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Research Studies Chapters 1-4 > RESEARCH STUDIES FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

RESEARCH STUDIES FINAL EXAM Flashcards

RESEARCH STUDIES FINAL EXAM

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of business research?
A) To decrease business performance
B) To mobilize decision-makers to take appropriate actions
C) To implement business strategies
D) To increase market competition

A

B) To mobilize decision-makers to take appropriate actions

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2
Q

What is the main driver behind business research?
A) Business Tactics
B) Organizational Mission
C) Market Trends
D) Technological Advances

A

B) Organizational Mission

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3
Q

When should research not be conducted?
A) When information can improve decision-making
B) When there are insufficient resources
C) When the information supports a critical decision
D) When business goals are unclear

A

B) When there are insufficient resources

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4
Q

Which type of study aims to describe characteristics of a phenomenon?
A) Predictive
B) Descriptive
C) Explanatory
D) Reporting

A

B) Descriptive

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5
Q

What kind of study attempts to forecast future outcomes?
A) Descriptive
B) Predictive
C) Explanatory
D) Reporting

A

B) Predictive

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6
Q

Which of the following is an ethical violation in research?
A) Breaking confidentiality
B) Explaining participant rights
C) Obtaining informed consent
D) Do no harm

A

A) Breaking confidentiality

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7
Q

What ethical principle emphasizes avoiding harm to participants?
A) Independent Variable
B) Dependent Variable
C) Do no harm
D) Informed Consent

A

C) Do no harm

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8
Q

Which of the following is a synonym for an independent variable (IV)?
A) Criterion
B) Response
C) Predictor
D) Consequence

A

C) Predictor

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9
Q

What is an extraneous variable (EV)?
A) The main cause in an experiment
B) A variable that is measured as an outcome
C) An uncontrolled variable that can affect results
D) A hypothesis variable

A

C) An uncontrolled variable that can affect results

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10
Q

What role do hypotheses play in research?
A) They eliminate data collection
B) They provide a framework for conclusions
C) They restrict research designs
D) They replace the need for variables

A

B) They provide a framework for conclusions

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11
Q

Which type of reasoning uses specific observations to form general conclusions?
A) Deductive Reasoning
B) Hypothetical Reasoning
C) Inductive Reasoning
D) Descriptive Reasoning

A

C) Inductive Reasoning

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12
Q

What is the first stage of the research process?
A) Data Analysis & Interpretation
B) Proposing Research
C) Clarifying the Research Question
D) Reporting the Results

A

C) Clarifying the Research Question

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13
Q

In which stage is a legally-binding contract typically established?
A) Clarifying the Research Question
B) Proposing Research
C) Designing the Research
D) Data Collection

A

B) Proposing Research

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14
Q

Which of the following is a primary data source?
A) Textbooks
B) Internal Records
C) Encyclopedias
D) Bibliographies

A

B) Internal Records

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15
Q

What is a characteristic of tertiary sources?
A) They provide firsthand data
B) They include interviews
C) They compile information from primary and secondary sources
D) They include laws and memos

A

C) They compile information from primary and secondary sources

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16
Q

What type of study design has a loose structure and develops hypotheses?
A) Formal Study
B) Exploratory Study
C) Ex Post Facto Study
D) Experimental Study

A

B) Exploratory Study

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17
Q

Which research design involves manipulation of one or more variables?
A) Descriptive Study
B) Experimental Study
C) Cross-sectional Study
D) Longitudinal Study

A

B) Experimental Study

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18
Q

Which sampling method involves selecting participants based on ease of access?
A) Simple Random Sampling
B) Stratified Sampling
C) Convenience Sampling
D) Cluster Sampling

A

C) Convenience Sampling

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19
Q

Which type of sampling is characterized by participants recommending others?
A) Purposive Sampling
B) Quota Sampling
C) Snowball Sampling
D) Judgment Sampling

A

C) Snowball Sampling

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20
Q

Which of these is an example of a self-administered survey?
A) Telephone Interview
B) Online Questionnaire
C) Focus Group
D) Personal Interview

A

B) Online Questionnaire

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21
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using laboratory experiments?
A) Inability to manipulate variables
B) High cost
C) Artificiality of the setting
D) Inability to replicate results

A

C) Artificiality of the setting

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22
Q

What scale measures data by classification only?
A) Interval
B) Ratio
C) Nominal
D) Ordinal

A

C) Nominal

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23
Q

Which scale includes a true zero point?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio

A

Ratio

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24
Q

What section of a research report contains a summary for busy executives?
A) Abstract/Executive Summary
B) Methodology
C) Results
D) Appendices

A

A) Abstract/Executive Summary

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25
Q

Which part of the research report provides additional but non-essential information?
A) Front Matter
B) Body
C) End Matter
D) Executive Summary

A

C) End Matter

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26
Q

What does business research aim to maximize?
A) Organizational Tactics
B) Business Goals
C) Business Performance
D) Market Competition

A

C) Business Performance

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a driver of business research?
A) Organizational Mission
B) Business Strategies
C) Personal Goals
D) Business Tactics

A

C) Personal Goals

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28
Q

Which of the following is an example of violating research ethics?
A) Explaining study benefits
B) Misrepresenting results
C) Obtaining informed consent
D) Providing confidentiality

A

B) Misrepresenting results

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29
Q

Which ethical principle ensures participants understand the risks involved?
A) Do no harm
B) Explain participant rights
C) Misrepresenting results
D) Padded invoices

A

B) Explain participant rights

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30
Q

Which variable is also known as the ‘presumed cause’?
A) Dependent Variable
B) Extraneous Variable
C) Independent Variable
D) Controlled Variable

A

C) Independent Variable

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31
Q

What is a dependent variable also called?
A) Criterion
B) Predictor
C) Antecedent
D) Stimulus

A

A) Criterion

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32
Q

Which type of study focuses on explaining reasons behind phenomena?
A) Descriptive
B) Predictive
C) Explanatory
D) Reporting

A

C) Explanatory

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33
Q

A study that forecasts future outcomes is called:
A) Explanatory
B) Reporting
C) Descriptive
D) Predictive

A

D) Predictive

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34
Q

Which is not a role of a hypothesis in research?
A) Guides the study’s direction
B) Limits data collection
C) Identifies relevant facts
D) Provides a research design framework

A

B) Limits data collection

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35
Q

Deductive reasoning moves from:
A) Specific to General
B) General to Specific
C) Theory to Hypothesis
D) Hypothesis to Theory

A

B) General to Specific

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36
Q

What happens during Stage 4 of the research process?
A) Clarifying the research question
B) Data Analysis & Interpretation
C) Proposing Research
D) Data Collection & Preparation

A

D) Data Collection & Preparation

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37
Q

Which step in the research process involves final reporting?
A) Stage 3
B) Stage 4
C) Stage 5
D) Stage 6

A

D) Stage 6

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38
Q

What type of research design begins with hypotheses and uses precise procedures?
A) Exploratory Study
B) Ex Post Facto Study
C) Formal Study
D) Cross-Sectional Study

A

C) Formal Study

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39
Q

A study that manipulates variables to observe outcomes is called:
A) Descriptive Study
B) Experimental Study
C) Ex Post Facto Study
D) Longitudinal Study

A

B) Experimental Study

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40
Q

Which sampling method ensures each population element has an equal chance of selection?
A) Convenience Sampling
B) Simple Random Sampling
C) Snowball Sampling
D) Quota Sampling

A

B) Simple Random Sampling

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41
Q

Which sampling design is most efficient for analyzing subgroups?
A) Systematic Sampling
B) Cluster Sampling
C) Stratified Sampling
D) Judgment Sampling

A

C) Stratified Sampling

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42
Q

Which survey method is typically the most cost-effective?
A) Personal Interview
B) Web-Based Survey
C) Telephone Interview
D) Focus Group

A

B) Web-Based Survey

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43
Q

Which data collection method is best for observing natural behaviors?
A) Structured Interview
B) Mechanical/Digital Observation
C) Focus Group
D) Self-Administered Survey

A

B) Mechanical/Digital Observation

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44
Q

Which scale includes both classification and order?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio

A

B) Ordinal

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45
Q

A Likert Scale is used to measure:
A) Preferences
B) Categories
C) Opinions and Attitudes
D) Numerical Data

A

C) Opinions and Attitudes

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46
Q

What part of a research report contains conclusions and recommendations?
A) Front Matter
B) Abstract
C) Body
D) End Matter

A

C) Body

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47
Q

Which section of the report typically includes charts and additional data?
A) Executive Summary
B) Technical Appendix
C) Research Overview
D) Methodology

A

B) Technical Appendix

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48
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of study?
A) Reporting
B) Explanatory
C) Descriptive
D) Critical

