Aud/Vestib Anatomy (5160) Flashcards
1
Q
belly
A
ventral
2
Q
tail or end
A
caudal
3
Q
near to the point of attachment
near midline
A
proximal
4
Q
on the opposite side
A
contralateral
5
Q
relating to organs of the body
A
visceral
6
Q
divides body into right and left parts
A
sagittal
7
Q
relating to wrist
A
carpal
8
Q
relating to elbow/forearm
A
cubital
9
Q
Abdominal or relating to the abdomen and membranes
A
peritoneal
10
Q
Relating to cartilage
A
chondro
11
Q
2 types of cell membrane proteins and describe their function/purpose in a couple sentences.
A
Cell membrane proteins: 1. Proteins form selectively permeable transmembrane ion channels determine the electrical activity of the cell 2. Carrier proteins to mediate transport of molecules (e.g. sugars and amino acids) and can be passive or active (using ATP) 3. Some proteins act as enzymes to catalyze biochemical reactions 4. Some proteins are receptor sites for hormones, neurotransmitters, drugs 5. Some proteins form recognition sites unique for each person that work with the immune system to identify the cell as being part of the body and not an invader.
12
Q
The energy source for a cell is provided by the
A
mitochondria
13
Q
describe 2 important functions of the integumentary system
A
Protection—the skin provides a protective barrier and prevents water loss. Skin protects from toxins or bacteria getting in. Skin protects us from UV exposure due to the melanocytes. Heat control—through sweat evaporating to cool us and blood vessels constricting or dilating base on our temperature Sensory receptors—the skin is filled with man receptors to pick up environmental stimuli and send information to the brain (such as touch, vibration, pain, temperature). Vitamin D—I did not mention much about this in the lecture, but when we are in the sunlight, the skin helps with production of Vitamin D needed for the absorption of calcium for health muscles and bones. Excretion- the skin helps with a small amount of excretion through sweat which excretes waste product such as urea, uric acid and other organic substances.
14
Q
Which types of cells act as part of the immune system to reabsorb old or damaged bone?
A
Osteoclasts
15
Q
Rich in blood supply and forms red and white blood cells
A
red bone marrow
16
Q
Soft inner portion of the intervertebral disk
A
nucleus pulposous
17
Q
Incomplete break/fracture, bone can be bent and broken on outer surface, more common in kids
A
greenstick fracture
18
Q
Over curvature of upper thoracic region (“hunchback”)
A
kyphosis
19
Q
what is meant by axial skeleton as compared to appendicular skeleton and list the basic basic structures which are part of each
A
The axial skeleton refers to the center or core of the body and contains the skull (head), vertebrae and ribs. The appendicular skeleton refers to the appendages (arms and legs) and consists of the shoulder, humerus and other arm and hand bones and the hip, legs and feet.
20
Q
what are the 4 parts of the temporal bones
A
petrous
mastoid
tympanic
squamous
21
Q
Which nerve bundles travel through the internal auditory canal
A
CN VII facial nerve
CN VIII cochlear division
CN VIII inferior vestibular nerve
CN VIII superior vestibular nerve
22
Q
Which type of tissue wraps individual muscle cell/fibers?
A
endomysium
23
Q
name of the hidden lobe of the brain that deals with emotions and which can be seen above the corpus callosum on the midsagittal surface?
A
limbic lobe
24
Q
How many cervical spinal nerves are there?
A
8
25
The frontal lobe is _______________ to the occipital lobe.
anterior
26
The medial portion of the temporal bone which houses the middle ear and inner ear structures is
petrous portion
27
Which of the follow is a type of loose connective tissue?
Adipose tissue
28
What type of gland in the skin produces earwax?
Ceruminous glands which are modified sebaceous glands
29
algia
pain
30
inflammation or infection
itis
31
tumor
oma
32
drainage
rhea
33
study of
ology
34
Where does the 8th cervical spinal nerve exit the vertebral column?
Under the cervical 7 vertebra and above the thoracic 1 vertebra
35
Cranial nerves VII and VIII enter/exit the brainstem at the
Pontomedullary junction (also called the cerebellopontine angle)
36
what structures make up the brainstem
medulla oblongata
pons
midbrain
37
Which type of axonal transport carries matrix proteins and subcellular organelles from the soma to the terminal boutons of an axon?
Slow anterograde axoplasmic flow
38
Which two extrensic eye muscles are NOT innervated by CN III?
super oblique
lateral rectus
39
Where is the insula located?
Behind the lateral fissure and it is covered by the overlying opercula of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes
40
Which fissure separates the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes ?
Lateral fissure (also called the Sylvian fissure or sulcus)
41
What organelles in the cell are the site where protein synthesis occurs?
On the free and bound ribosomes
42
The peripheral nervous system consists of
The 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and the autonomic nervous system
43
what is the name of the lobe of the brain that contains the primary visual cortex
Occipital lobe
44
The spinal cord is _______________ to the brainstem.
inferior
45
What cellular organelles provides the energy or power for a cell to function?
Mitochondria
46
describe the sodium-potassium pump
The main function of the pump is to maintain the resting potential by actively moving sodium out of the cell and potassium back in to restore the proper balance.
47
The 4 types of tissues in the human body are categorized as epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue and nervous tissue. Which of the following is NOT a type of connective tissue?
Mesothelium
48
towards the top or upper portion
superior
49
toward the belly
ventral
50
toward the back or backbone
dorsal
51
toward the tail
caudal
52
away from the point of attachment or origin or away from midline
Distal
53
Which of the following is rich in blood supply and forms red and white blood cells?
Red bone marrow
54
List four specific structures that course through the internal auditory canal
CN 7 facial
CN 8 Cochlear division
superior vestibular nerve
inferior vestibular nerve
or even labyrinthine artery
55
List the three meningeal layers and state their location in relation to the skull and the brain tissue.
PAD
Pia mater is closest to the brain tissue and dips into the sulci and fissures.
Arachnoid mater is above the pia (in the middle of the PAD) and has a subarachnoid space below it with cerebrospinal fluid.
Dura mater is the thick leathery covering that is the outer most meningeal layer. It is closest to the bone of the skull.
56
he homunculus (representation of the body) has the head near the lateral fissure, the arm in the middle of the strip and the leg most superiorly with the leg dipping into the longitudinal fissure
true
57
What is the name of the lower leg muscle that attaches to the Achilles tendon, and causes pointing of the foot (as in standing on your toes) when contracted?
gastrocnemius
58
What is the name of the tissue that wraps bundles of muscle fibers
Perimysium
59
What is the location of the primary motor cortex (M1) on the cerebrum?
