Assessment & Testing (Appraisal) Flashcards

Question 1

Q

*Appraisal can be defi ned as**
*a. the process of assessing or estimating attributes.**
*b. testing which is always performed in a group setting.**
*c. testing which is always performed on a single individual.**
*d. a pencil and paper measurement of assessing attributes.**

Answer

A

a. the process of assessing or estimating attributes.

Appraisal is a broad term which includes more than merely
“testing clients.” Appraisal could include a survey, observations,
or even clinical interviews.

score has been assigned to the per-
son’s attribute or performance. An effective counselor will al-
ways inform clients about the limitations of any test that

he or she administers. Some evidence indicates that neo-
phyte counselors are sometimes tempted to administer

tests merely to boost their credibility. I think it is safe to
say this is not a desirable practice.

Question 2

Q

*A test can be defi ned as a systematic method of measuring a**
*sample of behavior. Test format refers to the manner in which**
*test items are presented. The format of an essay test is consid-**
*ered a(n) _______ format.**
*a. subjective.**
*b. objective.**
*c. very precise.**
*d. concise.**

Answer

A

a. subjective.

A “subjective” paradigm relies mainly on the scorer’s opinion. If
the rater knows the test taker’s attributes, the rater’s “personal
bias” can signifi cantly impact upon the rating.

Question 3

Q

*The National Counselor Exam (NCE) is a(n) _______ test be-**
*cause the scoring procedure is specifi c.**
*a. subjective.**
*b. objective.**
*c. projective.**
*d. subtest.**

Answer

A

b. objective.

Since the NCE uses an a, b, c, d alternative format the rater’s
“subjective” feelings and thoughts would not be an issue.

Question 4

Q

*A short answer test is a(n) _______ test.**
*a. objective.**
*b. culture free.**
*c. forced choice.**
*d. free choice.**

Answer

A

Some exams will call this a “free response” format. In any case,

d. free choice.

the salient point is that the person taking the test can respond
in any manner he or she chooses. Although free choice response
patterns can yield more information, they often take more time
to score and increase subjectivity (i.e., there is more than one
correct answer). I should mention that although testing is

often controversial, schools now employ psychoeduca-
tional tests more than at any time in history.

Question 5

Q

*The NCE is a(n) _______ test.**
*a. free choice.**
*b. forced choice.**
*c. projective.**
*d. intelligence.**

Answer

A

b. forced choice.

“Forced choice” items are sometimes known as “recognition
items.” This book is composed of forced choice/recognition
items. On some tests this format is used to control for the “social
desirability phenomenon” which asserts that the person puts the
answer he or she feels is socially acceptable

The
MMPI-2 or Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, for
example, uses forced choices to create a “lie scale” composed of
human frailties we all possess.

Question 6

Q

*The _______ index indicates the percentage of individuals who**
*answered each item correctly.**
*a. diffi culty.**
*b. critical.**
*c. intelligence.**
*d. personal.**

Answer

A

a. diffi culty.

The higher the number of people who answer a question cor-
rectly, the easier the item is—and vice versa. A .5 diffi culty index

(also called a diffi culty value) would suggest that 50% of those
tested answered the question correctly, while 50% did not.

most theorists agree that a “good measure” provides a wide range of
items that even a poor performer will answer correctly.

Question 7

Q

*Short answer tests and projective measures utilize free response items. The NCE and the CPCE uses forced choice or so-called**
*_______ items.**
*a. vague.**
*b. subjective.**
*c. recognition.**
*d. numerical.**

Answer

A

c. recognition.

Recognition items give the examinee two or more alternatives.

Question 8

Q

*A true/false test has _______ recognition items.**
*a. similar.**
*b. free choice.**
*c. dichotomous.**
*d. no.**

Answer

A

c. dichotomous.

“Dichotomy” simply means that you are presented with two

opposing choices.

Question 9

Q

*A test format could be normative or ipsative. In the normative**
*format**
*a. each item depends on the item before it.**
*b. each item depends on the item after it.**
*c. the client must possess an IQ within the normal range.**
*d. each item is independent of all other items.**

Answer

A

d. each item is independent of all other items.

