Practice Questions (Ch 9, 11, 12, 14) Flashcards

Practice Questions (Ch 9, 11, 12, 14)

1
Q

A corporation donates a valuable painting from its private collection to an art museum.
Which of the following is incremental cash flow associated with the donation?
A. The current market value of the painting
B. The price the firm paid for the painting
C. The deduction from income that it declares for its charitable gift
D. The future price of the painting after one year

A

A. The current market value of the painting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A new project requires an increase in both current assets and current liabilities of $125,000
each. What is the overall impact on net working capital investment?
A. an increase of zero.
B. an increase of $125,000.
C. an increase of $250,000.
D. an increase of $62,500, when averaged over the life of the project.

A

A. an increase of zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is it appropriate to include sunk costs in the evaluation of a project?
A. include sunk costs when they are relatively large
B. include sunk costs if it improves the project’s NPV
C. include sunk costs if they are considered to be overhead costs
D. it is never appropriate to include sunk costs

A

D. it is never appropriate to include sunk costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following net working capital changes would increase a firm’s net cash flow?
A. A decrease in bank debt
B. An increase in accounts receivable
C. An increase in inventories
D. An increase in accounts payable

A

D. An increase in accounts payable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following companies would you expect to be least exposed to macro risks?
A. A luxury cruise line
B. An automobile manufacturer
C. An airline
D. An electric utility

A

D. An electric utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Risk factors that are expected to affect only a specific firm are referred to as:
A. market risk.
B. diversifiable risk.
C. systematic risk.
D. risk premiums

A

B. diversifiable risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following risk types can be diversified by adding stocks to a portfolio?
A. systematic risk
B. unique risk
C. default risk
D. market risk

A

B. unique risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In general, which stocks should be combined in a portfolio, if the goal is to reduce overall risk?
A. stocks with returns that are positively correlated.
B. stocks with returns that are negatively correlated.
C. stocks with returns that are not correlated.
D. stocks that have the highest expected returns.

A

B. stocks with returns that are negatively correlated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Decreases in the risk-free rate will reduce:
A. the market risk premium.
B. the stock’s risk premium.
C. the stock’s Beta.
D. the stock’s expected return

A

D. the stock’s expected return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A stock’s Beta measures the:
A. average return on the stock.
B. variability in the stock’s returns compared to that of the market portfolio.
C. difference between the return on the stock and return on the market portfolio.
D. market risk premium on the stock.

A

B. variability in the stock’s returns compared to that of the market portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The graph showing the relationship between the market risk of the security (beta) and its expected return is called:
A. stock’s Beta.
B. security market line.
C. market risk premium.
D. stock’s unique risk.

A

B. security market line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In practice, the market portfolio is often represented by:
A. a portfolio of Canadian Treasury securities.
B. a diversified stock market index.
C. an investor’s mutual fund portfolio.
D. the historic record of stock market returns.

A

B. a diversified stock market index.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A stock with a Beta greater than 1.0 would be termed:
A. an aggressive stock, expected to increase more than the market increases.
B. a defensive stock, expected to decrease more than the market increases.
C. an aggressive stock, expected to decrease more than the market increases.
D. a defensive stock, expected to increase more than the market decreases.

A

A. an aggressive stock, expected to increase more than the market increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding convertible securities:
A. a convertible bondholder is forced to convert at a specific time.
B. the convertible option on a bond gives the owner the right to buy shares
from a company at a set price.
C. the owner of a warrant option will benefit if the firm’s stock does well.
D. the owner of a warrant option will benefit if the firm’s stock does poorly.

A

C. the owner of a warrant option will benefit if the firm’s stock does well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A proxy contest is typically one in which:
A. the board attempts to gain control from the shareholders.
B. management attempts to gain control from the directors.
C. the board attempts to gain control from the directors.
D. outsiders attempt to gain control from management.

A

D. outsiders attempt to gain control from management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following statements about floating-rate preferred stock is correct?
A. it is the only stock issued without a par value.
B. its dividends increase as interest rates increase.
C. its market price increases at a set rate annually.
D. its dividends are deductible for tax purposes by the paying corporation

A

B. its dividends increase as interest rates increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For Canadian non-financial firms, what source of capital is used the least?
A. debt issues
B. bond issues
C. net equity issues
D. internal funds

A

C. net equity issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Junk bonds represent debt that was issued to:
A. offer higher yields and less security than other debt
B. finance the acquisition of used manufacturing equipment.
C. firms that have defaulted on their dividend payments
D. firms in countries with high rates of inflation.

A

A. offer higher yields and less security than other debt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The benchmark interest rate that banks charge to their best customers is termed:
A. Lease.
B. convertible.
C. private placement.
D. prime rate.

A

D. prime rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A warrant has an exercise price of $40, and the current stock price is $38. An
investor holding this option will purchase the stock only if:
A. the stock price falls to $20 or below.
B. the stock price rises above $40.
C. the dividend yield on the stock exceeds 10 %.
D. the stock price falls below $38.