On the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
60
In anatomical position, the thumb and the radius bone are located _______________________ to the ulna and pinky/little finger
lateral
61
armpit
axillary
62
cheek
buccal
63
back of hand & top of foot
dorsum
64
pertaining to abdomen
peritoneal
65
Pertaining to the forearm from the elbow to the finger tips
cubital
66
neck
cervical
67
Which region of the human skeleton refers to the central core, including the skull, sternum, vertebrae and ribs?
axial skeleton
68
ear
oto
69
kidneys
nephr/o
70
muscle
my/o
71
extremitis/appendages
acr/o
72
absence of or without
a/an
73
bone
oste/o
74
tumor
oma
75
inflammation/infection
itis
76
pain
algia
77
nose
rhin/o
78
What portion of a neuron usually has increased surface area (spikes or protrusions) to receive information to be carried to the soma?
dendrites
79
Which terms refer to bones of the foot and toes?
Tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges
80
What type of joints are the shoulder joint and the hip joint?
ball and socket joints
81
In the rib cage, which ribs do not directly attach to the sternum, and either attach to the other ribs via the costal cartilage or do not connect at the front of the rib cage at all?
The false ribs (8-12)
82
Bones are connected to bones to form joints by what type of structures?
ligaments
83
What is the neurotransmitter for the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine
84
involuntary muscle in gastrointestinal tract and other viscera
smooth muscle
85
striated voluntary muscle for movements of the body
skeletal muscle
86
striated muscle controlled by the autonomic nervous system to make the heart pump
cardiac muscle
87
State the name of the two-headed arm muscle that is the main agonist for flexion at the elbow and list an antagonistic muscle and synergistic muscle or fixator.
The agonist causing the action = biceps
Antagonist = triceps
Then list either of the items below
Synergist = brachioradialis and brachialis
Fixator = rotator cuff muscles
88
Which term for muscles based on their actions means to bring a limb or structure toward midline?
Adductors
89
The linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts are made up of what type of body tissue?
Mucous membrane
90
Which organelles in cells act as scavengers and contain enzymes to break down complex molecules or even digest other organelles and the cell?
Lysosomes
91
Approximately how long is the average adult ear canal?
2.5 cm
92
Based on the 5 important functions of cell membrane proteins, clearly describe 3 of the important functions of such proteins that are on or in the cell membranes?
Transmembrane ion channel
Carrier proteins
Receptor sites
Recognition sites
Proteins that act as enzymes
93
Which layer of the integumentary system is composed of dead, keratinized epithelial cells on the surface and contains melanocytes to produce melanin?
Epidermis
94
Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system?
To provide a covering and protective barrier against invaders such as bacteria
To produce and store vitamin A and C for the body
To protect the body from ultraviolet (UV) rays
To serve as site for numerous receptors to pick up environmental stimuli such as touch, vibration, temperature and more
To produce and store vitamin A and C for the body
95
At a neuromuscular junction, a nerve dumps neurotransmitter into the synapse and the muscle fiber is stimulated. When ion channels on the nerve fiber open, what ions are going to rush in to depolarize the muscle?
Na+
96
What is a function of the pinna and the external ear canal?
Collect and funnel sound to the tympanic membrane.
or
Protect the ear because the S-curve shape, skin and wax help to keep the ear canal and tympanic membrane safe from objects, dirt, insects and infection.
97
A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break/fracture that is more common in young children because the bone can be bent and broken on the outer surface without causing a complete fracture.
true
98
Blood and CSF and waste products leave the venous sinuses and EXIT the skull via what vascular structures?
jugular veins
99
What is a main function of the outer hair cells of the cochlea?
To serve as the biological mechanical amplifiers of the auditory system by elongating and shortening
100
Which auditory brainstem structure/s are the first to receive binaural input and therefore serve to analyze interaural differences for the purpose of spatial localization?
SOC
101
What type and degree of hearing loss could occur from outer hair cell loss without inner hair cell loss?
Sensory, mild hearing loss
102
In the cochlea, bending the stereocilia towards the tallest stereocilia
results in depolarization
103
What membrane separates the scala media from the scala vestibuli?
reissners membrane
104
The anterior semicircular canal on the right side of the head is paired with which semicircular canal on the left side of the head with respect to being in the same plane and providing input to the CNS?
posterior canal
105
Which cranial nerve provides the main motor input for the the acoustic reflex
cn vii
106
Briefly state two ways in which auditory nerve fibers are able to encode the frequency of an auditory stimulus.
The frequency of an auditory stimulus is encoded by: 1) Tonotopic organization (also known as frequency or place coding) and 2) Phase-locking-with action potential firing locking to a specific phase of incoming sound
107
108
Glutamate is considered to be
An excitatory neurotransmitter in the auditory/vestibular system
109
What brainstem nuclei are the first stopping point for incoming auditory projections from the cochlea being carried on cranial nerve VIII?
Cochlear Nuclei
110
What is the name of the fibers that connect Broca's area to Wernicke's area?
The arcuate fasciculus
111
Cranial nerve VI is called the
Abducens nerve
112
Which inner ear fluid is able to flow through a duct to reach the subarachnoid space and is thought to be a derivative of CSF?
Perilymph
113
What factor provides the largest contribution the the impedance matching function served by the the middle ear so that sound energy can be converted from acoustic waves to mechanical vibration and then hydraulic/fluid movement in the cochlear without the loss of most of the sound energy?
The surface area difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window
114
What is the location of the primary motor cortex (M1) on the cerebrum?
On the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
115
How is the resting membrane potential maintained in neurons and muscle fibers?
By the action of the sodium-potassium pump which actively takes 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions in to maintain and re-establish the proper ion balance
116
When an auditory stimulus reaches the cochlea what occurs to excite inner hair cells?
Potassium flows in through the open ion channels to depolarize the cell, causing a receptor potential
117
What is Scarpa's ganglia?
Vestibular nerve cell bodies
118
Which statement best describes the tonotopic organization of the basilar membrane?
High frequencies are received at the base and low frequencies are received at the apex.
119
What structure/s are located in the hypotympanum?
Opening of the Eustachian tube in the middle ear
120
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Eustachian tube?
To remain open at all times to improve auditory resonances
121
list the acoustic reflex 4 neuron reflex arc
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then to the medial superior olive, then to the facial motor nucleus, then down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
122
Which lists includes three main cranial nerves that innervate portions f the pinna and ear canal to pick up sensations on the skin?
CN V, CN VII and CN X
123
The average overall human ear canal resonance peaks between..
2000 and 5000 Hz
124
CN I
Olfactory nerve for the sense of smell
CN I
125
Vagus nerve that is a mixed nerve with many functions including some innervation of the ear canal, resulting in the Vagus reflex
CN X
126
Facial nerve innervating muscles of facial expression and the stapedius muscle of the middle ear
CN VII
127
Abducens nerve innervating the lateral rectus eye muscle
CN VI
128
Trochlear nerve innervating the superior oblique eye musclE
CN IV
129
Which of the following is a main function of the cerebellum?