A

D) Critical

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49
Q

Which type of study aims to explain relationships and reasons behind events?
A) Reporting
B) Explanatory
C) Descriptive
D) Predictive

A

B) Explanatory

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50
Q

What type of ethical violation involves misleading participants?
A) Padded invoices
B) Misrepresenting results
C) Deceiving participants
D) Breaking confidentiality

A

C) Deceiving participants

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51
Q

Which is considered an ethical violation?
A) Explaining study benefits
B) Breaking confidentiality
C) Obtaining informed consent
D) Providing full disclosure

A

B) Breaking confidentiality

52
Q

Which ethical principle emphasizes avoiding harm to participants?
A) Explain study benefits
B) Do no harm
C) Deceive participants
D) Break confidentiality

A

B) Do no harm

53
Q

What must be obtained to ensure participants understand study risks?
A) Informed consent
B) Padded invoices
C) Misrepresented results
D) Disclosure agreement

A

A) Informed consent

54
Q

Which term is synonymous with an independent variable?
A) Criterion
B) Response
C) Predictor
D) Consequence

A

C) Predictor

55
Q

Which term refers to a dependent variable?
A) Stimulus
B) Antecedent
C) Criterion
D) Manipulated

A

C) Criterion

56
Q

What is the primary function of an extraneous variable?
A) To serve as a predictor
B) To be the main effect
C) To interfere with the relationship between IV and DV
D) To act as a criterion

A

C) To interfere with the relationship between IV and DV

57
Q

Which of these is NOT a role of a hypothesis?
A) Guide the study direction
B) Provide framework for conclusions
C) Suggest a research design
D) Collect raw data

A

D) Collect raw data

58
Q

What is the main purpose of the scientific method?
A) To prove a hypothesis
B) To explore random ideas
C) To systematically investigate phenomena
D) To collect data only

A

C) To systematically investigate phenomena

59
Q

Deductive reasoning moves from:
A) General to Specific
B) Specific to General
C) Observation to Theory
D) Data to Hypothesis

A

A) General to Specific

60
Q

Inductive reasoning involves:
A) Developing a theory from general principles
B) Using specific observations to form general conclusions
C) Testing a specific hypothesis
D) Collecting data to disprove a theory

A

B) Using specific observations to form general conclusions

61
Q

Which is the first stage of the research process?
A) Proposing Research
B) Designing the Research
C) Clarifying the Research Question
D) Data Collection

A

C) Clarifying the Research Question

62
Q

What is the primary goal of clarifying the research question?
A) Identifying the management dilemma
B) Collecting raw data
C) Writing the final report
D) Choosing a hypothesis

A

A) Identifying the management dilemma

63
Q

A research proposal typically includes:
A) A list of participants
B) Timing, budgets, and extent
C) Only the research hypothesis
D) The conclusion of the study

A

B) Timing, budgets, and extent

64
Q

What is the purpose of research design?
A) To analyze data
B) To write conclusions
C) To provide a blueprint for the study
D) To generate raw data

A

C) To provide a blueprint for the study

65
Q

Which of the following is a primary data source?
A) Textbooks
B) Internal records
C) Newspapers
D) Encyclopedias

A

B) Internal records

66
Q

Which of these is a secondary source of information?
A) Speeches
B) Internal records
C) Textbooks
D) Letters

A

C) Textbooks

67
Q

What factor is NOT considered when evaluating information sources?
A) Authority
B) Format
C) Audience
D) Opinion

A

D) Opinion

68
Q

Which of the following best defines research design?
A) A plan for conducting a study
B) A type of data analysis
C) A research hypothesis
D) A literature review

A

A) A plan for conducting a study

69
Q

Which study type has a loose structure?
A) Exploratory
B) Formal
C) Cross-sectional
D) Experimental

A

A) Exploratory

70
Q

How many participants are typically in a focus group?
A) 2-4
B) 6-10
C) 15-20
D) 20-30

A

B) 6-10

71
Q

Which study examines data at a single point in time?
A) Longitudinal
B) Cross-sectional
C) Experimental
D) Explanatory

A

B) Cross-sectional

72
Q

Descriptive studies primarily aim to:
A) Explain relationships
B) Describe characteristics
C) Predict outcomes
D) Manipulate variables

A

B) Describe characteristics

73
Q

What is a key feature of an experiment?
A) Loose structure
B) Manipulation of variables
C) Reporting only
D) Lack of control group

A

B) Manipulation of variables

74
Q

Qualitative research primarily focuses on:
A) Numbers and statistics
B) Understanding meanings and experiences
C) Testing hypotheses
D) Manipulating variables