A

B. the stock price rises above $40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following equity concepts would you expect to be least
important to a financial analyst?
A. retained earnings
B. par value per share
C. additional paid-in capital
D. net common equity

A

B. par value per share

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Eurobonds are long-term, corporate liabilities that:
A. are marketed in all countries.
B. are held outside the U.S.
C. are repaid in U.S. dollars.
D. are issued by European firms.

A

A. are marketed in all countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Preferred stockholders:
A. receive a fixed dividend.
B. have full voting rights.
C. have priority over debt holders if the company goes out of business.
D. All of the choices are correct.

A

A. receive a fixed dividend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The correct method to handle overhead costs in capital budgeting is to:
A) ignore them in all cases.
B) ignore all except identifiable incremental amounts.
C) allocate a portion to each project.
D) allocate them to projects with the highest NPVs.

A

B) ignore all except identifiable incremental amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When the real rate of interest is less than the nominal rate of interest, then:
A) inflation must be added to the nominal rate.
B) nominal flows should be discounted with real rates.
C) inflation is expected to occur.
D) investment returns do not increase purchasing power

A

C) inflation is expected to occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

New projects or products can have an indirect effect on the firm as well as a direct effect. Which of
the following appears to be an indirect effect of launching a new product?
A) additional working capital is required. B) sales of our similar product will decline.
C) the sales force will need to be increased. D) additional machinery must be purchased.

A

B) sales of our similar product will decline.

27
Q

A cost should be considered sunk when it:
A) is replaced by costs that are not yet sunk. B) produces no additional sales revenues.
C) is fully depreciated. D) has no effect on future flows

A

D) has no effect on future flows

28
Q

Which of the following methods will provide a correct analysis for capital budgeting purposes?
A) discounting real cash flows with nominal rates.
B) discounting real cash flows with real rates.
C) discounting nominal cash flows with real rates.
D) all of the above methods will provide similar results

A

B) discounting real cash flows with real rates.

29
Q

The “recovery” of an additional investment in working capital is assumed to:
A) be a sunk cost.
B) occur at the end of the project’s life.
C) occur whenever the project first shows a profit.
D) occur at the beginning of the project’s life.

A

B) occur at the end of the project’s life.

30
Q

The value of a proposed capital budgeting project depends upon the:
A) increase in total sales produced.
B) total cash flows produced.
C) accounting profits produced.
D) incremental cash flows produced.

A

D) incremental cash flows produced.

31
Q

Working capital will affect incremental cash flows if:
A) current liabilities change more than current assets.
B) inventory changes from previous levels.
C) current assets change more than current liabilities.
D) net working capital changes from previous levels

A

D) net working capital changes from previous levels

32
Q

Which of the following statements regarding investment in working capital is incorrect?
A) working capital is recovered at the end of the project.
B) the working capital may change during the life of the project.
C) investment in working capital, unlike investment in plant and equipment, represents a positive
cash flow.
D) the cash flow is measured by the change in working capital, not the level of working capital.

A

C) investment in working capital, unlike investment in plant and equipment, represents a positive
cash flow.

33
Q

The additional inventory investment that is often required for new projects can be partially
funded by:
A) reducing accounts receivable.
B) increasing accounts payable.
C) decreasing equipment purchases.
D) switching to accelerated depreciation methods.

A

B) increasing accounts payable.

34
Q

Market interest rates have risen substantially in the five years since an investor purchased
Treasury bonds that were offering a 7 percent return. If the investor sells now she is likely to
receive:
A. greater than a 7 percent total return.
B. less than a 7 percent total return.
C. a 7 percent total rate of return.
D. a 7 percent nominal return but less than a 7 percent real return.

A

B. less than a 7 percent total return.

35
Q

Which of the following risks would be classified as a unique risk for an auto manufacturer?
A. interest rates
B. steel prices
C. business cycles
D. foreign exchange rates

A

B. steel prices

36
Q

Which of the following firms is likely to exhibit the least macro risk exposure?
A. furniture manufacturer
B. oil driller
C. dog food processor
D. auto manufacturer

A

C. dog food processor

37
Q

The risk premium that is offered on common stock is equal to the:
A. expected return on the stock.
B. real rate of return on the stock.
C. excess of expected return over a risk-free return.
D. expected return on the S&P 500 index

A

C. excess of expected return over a risk-free return.

38
Q

Given recent evidence concerning the CAPM, which of the following portfolios might be
expected to plot above the security market line?
A. a portfolio of cyclical stocks.
B. a portfolio that includes borrowed funds.
C. a portfolio of smaller companies.
D. a portfolio split between Treasury bills and the market index.

A

C. a portfolio of smaller companies.

39
Q

Treasury bonds have provided a higher historical return than Treasury bills, which can be
attributed to:
A. greater default risk.
B. a higher level of unique risk.
C. greater price risk due to longer maturities.
D. the fact that they are less frequently traded than bills.