Assisting with coordination for our balance and movements
130
receiving information to carry to the soma
Dendrites
131
synapse on the next neuron or effector
Terminal bouton
132
carry information away from the soma
AXON
133
neuron like CN VIII fibers
Bipolar neurons
134
(also called unipolar) neuron not found in mammals/humans
monopolar
135
The most common type of temporal bone fracture can involve bleeding from the ear canal and conductive hearing loss from possible damage to the ossicles. Which type of fracture would this be?
Longitudinal fracture (or otic capsule sparing)
136
Which answer best describes the function of the outer ear?
To gather and funnel sound while enhancing some frequencies through the ear canal resonance
137
Which of the following statements regarding the tympanic membrane is FALSE?
The tip of the malleus adjoins the tympanic memrbane at the umbo
Because of the malleus attachment, the TM is pulled in slightly in a concave fashion in a healthy ear
The pars tensa makes up the majority of the tympanic membrane whereas the pars flaccida is much smaller in size
The cone of light is a visible phenomena produced in the anterior-inferior quadrant in a healthy ear
The tympanic membrane is rich in blood supply which is why it can appear red under certain conditions
The pars flaccida makes up the majority of the tympanic membrane whereas the pars tensa is much smaller in size
138
Describe the role of the middle ear in sound transmission and list the 3 factors that contribute to this function. Why is this necessary?
Air has very low impedance (resistance to flow of energy) whereas fluid has much higher impedance. Sound energy that is propagated from an air medium to a fluid medium would therefore lose considerable energy if not assisted by other means.
The middle ear tympanic membrane and ossicular chain participate in an impedance matching mechanism to offset this change in impedance from air to fluid. This is accomplished first via the lever action of the ossicles which work like a fulcrum and result in a 1.3 dB pressure gain (3 dB sound gain) through mechanical action. Second, the tympanic membrane and oval window are involved in a process often called the spiked heel effect whereby the pressure exerted on a large area (the TM) is coned down on a much smaller area (the stapes footplate). The TM is about 21x larger than the stapes footplate which results in about a 19dB pressure gain (25 dB sound gain). Combined these two processes result in about a 28dB gain in sound energy which offsets the change lost from switching mediums.
139
physiologic functions of the Eustachian Tube
1. To drain middle ear secretions
2. To ventilate (pressurize) the middle ear space continuous with external enviroment
3. To protect the ear from nasopharyngeal sounds & secretions
140
Cells in the vestibular sensory areas that produce endoymph
dark cells
141
Cells in the cochlea that produce endolymph
marginal cells of the stria vascularis
142
The structure that carries endolymph away to the dura of the meninges to be reabsorbed
endolymphatic duct & sac
143
Area of the membranous labyrinth that connects the cochlear duct/scala media to the saccule
ductus reuniens
144
fluid in the scala media
endolymph
145
forms ceiling of scala media separating it from the scala vestibuli
reissner's membranecc
146
accessory structure of organ of corti that helps bend/shear stereocilia
tectorial membrane
147
single row of sensory cells in organ of corti that mainly send afferent signals to the brian
IHCs
148
forms floor of the scala media & organ of corti sits on this
basilar membrane
149
structure of the outer wall of the cochlear duct and organ of corti that is vascular and maintains the EP
stria vascularis
150
The basilar membrane near the apex of the cochlea is wider and more flexible which allows low frequency sounds to be coded at the apex
true
151
High frequency sound energy displaces the basilar membrane closer to the stapes footplate and codes for high frequency sounds at the base of the cochlea
true
152
Outer hair cells have their stereocilia tips embedded in the tectorial membrane
true
153
The tonotopic organization of the auditory system is maintained within the structure of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Fibers carrying low frequency information form the outer part of CNVIII whereas those carrying high frequency information form the core or inner part of CNVIII.
false
Fibers from the apical end of the cochlea carrying low frequency information form the core or inner part of CNVIII whereas those from the basal end of the cochlea carrying high frequency information form the outer part of CNVIII.
154
When the stereocilia of the cochlear hair cells are sheared from the shortest towards the tallest what occurs in these receptors?
The tiplinks are pulled open and K+ potassium rushes inside to depolarize the receptor which is an excitatory response
155
Voltage-gated calcium channels in hair cells provide the trigger for neurotrasmitter release in the auditory system.
true
156
describe the efferent innervation of the cochlea
Medial olivocochlear bundle fibers innervate outer hair cells directly to modulate the outer hair cells
157
What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter for hearing?
glutamate
158
organization of afferent innervation of the cochlea from CN VIII neurons
Many afferent fibers synapse on a single inner hair cell so the information diverges onto many neurons
159
State where CN VIII enters/exits from the brainstem.
Pontomedullary junction
At pons and medulla
Cerebellopontine angle
160
The primary source of afferent activity within the auditory system comes from the _______________.
The fibers from these structures exit to form a bundle with cell bodies along the turns of the cochlea called the _______________ . (name of the cochlear cell bodies)
IHCs
spiral ganglia
161
Describe the 2 ways that cranial nerve VIII fibers encode the frequency of a sound.
AND
Describe the 3 ways that cranial nerve VIII fibers encode the intensity of a sound.
One way CN VIII fibers encode frequency of a sound is through the tonotopic organization of the basilar membrane. High frequencies are at the base of the cochlea because it is narrow and stiff where the low frequencies are at the apex of the cochlea because it is wider and more floppy.
The second way the fibers encode frequency of a sound is through phase locking. The fibers lock onto the push and pull (compressions and rarefactions) of the stapes footplate in the oval window.
One way CN VIII fibers encode intensity of a sound is through the rate of firing. Because they are all or non, a low sound will cause them to fire more slowly and a louder sound will cause them to fire faster.
The second way they encode intensity is by how many fibers are firing. Louder sounds will stimulate the basilar membrane more, causing the inner hair cells to be stimulated more and in turn causing more fibers to be stimulated.
The third way CN VIII fibers encode intensity is by which fibers are firing. Not one single fiber fires for all types of sounds. Some fire for soft sounds (0-40 dB), some for medium sounds (40-80 dB) and others for loud sounds (80-120 dB).
162
What structures pass through (travel in) the Internal Auditory Canal (IAC
Cochlear division of cranial nerve VIII
Labyrinthine Artery
Superior Vestibular Nerve branch of cranial nerve VIII
Inferior Vestibular Nerve branch of cranial nerve VIII
FN
163
When discussing the auditory-vestibular system, "peripheral" refers to structures from the outer, middle and inner ear or labyrinth as well as the CN VIII, whereas "central" refers to everything from the cochlear nucleus to the cortex.
true
164
Along the central auditory nervous system (CANS) pathway, first set of nuclei in the brainstem to receive binaural information are the....