A

B) Understanding meanings and experiences

75
Q

Quantitative research is best suited for:
A) Theory building
B) Describing experiences
C) Theory testing
D) Open-ended responses

A

C) Theory testing

76
Q

Which of the following is a type of non-probability sampling?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Stratified sampling
C) Purposive sampling
D) Cluster sampling

A

C) Purposive sampling

77
Q

The interview question hierarchy progresses from:
A) Broad to Specific
B) Specific to Broad
C) Closed to Open-ended
D) Random to Structured

A

A) Broad to Specific

78
Q

Which interview format has a predefined set of questions?
A) Unstructured
B) Semi-structured
C) Structured
D) Open-ended

A

C) Structured

79
Q

In which observer-participant relationship is the observer’s presence unknown?
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) Known
D) Unknown

A

D) Unknown

80
Q

Which method uses technology to record behavior?
A) Structured interview
B) Focus groups
C) Mechanical observation
D) Unstructured interview

A

C) Mechanical observation

81
Q

What is required to establish causal evidence?
A) Agreement between IV and DV
B) Random data collection
C) Open-ended questions
D) Focus group discussions

A

A) Agreement between IV and DV

82
Q

Which is an advantage of experiments?
A) Artificiality of labs
B) Ability to manipulate IV
C) Non-representative samples
D) High cost

A

B) Ability to manipulate IV

83
Q

Internal validity refers to:
A) Generalizability of results
B) Control over extraneous variables
C) Replication of results
D) Cost of the study

A

B) Control over extraneous variables

84
Q

In an after-only case study, measurements are taken:
A) Before and after treatment
B) Only before treatment
C) Only after treatment
D) At random intervals

A

C) Only after treatment

85
Q

What is a characteristic of a one-group pretest-posttest design?
A) No control group
B) Random assignment
C) Multiple groups
D) Only posttest measurements

A

A) No control group

86
Q

What differentiates a pretest-posttest control group design?
A) No pretest measurement
B) Only one group
C) Random assignment with a control group
D) No posttest measurement

A

C) Random assignment with a control group

87
Q

What is a key feature of a posttest-only control group design?
A) No pretest
B) Pretest and posttest
C) Only one group
D) Non-random assignment

A

A) No pretest

88
Q

Which is a common source of error in research?
A) Exact measurements
B) Interviewer bias
C) Random assignment
D) Control groups

A

B) Interviewer bias

89
Q

Which is an example of a self-administered survey?
A) Telephone interview
B) Online questionnaire
C) Face-to-face interview
D) Focus group

A

B) Online questionnaire

90
Q

Which of the following is a type of web-based survey service?
A) Telephone survey
B) Fee-based service
C) Focus group
D) Face-to-face interview

A

B) Fee-based service

91
Q

Which level of measurement includes both order and a true zero point?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio

A

D) Ratio

92
Q

Which of the following is an example of nominal data?
A) Height in centimeters
B) Customer satisfaction rating
C) Types of fruit
D) Temperature in Celsius

A

C) Types of fruit

93
Q

A balanced scale provides:
A) More positive options
B) An equal number of positive and negative options
C) Only negative options
D) No neutral option

A

B) An equal number of positive and negative options

94
Q

In a forced-choice question, respondents:
A) Can skip the question
B) Must choose an answer
C) Can select multiple answers
D) Provide open-ended responses

A

B) Must choose an answer

95
Q

What is a common number of points on a Likert scale?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10

A

C) 5

96
Q

A dichotomous scale typically has how many options?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Seven

A

A) Two

97
Q

In a single-response scale, respondents:
A) Select one answer
B) Select multiple answers
C) Write an open-ended response
D) Rank their answers

A

A) Select one answer

98
Q

In a multiple-response scale, respondents:
A) Choose only one option
B) Can choose more than one option
C) Rank their answers
D) Provide a written response

A

B) Can choose more than one option

99
Q

A Likert scale is commonly used to measure:
A) Yes/No responses
B) Levels of agreement
C) Numerical data
D) Open-ended feedback

A

B) Levels of agreement

100
Q

In a constant sum scale, respondents:
A) Assign points to various options
B) Choose only one option
C) Provide a yes/no answer
D) Rank options

A

A) Assign points to various options

101
Q

In a paired comparison scale, respondents:
A) Compare two items at a time
B) Assign points to items
C) Select multiple options
D) Provide open-ended feedback

