Audit true or false Flashcards

Audit true or false

1
Q

The term “ethics” refers to a person’s propensity to follow the laws of the land.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Professionalism refers to the conduct, aims, or qualities that characterize a given profession.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Principles of Professional Conduct set forth the minimum standards.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When auditing a public company, a CPA must follow the auditing standards and Code of CSQM-1 Quality Management for Firms That Perform Audits or Review of Financial Statements.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rules of Conduct are enforceable.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interpretations of Rules of Conduct are enforceable.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Principles are stated at a conceptual level, not a detailed level.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The rules contained in Section 202 cover issues relating to integrity, due care and objectivity.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If an auditor is not independent of the client, it is unlikely that a user of financial statements will place much reliance on the CPA’s work.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

As per the CPA Rules of Professional Conduct, a CPA is required to identify and assess the extent to which a threat to independence exists.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An indirect financial interest is defined as a financial interest that is owned or is under the control of an individual or entity.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A financial interest is “beneficially owned” when an individual or entity is NOT the recorded owner of the interest but has a right to some or all of the underlying benefits of ownership.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a CPA owns an insurance policy issued by an attest client, independence would be considered impaired, even if the policy was purchased under the insurance company’s normal terms and procedures and does not offer an investment option.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The independence standards issued by the CPA Rules of Professional Conduct do not prohibit the provision of tax services to an attest client.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CPA Rules of Professional Conduct require tax services provided by a public company auditor to be considered and approved by the company’s audit committee.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A going concern issue requires an explanatory paragraph to be added to the standard unqualified audit report (public company).

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An opinion based in part on the report of another auditor requires an explanatory/emphasis-of-matter paragraph be added to the standard unqualified audit report.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A basic assumption that underlies financial reporting is that an entity will continue as a going concern.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A change in accounting estimate is an example of an accounting change that affects comparability and requires an explanatory paragraph in the audit report.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A correction of a material misstatement in previously issued financial statements is an example of an accounting change that affects comparability and requires an explanatory paragraph in the audit report.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Changes that affect comparability but that do not involve a change in accounting principle or the correction of a misstatement are normally disclosed in the footnotes but do not require an explanatory paragraph in the audit report.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An auditor may be unable to express an unqualified opinion if an immaterial departure from GAAP is present in the financial statements.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An auditor must disclaim an opinion when the auditor lacks independence.

23
Q

The choice of which audit report to issue depends on the nature and the materiality of the condition giving rise to the departure.

24
Q

A scope limitation results from an inability to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence about some component of the financial statements.

25
Q

Every contingent liability must be recorded.

26
Q

An example of a contingent liability is an income tax dispute.

27
Q

Reading contracts and loan agreements is one way to identify unrecorded contingent liabilities.

28
Q

A legal letter will include and evaluate all contingent liabilities of the company.

29
Q

Type II subsequent events are conditions that require an adjustment to the account balance shown on the financial statements.

30
Q

An example of a Type I event or condition is the settlement of a lawsuit after the balance sheet date for an amount different from the amount recorded in the year-end financial statements.

31
Q

An example of a Type II event or condition is an uncollectible account receivable resulting from deterioration in a customer’s financial condition prior to year end, about which the entity is unaware. The customer declares bankruptcy after the balance sheet date but prior to the issuance of the financial statements.

32
Q

Dual dating is used to identify unrecorded contingent liabilities.

33
Q

The auditor must perform final analytical procedures before deciding on the appropriate audit report to issue for the entity.

34
Q

If there is substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, the auditor should obtain information about the management’s plans to mitigate the problem and assess the likelihood that such plans can be implemented.

35
Q

The responsibility to assess the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern rests solely with the auditor.

36
Q

The cash account is affected by all of the entity’s business processes.

37
Q

The general cash account is normally the principal account used to disburse payroll.

38
Q

An imprest cash account is used for specific purposes and contains a stipulated amount of money.

39
Q

The auditor’s use of analytical procedures for auditing cash is limited.

40
Q

A major control that directly affects the audit of cash is the bank reconciliation prepared by the auditor.

41
Q

A cutoff bank statement is used to verify the propriety of the reconciling items shown on the bank reconciliation.

42
Q

Kiting is an audit procedure used to test the accuracy of the cash receipts.

43
Q

It is generally more efficient to follow a substantive strategy for auditing investments.

44
Q

If the entity maintains custody of its investments, the auditor normally examines the actual securities.

45
Q

Level 1 inputs are more risky and difficult to audit than Level 3 inputs to a valuation model.