SOC
165
The lateral superior olive aids in the localization of sounds by mainly processing
Interaural intensity differences for high frequencies
166
The obligatory relay station of the ascending auditory pathway in the brainstem where nearly all ascending auditory fibers synapse before leaving the brainstem is the..
inferior colliculus
167
Along the central auditory nervous system (CANS) pathway, the long bundle of axons that carries ascending information from the cochlear nuclei up to the inferior colliculus in the brainstem (with possible synapses along the way) is known as the ....
lateral leminiscus
168
Which answer correctly lists the ipsilateral acoustic reflex 4 neuron reflex arc?
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then down the contralateral CN VII to the stapedius muscle
CN VIII to the ipsilateral medial superior olive, then to the facial motor nucleus, then to the cochlea and finally down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then to the medial superior olive, then to the facial motor nucleus, then down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then to the medial superior olive, then to the facial motor nucleus, then down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
169
Tuning curves measured from the basilar membrane or from nerve fibers are used to demonstrate and understand what characteristic of the auditory system?
tonotopic organization
170
In the standard EEG electrode montage, the A1 electrode placement refers to which of the following?
left ear lobe or mastoid
171
The main blood supply to the INNER ear is from the _______________ artery?
labyrinthine artery
172
Name one of the types of support cells found in the cochlea?
Hensen's cells, Deiter's cells, inner and outer pillar cells, Claudius' cells, Boettcher's cells, internal and external limiting cells
173
The _______________ respond to linear acceleration and tilt (gravity) whereas the _______________ respond to angular (rotational) acceleration.
Maculae of otolithic organs, Cristae ampullaris of the Semicircular canals
174
Nystagmus is classifed as right or left beating based on
the direction of the fast phase of eye movement
175
Balance is dependent upon sensory information from what 3 systems?
vestibular
vision
somatosensory
176
Horizontal (lateral) canal on the right pairs with
Horizontal (lateral) canal on the left
177
superior (anterior) canal on the right
Posterior canal on the left
178
Posterior canal on the right
Posterior canal on the left
179
Which of the following terms refers to moving the head side to side in a horizontal plane like you are "shaking your head to say NO"?
yaw
180
To generate reflexive eye movements to maintain clear vision during head movements
VOR
181
To act on neck muscles to stabilize the head for a stable visual platform
VCR
182
To generate compensatory body movements to maintain postural stability, using antigravity muscles
vsr
183
nystagmus
Involuntary rhythmic eye movement
that has a slow phase controlled by the peripheral nervous system and the fast phase controlled by the central nervous system. It can be torsional, left beating or right beating.
184
The hair cells within the utricular maculae and saccular maculae of the vestibular system are polarized and arranged in the same direction in specific sections/sheets. Which of the following are TRUE? Select ALL that apply.
Hair cells are arranged with the kinocilia toward the striola in the utricle and away from the striola in the saccule
The striola runs around the edges or border of the maculae
There is not pattern for the arrangement of the hair cells in the maculae
Hair cells are arranged with the kinocilia away from the striola in the utricle and toward the striola in the saccule
Hair cells are arranged with the kinocilia toward the striola in the utricle and away from the striola in the saccule
185
he labyrinthine artery branches off the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) or directly off the basilar artery in the area of the brainstem and supplies the majority of the blood supply to the inner ear.
true
186
Semicircular canals have an outer bony structure which contains perilymph and membranous canals filled with endolymph; and the semicircular canals are connected and arranged at roughly right angles to each other?
true
187
Which of the following are TRUE about fluid movement in the vestibular system? Select ALL that appl
Ampullopetal refers to fluid movement away the ampulla whereas ampullofugal refers to fluid movement toward the ampulla
Ampullopetal refers to fluid movement toward the ampulla whereas ampullofugal refers to fluid movement away from the ampulla
For the horizontal SCC, ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular excitation whereas ampullofugal movement causes inhibition
For the anterior and posterior SCCs, ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular inhibition whereas ampullofugal movement causes excitation
For the horizontal SCC, ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular inhibition whereas ampullofugal movement causes excitation
Ampullopetal refers to fluid movement toward the ampulla whereas ampullofugal refers to fluid movement away from the ampulla
For the horizontal SCC, ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular excitation whereas ampullofugal movement causes inhibition
For the anterior and posterior SCCs, ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular inhibition whereas ampullofugal movement causes excitation
188
The tallest stereocilia on vestibular hair cells is called the _______________?
Kinocilium
189
In the maculae of the utricle and saccule, the hair cells are lined up around a centralized imaginary line based on the orientation fo the stereocilia. What is the line called?
Striola
190
When a person has an acute loss of vestibular function on one side, what symptoms will they have initially and what should happen over time?
Vertigo/dizziness and then compensation
191
What does the pointy tip of the tuning curve show about the nerve or area being tested?
The characteristic or best frequency
192
showing a head turn to the right, what direction will the eyes move initially, in response to the head turn
right
193
which cranial nerve nuclei for the eye muscles will send excitatory signals to contract which eye muscles?
The right CN 6 will be excited and will contract the right lateral rectus and the left CN 3 will be excited and will contract the left medial rectus
194
which horizontal semicircular duct is excited during this head turn based on the direction of the fluid movement?
Left
195
The anterior vestibular artery branches off of the labyrinthine artery and supplies blood to what specific structures of the labyrinth of the inner ear?
Lateral semicircular canal, superior (anterior) semicircular canal and utricle
196
ET
me
197
pinna
outer ear
198
EAC
outer ear
199
membraneous labyrinth
inner
200
scala media
inner
201
mastoid air cells
middle
202
basilar membrane
inner
203
organ of corti
inner
204
The outer/lateral half of the EAC consists of bone and the inner/medial half of the EAC by the tympanic membrane is made of cartilage
false
205
Cerumen may have antifungal and antibacterial properties that aid in defense
Cerumen helps lubricate the ear and provides moisture to protect the skin from damage and dryness
Cerumen helps to protect the canal by catching debris
true
206
The __________ reflex is often referred to as Arnold's reflex or the ear-cough reflex.
vagus
207
What are the 3 chambers or divisions of the middle ear cavity?
Hypotympanum
Epitympanum
Mesotympanum
208
The head of the malleus, most of the body of the incus, the aditus (inlet) to the antrum and the mastoid air cells are contained in which middle ear chamber / division?
epitympanum
209
State what muscle in humans results in the middle ear muscle reflex (acoustic reflex) and state briefly what the reflex does in response to a loud sound?
Stapedial muscle. The stapedial muscle attaches to the stapedius from the posterior wall of the middle ear cavity and shifts the stapes back from oval window restricting movement. This reduces the transmission of sound, especially in the lower frequencies. The reflex protects the inner ear from loud sounds such as the sound of our own voice which is very loud in the ear and from other loud sounds (but not a short or transient burst of sound because a loud external sound had to get in ear to initiate the reflex). The reflex may help with hearing in noise by reducing some low frequencies.
210
Briefly explain the role of the middle ear in sound transmission (i.e., the impedance matching mechanism). AND Why is this necessary?