A

A) Compare two items at a time

102
Q

What should be considered when determining question content?
A) Participant’s willingness to answer
B) Researcher’s opinion
C) Length of the survey
D) Number of questions

A

A) Participant’s willingness to answer

103
Q

Effective question wording should be:
A) Ambiguous
B) Clear and concise
C) Complex
D) Long and detailed

A

B) Clear and concise

104
Q

Open-ended questions allow respondents to:
A) Select predefined options
B) Provide detailed answers in their own words
C) Rank items
D) Assign numerical values

A

B) Provide detailed answers in their own words

105
Q

What is a sampling frame?
A) The entire population
B) A list of elements in the population
C) A subset of the population
D) A complete count of the population

A

B) A list of elements in the population

105
Q

The funnel approach starts with:
A) Specific questions
B) Broad questions
C) Open-ended questions
D) Dichotomous questions

A

B) Broad questions

106
Q

Which is an advantage of sampling?
A) Higher cost
B) Greater accuracy
C) Time-consuming
D) Larger population

A

B) Greater accuracy

107
Q

Which of these is a probability sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Judgment sampling
C) Stratified sampling
D) Snowball sampling

A

C) Stratified sampling

108
Q

When should you use a larger sample?
A) When the population is small
B) When greater precision is needed
C) When time is limited
D) When resources are limited

A

B) When greater precision is needed

109
Q

What happens if a sampling frame is incorrect?
A) Increases accuracy
B) Reduces errors
C) Introduces bias
D) Improves validity

A

C) Introduces bias

110
Q

What is a key characteristic of simple random sampling?
A) Selection based on judgment
B) Every element has an equal chance of selection
C) Selection based on convenience
D) Selection based on quotas

A

B) Every element has an equal chance of selection

111
Q

In systematic sampling, elements are selected:
A) Randomly
B) At regular intervals
C) Based on convenience
D) Using quotas

A

B) At regular intervals

112
Q

Stratified sampling involves:
A) Dividing the population into subgroups
B) Selecting the easiest elements
C) Selecting every nth element
D) Using a snowball approach

A

A) Dividing the population into subgroups

113
Q

Which is an advantage of cluster sampling?
A) Lowest cost per sample
B) Highest statistical efficiency
C) Requires a complete list
D) Difficult to implement

A

A) Lowest cost per sample

114
Q

Which is an example of non-probability sampling?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Cluster sampling
C) Convenience sampling
D) Stratified sampling

A

C) Convenience sampling

115
Q

What is precoding in survey research?
A) Coding responses after collection
B) Assigning codes before data collection
C) Skipping data coding
D) Eliminating invalid responses

A

B) Assigning codes before data collection

116
Q

How are open-ended responses typically coded?
A) Using predefined categories
B) Numerically
C) Using participant names
D) With yes/no codes

A

A) Using predefined categories

117
Q

Which is an example of dirty data?
A) Accurate entries
B) Duplicate records
C) Complete data
D) Validated responses

A

B) Duplicate records

118
Q

What does a frequency table display?
A) Relationships between variables
B) The distribution of a single variable
C) Correlations
D) Regression analysis

A

B) The distribution of a single variable

119
Q

Cross-tabulation in SPSS is used to:
A) Summarize one variable
B) Compare two or more variables
C) Clean data
D) Rank responses

A

B) Compare two or more variables

120
Q

A normal distribution curve is:
A) Skewed left
B) Skewed right
C) Symmetrical
D) Bimodal

A

C) Symmetrical

121
Q

A correlation measures the:
A) Difference between two groups
B) Strength and direction of a relationship
C) Mean of a dataset
D) Variance of a variable

A

B) Strength and direction of a relationship

122
Q

Variance measures:
A) The average value
B) How spread out the data is
C) The strength of correlation
D) The mode of the data

A

B) How spread out the data is

123
Q

Which measure represents the middle value in an ordered dataset?
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Median
D) Range

A

C) Median

124
Q

Audience variance refers to differences in:
A) Research methods
B) Participant demographics
C) Data accuracy
D) Statistical analysis

A

B) Participant demographics

125
Q

Which section of a report includes the title page and table of contents?
A) Body of the report
B) End matter
C) Front matter
D) Technical appendix

A

C) Front matter

126
Q

Which part of the report provides a brief overview of the entire study?
A) Research overview
B) Executive summary
C) Technical appendix
D) Implementation strategy

A

B) Executive summary

Research Studies Chapters 1-4 (9 decks)

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