A

C. greater price risk due to longer maturities.

40
Q

What two elements are represented in security returns?
A. a premium for market risk and for unique risk
B. a premium for unique risk and a premium for firm-specific risk
C. a premium for diversification and a premium for portfolio risk
D. a premium for time value of money and a premium for market risk

A

D. a premium for time value of money and a premium for market risk

41
Q

A stock with a Beta greater than 1.0 would be termed:
A. an aggressive stock, expected to increase more than the market increases.
B. a defensive stock, expected to decrease more than the market increases.
C. an aggressive stock, expected to decrease more than the market increases.
D. a defensive stock, expected to increase more than the market decreases

A

A. an aggressive stock, expected to increase more than the market increases.

42
Q

Investing borrowed funds in a stock portfolio will:
A. increase the Beta of the portfolio.
B. decrease the volatility of the portfolio.
C. decrease the expected return on the portfolio.
D. increase the market risk premium.

A

A. increase the Beta of the portfolio.

43
Q

If Treasury bills are yielding 10% at a time when the market risk premium is 6%, then
the:
A. market portfolio should yield 4%.
B. market portfolio should yield 6%.
C. market portfolio should yield 16%.
D. market portfolio should yield 22%

A

C. market portfolio should yield 16%.

44
Q

The line plotted to fit observations of a stock’s returns versus the market’s returns
determines the:
A. security market line.
B. Beta of the stock.
C. market risk premium.
D. capital asset pricing model.

A

B. Beta of the stock.

45
Q

Why do stock market investors appear not to be concerned with unique risks when
calculating expected rates of return?
A. there is no method to quantify unique risks.
B. unique risks are assumed to be diversified away.
C. unique risks are compensated by the risk-free rate.
D. Beta includes a component to compensate unique risk.

A

B. unique risks are assumed to be diversified away.

46
Q

What is the difference between a majority voting system and a cumulative voting system?

A

each shareholder casts one vote per share for each director seat available. The candidates who receive the most votes (a majority) are elected.

shareholders have the ability to allocate their total votes in any way they choose across one or more candidates.

47
Q

how beta is different from Sigma?

A

Beta: Measures a stock’s volatility relative to the overall market. A beta of 1 means the stock moves with the market, greater than 1 indicates higher volatility, and less than 1 means lower volatility. It reflects systematic risk (market risk).

Sigma: Refers to the standard deviation of a stock’s returns. It measures the total risk (both systematic and unsystematic) by showing how much the stock’s returns deviate from its average. A higher sigma means higher variability and risk in the stock’s returns.

48
Q

debt with more than one year remaining to maturity is called?

Funded debt
Unfunded debt
Shrinking debt
Owed Debt

A

Funded debt

49
Q

debt due in less than one year is called?
Funded debt
Unfunded debt
Shrinking debt
Owed Debt

A

Unfunded debt

50
Q

Fund established to retire debt before maturity is called?
Back up Fund
Sinking fund
Tertiary Fund
Collateral Fund

A

Sinking fund

51
Q

bond that may be repurchased by the firm before maturity at a specified call price is called?
callable bond
Repurchasable Bond
Non Secure Bond
Secured Bond

A

callable bond

52
Q

replacing an old bond issue with a new one by the issue is called?

Reinstating
Bond Replacement
Refunding
Eurobond

A

Refunding

53
Q

Debt that may be repaid in bankruptcy only after senior debt is repaid is called?

Secured debt
Subordinate Debt
Interest free debt
Mature Debt

A

Subordinate Debt

54
Q

Debt that has the first claim on specified collateral (assets) in the event of default is called?

Non Secured debt
First Claim Debt
Secured Debt
Foreign Debt

A

Debt that has the first claim on specified collateral (assets) in the event of default.

55
Q

The risk that a bond issuer may default on its obligations

Bond risk
Default risk
Secured Risk
Issuer Risk

A

Default risk

56
Q

Dollars held on deposit in banks outside the US.

Foreign Dollars
International Dollars
Euro Dollars
Deposited Dollars

A

Euro Dollars

57
Q

Bond denominated in the currency of one country but issued to investors in other countries.

Eurobond
Non-traditional Bond
Foreign Bond
Universal Bond

A

Eurobond

58
Q

Bond issued in the currency of their country for which the borrower is from another country.

Eurobond
Foreign Bond
Universal Bond
International Bond

A

Foreign Bond

59
Q

the bonds are sold to anyone who wishes to buy, and once they have been issued they can be freely traded in the securities markets.

Public Issue
Federal Issue
Provincial Issue
Private Issue

A

Public Issue

60
Q

issue is sold directly to a small number of institutional investors without a public offering. Privately placed bonds generally cannot be resold to individuals in Canada but only to other qualified institutional investors.

Public Placement
Primary Placement
Priority Placement
Private Placement

A

Private Placement

61
Q

Restriction on a firm to protect bondholders. For example, restrictions on amount of debt a firm can issue

Restrictive Barriers
Protective Covenants
Secured Covenants
Privacy Laws

A

Protective Covenants

62
Q

Other financial arrangements may look like debt but are treated differently in the accounts. Leases are long term rental agreements

Mortgages
Leases
Loan
Debt

A

Leases

63
Q

Which of the following provisions on a bond would increase the coupon rate at which the firm can issue the bond?
An option to convert the bonds into shares
A call provision
A sinking fund provision
A provision of specific collateral for the bond
A restriction on further borrowing

A

A call provision