Air has very low impedance (resistance to flow of energy) whereas fluid has much higher impedance. Sound energy that is propagated from an air medium to a fluid medium would therefore lose considerable energy if not assisted by other means.
The middle ear tympanic membrane and ossicular chain participate in an impedance matching mechanism to offset this change in impedance from air to fluid. This is accomplished first via the lever action of the ossicles which work like a fulcrum and result in about 2-3 dB gain through mechanical action. Second, the tympanic membrane and oval window are involved in a process often called the spiked heel effect whereby the pressure exerted on a large area (the TM) is narrowed down onto a much smaller area (the stapes footplate). The TM is about 21x larger than the stapes footplate which results in about a 25 dB gain. Third, the buckling of the TM ads about 6 dB of gain. Combined these three processes result in about a 33-34 dB gain in sound which offsets the change lost from switching mediums (air, to mechanical vibration and then to fluid movement).
211
What factor provides the largest contribution the the impedance matching function served by the the middle ear?
The surface area difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window
212
Which inner ear fluid is able to flow through a duct to reach the subarachnoid space and is thought to be a derivative of CSF?
perilymph
213
Vestibular and cochlear hair cells are
Specialized mechanoreceptors
214
Once a CN VIII fiber is stimulated, which statement below best describes how action potentials are generated and propagated along the nerve to reach the brainstem?
Mechanically-gated ion channels open at the first node of Ranvier and potassium rushes in to depolarize that location and then the depolarization occurs at every node along the neuron.
215
Briefly describe three ways that auditory nerve fibers can encode information about the intensity of an auditory stimulus. Do not just list the methods, but describe the terms you use.
CN VIII encodes intensity based on the rate of firing of AP’s, how many fibers are firing and which fibers are firing: 1. Firing rate: action potentials are an all-or-none response so there are no big or small AP signals. So the intensity is encoded by firing rate with a soft sound having slower AP firing and a loud sound have faster AP firing. 2. How many fibers are firing: a louder sound will stimulate more of the basilar membrane so more hair cells will get stimulated and a larger bunch of nerves will fire 3. Which fibers are firing: a single neuron cannot encode for 0 to 120 decibels. Therefore, there are fibers that only fire for soft sound like a 0-40 dB range and others that fire for medium sounds like 40-80 dB and a third group that fire to loud sounds like 80-120.
216
When an auditory stimulus has stimulated inner hair cells and the receptor potential is sufficiently strong to reach its threshold, how is the information then passed from the hair cells to the CN VIII afferent fibers at the synapse?
The voltage of the RP causes Ca++ channels to open in the base of the inner hair cell. Ca++ rushes in and triggers the NT vesicles to move the the edge of the membrane and dump NT (i.e. Glutamate) into the synaptic cleft. The NT (which is a ligand/chemical) will cross the cleft and bind to receptor sites on the CN VIII cell membrane causing ligand-gated channels to open and depolarize the cell which would be an excitatory post-synaptic potential.
217
What term best describes the brief time period after the peak of an action potential during which another action potential cannot be generated no matter how much the cell membrane is depolarized?
Absolute refractory period
218
Which statement best describes the epithelial migration of the ear canal?
To allow dead skin cells to migrate radially from the tympanic membrane and then along the canal to clean and keep the canal free of debris
219
When the stereocilia of the cochlear hair cells are sheared from the shortest towards the tallest what occurs in these receptors?
The tiplinks are pulled open and K+ potassium rushes inside to depolarize the receptor which is an excitatory response
220
Cranial nerve VIII is part of the peripheral nervous system.
True
221
describe cerumen. Its characteristics, function, migration
in the lateral/superficial canal
coiled tubular,
* modified apocrine sweat glands (apocrine glands or sent/chemical attraction
glands typically)
* cerumen is from a combination of sebaceous glands around the hair follicles
and ceruminous glands
* cerumen traps material (dust and pathogens) and migrates out of canal with
skin
222
A tube like channel of the
external ear extending from
the auricle (pinna) to the
tympanic membrane.
EAC
223
supported by bone
small hairs and
glands along upper
wall only
EAC
224
what nerves innervate EAC
auriculotemporal branch of mandibular division of CN V (trigeminal)
posterior auricular branch of CN VII (facial-sensory)
auricular branch of CN X (Arnolds nerve)
225
coughing, gagging, watering eyes
vagus reflex
226
swelling, soreness after device wear for a period of time
lymphatic reflex
227
vasodilation of TM during otoscopy or hearing aid use
red reflex
trigeminal reflex
228
For the average ear canal, the resonant frequency is about
3500 Hz
229
length and direction of ET iin adults
approximately 36 mm long and is directed
downward, forward and medially, from the
middle ear.
230
what are the two portions of ET
a lateral third (12 mm) bony portion arising from the anterior wall of the
tympanic cavity and
* a medial two-thirds (24 mm) fibrocartilaginous portion entering the
nasopharynx.
231
The bony portion is always closed; the fibrocartilaginous
portion is open at rest and when swallowing,
yawning, or forceful inflation.
false
The bony portion is always open; the fibrocartilaginous
portion is closed at rest and opens only on swallowing,
yawning, or forceful inflation.
232
how is the ET situated in an infant
bony portion is relatively longer and wider
in diameter, the nasopharyngeal end of the
cartilaginous portion lies lower, and the tube is
generally more horizontal (and less angulated)
compared to those of adults.
233
The muscles associated with the eustachian tube are the
1. tensor veli palatini,
2. levator veli palatini,
3. salpingopharyngeus, and
4. tensor tympani.
234
what are the physiological functions of the ET
ventilation of the middle ear,
2. drainage of middle ear
secretions, and
3. protection from excessive
nasopharyngeal sounds and
secretions
235
waht is the role of the ME in sound transmission
FUNCTIONS AS AN IMPEDANCE
MATCHING DEVICE
236
why do we have MEMR
To protect our ears from our own voice.
Vocal intensity is 115 dB in oral cavity
Stapedius muscle contracts 50 msec prior to vocalization
237
The anterolateral system (also called the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract) of the spinal cord...
is an ascending somatosensory pathway carrying information regarding pain and thermal sensations.
238
The blood-brain barrier includes which of the following?
The tight junctions in the endothelial cells that line the capillaries of the central nervous system which prevent most macromolecules from entering or leaving the central nervous system
239
The outer 2-4 mm of the cortex is made up of gray matter that has been divided into how many horizontal layers?
six
240
What is contained in the dorsal root ganglia?
Cell bodies for the sensory axons of the spinal nerves
241
The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus are located in the...
Dorsal white columns
242
v]What is the name of the structure which made from the pia extending through the cauda equina from the conus medullaris to the end of the dural sac around the spinal cord, and anchoring the spinal cord in the area of the the coccyx?
filum terminale
243
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding action potentials?
