
Selective alpha-1 antagonists
278
Drug names that end in -olol are this type of drug
Beta blockers
279
Beta blockers have drug names that end in this
"-olol"
280
Severe bradycardia, bronchospasm, peripheral vascular disease and withdrawal with abrupt stoppage of drug are adverse effects of this type of adrenergic antagonist
Non-specific beta blockers
281
Do alpha antagonists cause bradycardia or tachycardia?
Tachycardia
282
Do beta blockers cause bradycardia or tachycardia?
Bradycardia
283
Depression, elevated LDL and triglyceride levels, and blunted responses and recovery from hypoglycemia are common toxicities to this type of adrenergic antagonists
Beta blockers
284
A toxicity of this type of drug includes blunted responses and recovery from hypoglycemia - may increase risk of diabetes
Beta blockers
285
As a result of use of beta blockers, loss of vasodilation from this increases alpha vasoconstriction in extremities
Beta 2
286
With use of beta blockers, patients may have blunted responses and recovery from this
Hypoglycemia
287
The first letter of this type of drug spells "BEAM"
Beta-1 antagonists (Acebutolol, Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Esmolol, Metoprolol)
288
Acebutolol, Atenolol, Bisoprolol, Esmolol, and Metoprolol are this type of drug
Beta-1 antagonists
289
These 2 drugs are non-selective beta blockers that are also alpha-1 blockers
Carvedilol and Labetalol
290
Carvedilol and Labetalol are non-selective beta blockers that also block this
Alpha-1
291
Beta 2 blockage increases risk for patients with these 3 conditions
Diabetes Asthmatics Peripheral artery disease
292
Pindolol and Acebutolol are this type of adrenergic antagonist
Beta blockers with ISA (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity)
293
Beta blocker with ISA (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) that is primarily used in patients with low resting heart rate (50 beats/min)
Acebutolol
294
Acebutolol is a beta blocker with ISA (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) that is primarily used in patients with this
Low resting heart rate (50 beats/min)
295
This is the enzyme that mediates the initial step of norepinephrine and epinephrine metabolism the in presynaptic cell cytoplasm
Monoamine oxidase
296
This compound blocks neuronal uptake transporter (NET) function, thereby inhibiting termination of adrenergic neurotransmission
Cocaine
297
Cocaine blocks neuronal uptake transporter (NET) function, thereby inhibiting termination of this type of neurotransmission
Adrenergic
298
This drug treats glaucoma by inducing miosis to allow drainage of aqueous humor via the trabecular meshwork (Canal of Schlemm)
Pilocarpine
299
What is the MOA of pilocarpine in treatment of glaucoma?
Induces miosis (allows drainage of aqueous humor via the trabecular meshwork)
300
Pilocarpine is this type drug
Cholinergic agonist
301
This adrenergic receptor induces both chronotropic and ionotropic effects on cardiac muscle contraction
Beta 1
302
Which 2 beta adrenergic inhibitor drugs are indicated to treat hypertension in patients with bradycardia?
Acebutolol and Pindolol
303
Why are Acebutolol and Pindolol indicated to treat hypertension in patients with bradycardia and not other beta blockers?
Because they have sympathomimetic activity
304
This beta-2 selective agent is not recommended for acute treatment of asthma due to slow onset of action
Salmeterol
305
Uterine relaxant is a secondary use for this beta-2 selective agent, which arrests premature labor
Terbutaline
306
Terbutaline is a selective adrenergic agonist for this
Beta-2