Action potentials are self-propagating
Action potentials are a local, graded response
Action potentials are frequncy-modulated
Action potentials are an all-or-none response
Action potentials are a local, graded response
244
The ABCDE's of Melanomas give guidance regarding what to look for with relation to a spot on the skin that may be a cancerous melanoma spot. List the ABCDE's that make a spot suspicious.
A- Asymmetry
B – uneven borders (melanoma) or smooth (benign)
C – color (like brown, tan or black)
D – diameter (larger than 1/4 inch)
E - evolution (changing in size, shape, elevation, color or new symptom)
245
Pseudo-unipolar cells are found in the ....
Dorsal root fibers with the dorsal root ganglia
246
Which artery supplies blood to the area of the superior temporal gyrus and lateral fissure, including the area of the primary auditory cortex?
Middle cerebral artery
247
describe the flow of cerebrospinal fluid
CSF is produced by choroid plexus and flows from the 2 lateral ventricles through the interventricular foramina to the third ventricle and then through the cerebral aqueduct to the fourth ventricle and then out into the subarachnoid space
248
What is the specific name of the condition caused when there is an occlusion of the foramina of the 4th ventricle resulting in a build-up of CSF within the ventricles that cannot escape into the subarachnoid space to circulate and be reabsorbed?
Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
249
What type of cells form myelin on the axons in the peripheral nervous system?
Schwann cells
250
Briefly describe how the circle of Willis is formed and state the importance or function of the circle of Willis related to the blood supply to the CNS.
The circle of willis forms anastomoses between the internal carotid arteries and the vertebrobasilar system of arteries on the ventral side of the brain. It is made up of:
Anterior cerebral artery (left and right)
Anterior communicating artery
Internal carotid artery (left and right)
Posterior cerebral artery (left and right)
Posterior communicating artery (left and right)
The circle of Willis functions to support and provide blood supply between the anterior and posterior cerebral circulations, serving as backup routes for blood flow if one link is blocked or otherwise compromised. It prevents neurological damage from loss of blood.
251
An area of skin supplied by a single afferent spinal nerve (from a single dorsal root)
dermatome
252
Where are the dorsal root ganglia located?
In the peripheral nervous system just outside of the dorsal side of the spinal cord and vertebrae
253
Which type of proprioceptors detect/measure muscle length?
Muscle spindles
254
To actively pump 3 sodium (Na+) ions out of the cell and 2 potassium (K+) ions into the cell to maintain the correct balance for the resting membrane potential
soidum potassium pump
255
What are the names of the major arteries that bring blood from the heart to the central nervous system (coming off of the aorta and subclavian arteries)?
Carotid arteries (internal carotid to CNS) and vertebral arteries
256
Where is Rexed's lamina II (two) in the spinal cord located?
In the dorsal gray horns
257
Separations in the layers of the dura form cavities which are part of the drainage system of the brain and are known as
venous sinuses
258
describe the order during sensory transduction that a receptor in the skin & neuron in ascending pathway
1 (first step)
Cell is at rest with a resting membrane potential of -65 mV
Correct!
2 (2nd step)
Stimulus triggers a receptor potential
3
Depolarization during the receptor potential initiates the action potential
4
Action potential reaches the terminal bouton and triggers synaptic transmission
5 (last step)
Neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft
259
One oligodendrocyte can extend to 20 or more axons to envelope them, forming the myelin sheath.
true
260
During embryologic development, six hillocks of tissue form around both sides of the first branchial groove. What do these hillocks eventually become?
The pinna of the external ear
261
Which statement accurately describes the anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathway?
It is a pathway for touch and proprioception with fibers ascending in the ventral white commissure
It is a sensory pathway for pain and the tract runs in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
It is a sensory pathway for pain and temperature entering the dorsal roots as Lissauer's tract and with axons ascending in the anterior-lateral white matter of the spinal cord
It is a pathway for touch and crude touch entering the ventral gray horns, and then ascending in the lateral columns of the spinal cord
It motor pathway descending from the anterior portion of the frontal lobe
It is a sensory pathway for pain and temperature entering the dorsal roots as Lissauer's tract and with axons ascending in the anterior-lateral white matter of the spinal cord
262
During embryological development of the central nervous system, which secondary vesicle of the neural tube becomes the pons, cerebellum and a portion of the fourth ventricle?
Metencephalon
263
Optic--special sensory nerve for vision
cn ii
264
Trigeminal--sensory information from the face and motor innervation for mastication/chewing and to the tensor tympani
Correct!
cn v
265
Abducens--motor control of the lateral rectus eye muscles
cn vi
266
Facial--sensory information from tongue through the chorda tympani and motor control for facial expression and the stapedius muscle
cn vii
267
Accessory--motor control of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
cn xi
268
Hypoglossal--motor for intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue
cn xii
269
special sensory nerve for smell
olfactory
270
parasympathetic motor function for heart, lungs etc. and sensory
vagu
271
special sensory nerve for eye all eye and pupil muscles
occulomotor
272
special sensory for auditory and vestibular input
vestibulocochlear nerve
273
motor control of superior oblique eye muscles
trochlear
274
motor for pharynx and palate and pharynx and taste
glossopharyngeal
275
Which extrinsic eye muscles are innervated by CN III?
inferior rectus
superior rectus
inferior oblique
medial rectus
276
What is meant by the term branchiomeric nerves?
Cranial nerves that innervate branchial arch musculature such as CN V, VII, IX, X and XI
277
Which branchial arches play a major role in development of ear structures?
Branchial arches 1 & 2
278
The cerebellum is connected to the main body of the pons by 3 pairs of fiber tracts known as the
cerebellar peduncles
279
The outer 2-4 mm of the cerebral cortex is made up of gray matter that has been divided into horizontal layers based on the cells and functions.
Six layers with layer I (one) as the most superficial and layer VI (six) the deepest layer
280
The superior and inferior colliculi are located in which area of the brainstem?
Tectum of the midbrain
281
Which type of degeneration involves the distal portion of the axon that has been severed from the cell body and leaves Schwann tubes that may aid in regeneration?
Orthograde degeneration
282
Which of the following pathways projects primarily from the primary motor cortex, decussating in the pyramids of the medulla, traveling to the lateral white columns in the spinal cord to the ventral gray horn and then innervating muscles to provide the main control of voluntary skilled movements?
Corticospinal tract
283
Which of the following pathways projects from the medial and lateral vestibular nuclei to the spinal cord to act upon interneurons and motor neurons to control antigravity muscles for postural control?
vestibulospinal tracts
284
What is contained in the dorsal root ganglia?
Cell bodies for the pseudounipolar (pseuduomonopolar) sensory axons of the spinal nerves
285
carries somatosensory information including touch and proprioception from the lower extremities to the medulla as part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway.
fasciculus gacilias (FG)
286
Intensity of a stimulus is represented by frequency modulation (rate of firing) for
action potentials
287
Embryologically, the central nervous system (including the brain and spinal cord), sense organs such as the cochlear and vestibular hair cells, and the skin are derived from which of the germ layers?
ectoderm
288
What is the generic term that describes defects of the spinal cord, during embryologic development when the caudal neuropore does not properly close?
spina bifida
289
Which inner ear fluid is able to flow through a duct to reach the subarachnoid space and is thought to be a derivative of CSF?
perilymph
290
With respect to neuroembryology, the term gastrulation refers to
formation of 3 primary germ layers
291
During embryologic development, which germ layer gives rise to the skeletal structures, circulation structures, meninges, and cartilage (including the ossicles and temporal bone)?
mesoderm
292
Embyologically, development of the inner ear begins with formation of.
The otic placodes which are thickenings of ectoderm
293
Embryologically, what structures are derived from the neural tube and its tissues?
Central nervous system structures including structures such as the cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, ventricles and spinal cord
294
Which classification of nerve fibers have the slowest conduction velocity and are unmyelinated?
group iv
295
The binding of a neurotramsmitter to a receptor site and depolarization of the post-synaptic cell membrane due to changes in the membrane permeability is an example of
Activation of ligand-gated (chemical-gated) ion channels
296
The two vertebral arteries merge near the pontomedullary junction to form what artery?
The basilar artery
297
Which item below best describes Parkinson's disease?
An autosomal dominant disorder that results in degeneration of the caudate nucleus, changes in mood and cognition and movements
Hyperkinetic disorder with wild flailing movements and severe dementia at the onset of the disorder due to damage in the primary motor cortex
Damage/abnormal function in the substantia nigra resulting in movement dysfunction, resting tremor and rigidity, and cognitive changes
Damage/abnormal function in the substantia nigra resulting in movement dysfunction, resting tremor and rigidity, and cognitive changes
298
Diffusely organized groups of cell bodies throughout core of the brainstem which help with integration of many types of information
reticular formation
299
Which motor pathway carries information from the reticular formation of the pons and medulla to all levels of the spinal cord to influence muscle tone in the lower extremities?
Reticulospinal tract
300
Where is Rexed's lamina I (one) in the spinal cord located?
In the initial portion of the dorsal gray horns (the most dorsal layer)
301
What is Scarpa's ganglia?
The cell bodies of the bipolar afferent vestibular CN VIII fibers located in the internal auditory canal
302
carrying ascending/afferent sensory information regarding touch and proprioception from the body to the cortex
Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus Pathway
303
Some vestibular information being carried by CN VIII and coming from the vestibular nuclei is carried to the cerebellum. Which statement best describes the route and location in the cerebellum where vestibular information is processed?
Nerve fibers carrying vestibular information reach the cerebellum via the juxtarestiform body of the inferior cerebellar peduncle and the information is processed primarily in the flocculonodular lobe.
304
A reduction in blood flow can be caused by a local, attached clot in a blood vessel caused by an atherosclerotic plaque. What is this vascular abnormality called?
thrombosis
305
Which artery supplies blood to the area of the superior temporal gyrus and lateral fissure, including the area of the primary auditory cortex?
middle cerebral artery
306
Why are hereditary metabolic defects such as Tay-Sachs disease and Niemann-Pick Disease so devastating and difficulty to treat.
The diseases involve enzyme deficiencies at the cellular level and it is difficult to treat or repair defects in cells so the diseases tend to be progressive and life-threatening over time (shortening the lifespan).
307
During embryologic development, what does the tubotympanic recess eventually become?
The middle ear cavity and the Eustachian tube
308
Which reflex refers to the response when an infant is startled and then throws out his/her arms and legs and begins to cry?
moro
309
location of the primary auditory cortex (A1)?
A1 is located on the transverse gyri of the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, inside the lateral fissure.
310
In the embryo, which flexure of the developing neural tube marks the location where the future brainstem meets the future spinal cord, and this bend straightens out over time during development?
Cervical flexure
311
where the midbrain meets the cerebral hemispheres.
cephalic flexure
312
Once a nerve reaches its threshold to fire an action potential, what is the FIRST step is a change in membrane permeability along the axon to begin the propagation of the bioelectrical change that is the action potential?
The opening of voltage-gated ion channels allowing an influx (inward flow) of Na+ to rapidly depolarize the neuron at the axon hillock
313
What term best describes the brief time period after the peak of an action potential during which another action potential cannot be generated no matter how much the cell membrane is depolarized?
Absolute refractory period
314
Which statement below best describes the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
The inside of the cell is about -70 millivolts compared to the extracellular fluid due to a high concentration of sodium outside of the cell and a high concentration of potassium inside the cell
315
When action potentials reach the terminal bouton of a neuron, what occurs to allow for synaptic transmission of the signal to the next cell (the post-synaptic cell)?
Voltage change triggers opening of Ca++ channels at the bouton, inward flow of Ca++, and then the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
316
A nonacoustic middle ear muscle reflex can be used to provide additional diagnostic information if the acoustic middle ear muscle reflex is absent. Which statement below correctly lists the muscles evaluated and the stimuli used to generate the nonacoustic middle ear muscle reflex?
Tactile stimulation of the facial skin or a puff of air into the eye or sudden lifting of the upper eyelid can cause the stapedius and/or tensor tympani muscles to contract
317
If there is a patient with Bell's Palsy, which test below might an audiologist use to help in diagnosis and assessment of recovery from the palsy?
Acoustic reflex testing
318
There is no somatotopic mapping of body parts/areas in the pathways of the spinal cord because somatotopic mapping only begins in the primary motor and primary somotosensory cortices in the cerebrum.
False
Somatotopic mapping occurs throughout the nervous system and body: from dermatomes and myotomes through the organization of body area in the spinal cord related to sacral, lumbar, thoracic and cervical (SLTC) locations and the mapping is carried all the way to and from the cortex.
319
What is located directly beneath the arachnoid mater?
Subarachnoid space filled with cerebrospinal fluid
320
Following a skull fracture and the tearing of meningeal arteries, there may be bleeding between skull bones and the dura that can be fatal unless treated. This is known as a/an
epidural hematoma
321
Briefly describe the production, flow and absorption of cerebrospinal fluid(CSF): begin with where CSF is produced, cover how it flows through the ventricular system and where/how it is absorbed.
Produced by choroid plexus in ventricles (1)
Flows from lateral through interventricular foramina to third (1)
From third to fourth through the cerebral aqueduct (1)
Out of fourth through Luschka and Magendie (1)
To subarachnoid space to be absorbed by arachnoid villi into the superior sagittal sinus and then exiting through the jugular veins (2)
322
What is the specific name of the condition caused when there is a build-up of CSF within the subarachnoid space due to a lack of absorption after the CSF has exited the ventricles and is flowing in the subarachnoid space?
Communicating (or communication) hydrocephalus
323
What type of cells form myelin on the axons in the central nervous system?
Oligodendrocytes
324
The ability to sense the position of one's limbs is known as
Proprioception
325
What is the largest bundle of axons that serves as the main interhemispheric connection between the right and left hemispheres?
Corpus callosum
326
List one common excitatory neurotransmitter of the audiovestibular system.
glutamate
327
Which of the following is NOT a term used to refer to a collection/bundle of axons in the central nervous system?
Funiculus
Peduncle
Lemniscus
Ganglia
Fasciculus
ganglia
328
Which of the following are structures related to the limbic system?
Putamen and globus pallidus
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Cingulate gyrus
Medial geniculate bod
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Cingulate gyrus
329
the inability to recognize an object or interpret sensory stimuli.
agnosia
330
describe the light reflex of the visual system when a bright light is directed into one eye?
the stimulation goes to the brainstem via CN II and then causes CN III to activate the pupillary constrictors in both eyes
331
Main motor area located on the precentral gyrus with direct cortical control over motor neurons
Primary motor cortex (M-I or M1)
332
Facilitates coordination of complex movements and is not needed for simple repetitive tasks
Supplemental motor area (SMA)
333
Aids in preparation for motor movements through facilitating specific sets of primary motor neuronstate specific sets of neurons
Premotor area (PMA)
334
A lesion to the cortex resulting in weakness of the extraocular eye muscles interrupting voluntary saccades but with intact ocular reflexes is an example of
Supranuclear Opthalmoplegia
335
Decreasing heart rate, increasing digestive activity and pupillary constriction.
parasympathetic nervous sytem
336
Which photoreceptors of the retina are responsible for color vision?
cones
337
Why do most individuals exhibit a right ear advantage when listening to complex speech stimuli?
Because the right ear is most directly connected to the left brain which is the speech dominant hemisphere for most people
338
All patients who have tinnitus in one or both ears are extremely debilitated by it and cannot work or enjoy daily activities due to the strong emotional and physiological responses they have to the sounds.
false
339
The right visual field is represented in the visual cortex on the left side of the brain.
true
340
Visual information is picked up by rods and cones in the retina and sent along axons of CN II to the optic chiasm where some fibers decussate and enter either the left or right optic tract. These fibers synapse in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Fibers leaving the thalamus project through the internal capsule to become optic radiations to reach the primary visual cortex above and below the calcarine sulcus.
retinogeniculostriate pathway
341
A "jumping about” movement where an arm or leg shows wild flailing movements
Ballismus i
movement disorder
342
What area in the eye creates the natural blind spot?
optic disk
343
Which fluid in the eyeball is the jelly-like semifluid which is important for maintaining the round shape of the globe of the eyeball?
Vitreous fluid
344
If a patient has spontaneous nystagmus, why might you not see it when the patient comes to your office and you are taking their case history?
Because the ability to visually fixate on objects in a lighted room masks or controls the nystagmus
345
involves a 2-neuron chain with the pre-ganglionic neuron from the lateral gray horn of the spinal cord (or some brainstem nuclei) and the post-ganglionic neuron with it's cell body in the peripheral nervous system just outside the spinal cord
autonomic nervous system (ANS)
346
During a neurological examination, observation of the patient's ability to smile, grimace and raise their eyebrows to test for mimetic/facial expression muscle weakness is done to test which cranial nerve?
cn vii
347
Damage to one of the CN VI nuclei, resulting in a loss of lateral gaze and a medial diversion of the eye on forward gaze ipsilateral to the lesion, is an example of ....
Nuclear ophthalmoplegia
"nuclear" because the damage is in the nuclei.
348
A lesion to the cortex resulting in weakness of the extraocular eye muscles, interrupting voluntary saccades but with intact ocular reflexes, is an example of
This is supranuclear because the area of the damage is above the nuclei of CN III, IV and VI and therefore above the brainstem and in the cortex.
349
pain from an organ like the heart is perceived in an area of a dermatome.
referred
350
pain in a distal area is the result of an more proximal underlying cause that is compressing/damaging the nerves such as wrist pain projected down the arm from in injury in the shoulder.
projected
351
Based on the neurophysiological model of tinnitus described by Jasterboff, list the systems other than the auditory system the may be involved in the development and severity of tinnitus symptoms, and give an explanation of why this can be a difficult cycle to break.
The neurophysiological model of tinnitus describes how the cochlea and auditory system can be responsible for the generation, detection and perception of the tinnitus sound/noise, but then a vicious cycle of reinforcement can make the symptoms more severe. This involves the activation of the emotions through the limbic system because the person is nervous/upset/emotional about the tinnitus and the activation of the flight or fight response from they sympathetic autonomic nervous system.
The ANS causes bodily/physiological responses to stress. The emotions and stress make the person focus more attention on the tinnitus and then they perceive it more and get more upset, reinforcing the cycle which is then hard to break.
352
Which artery provides the main blood supply to the face, including areas around the auricle/pinna and temporal and maxillary regions?
external carotid
353
Describe the basic flow of blood in and out of the heart listing the major structures and indicating whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated
Deoxygenated blood comes from body to right atrium through superior and inferior vena cava.
The blood is sent to right ventricle, which pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs—through pulmonary trunk and right and left pulmonary arteries,
Oxygenated blood returns to left atrium through 4 pulmonary veins.
The oxygenated blood is then sent to left ventricle and out to the body via the ascending aorta and its associated arteries
354
how action potentials (AP) encode the strength of a stimulus?
The AP is FM, meaning it encodes the strength of the stimulus by the frequency or firing rate of the AP along the neuron (with a stronger stimulus causing a faster firing rate)
355
Which of the following are not interhemispheric or commissural fibers in the central nervous system? Choose all that apply.
Thalamocortical projections
Posterior commissure
Anterior commissure
Interthalamic adhesion
Corpus callosum
Arcuate fasciculus association fibers
Thalamocortical projections
Arcuate fasciculus association fibers
356
Which of the following is a genetic condition with hearing loss and a cardiovascular dysfunction with a long QT hearth rhythm that can cause cardiac arrest (heart attack)
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome (JLNS)
357
Where is regeneration of neurons most likely to successfully occur?
PNS
358
What do nociceptors detect?
tissue damage
359
Hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice) is a risk factor for hearing loss, especially in newborn infants.
true
360
Which side of the body drains 3/4 of the lymphatic fluids to a subclavian vein?
left
361
Give a brief description of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis and explain endocrine system role. (e.g. what do the structures do and how might the body respond to stress?)
The HPA axis is when the hypothalamus sends a hormone to trigger the sympathetic nervous system. This then causes the pituatary gland to send a hormone through the blood stream down to the adrenal glands that rest on top of the kidneys. The adrenal glands create the hormone cortisol. Cortisol is what sends the commands out to control our functions for fight or flight, like reducing digestion, increasing blood flow and providing more nutrients in the blood.
362
Which types of cell create myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
Schwann cells