Ipsative measures compare traits within the same individ-
ual, they do not compare a person to other persons who

took the instrument. The Kuder Occupational Interest Sur-
vey (KOIS), now called the Kuder Career Search with Person

Match is one such example. The ipsative test allows the person
being tested to compare items.

Question 10

Q

A client who takes a normative test

*a. cannot legitimately be compared to others who have tak-**
*en the test.**
*b. can legitimately be compared to others who have taken**
*the test.**
*c. could not have taken an IQ test.**
*d. could not have taken a personality test.**

Answer

A

*b. can legitimately be compared to others who have taken**
*the test.**

Technically, a normative interpretation is one in which the individual’s score is

evaluated by comparing it to others who took the same test. A
percentile rank is an excellent example. Say your client scores an
82 on a nationally normed test and this score corresponds to the
percentile rank of 60. This tells you that 60% of the individuals
who took the test scored 82 or less.

Question 11

Q

In an ipsative measure the person taking the test must compare items to one another. The result is that

a. an ipsative measure cannot be utilized for career guidance.

*b. you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who**
*have taken an ipsative test.**
*c. an ipsative measure is never valid.**
*d. an ipsative measure is never reliable.**

Answer

A

*b. you cannot legitimately compare two or more people who**
*have taken an ipsative test.**

Since the ipsative measure does not reveal absolute
strengths, comparing one person’s score to another is relatively
meaningless. The person is measured in response to his or her
own standard of behavior. The ipsative measure points out the
highs and lows that exist within a single individual. Hence, when
a colleague tells you that Mr. Johnson’s anxiety is improving, she
has given you an ipsative description. This description, however,
would not lend itself to comparing Mr. Johnson’s anxiety to Mrs.
McBee’s.

Question 12

Q

*Tests are often classified as speed tests versus power tests. A**
*timed typing test used to hire secretaries would be**
*a. a power test.**
*b. neither a speed test nor a power test.**
*c. a speed test.**
*d. a fi ne example of an ipsative measure.**

Answer

A

c. a speed test.

A good timed/
speed test is purposely set up so that nobody fi nishes it. A
“power test” (see choice “a”) is designed to evaluate the level of
mastery without a time limit. A timed test is really a type of

speed test, but a high percentage of the test takers com-
plete it and it is usually more diffi cult and has a time limit

(think NCE).

Question 13

Q

A counseling test consists of 300 forced response items. The person taking the test can take as long as he or she wants to answer

*the questions.**
*a. This is most likely a projective measure.**
*b. This is most likely a speed test.**
*c. This is most likely a power test.**
*d. This is most likely an invalid measure.**

Answer

A

c. This is most likely a power test.

Like the speed test, it will ideally be designed so that nobody
receives a perfect score. Choice “a,” projective measure, stands

incorrect since the projective tests rely on a “free response” for-
mat.

Question 14

Q

*An achievement test measures maximum performance while a**
*personality test or interest inventory measures**
*a. typical performance.**
*b. minimum performance.**
*c. unconscious traits.**
*d. self-esteem by always relying on a Q-Sort design.**

Answer

A

a. typical performance.

Interest inventories are

popular with career counselors because such measures focus on
what the client likes or dislikes. The Strong Interest Inventory
(SII) is an excellent example. Choice “d,” the Q-Sort, often used
to investigate personality traits, involves a procedure in which
an individual is given cards with statements and asked to place

them in piles of “most like me” to “least like me.” Then the sub-
ject compiles them to create the “ideal self.” The ideal self can

then be compared to his or her current self-perception in order
to assess self-esteem.

Question 15

Q

In a spiral test

*a. the items get progressively easier.**
*b. the diffi culty of the items remains constant.**
*c. the client must answer each question in a specifi ed period**
*of time.**
*d. the items get progressively more diffi cult.**

Answer

A

d. the items get progressively more diffi cult.

a type of intelligence assessment in which the focused themes being evaluated are distributed throughout the test, instead of being grouped together, and become increasingly difficult as the test progresses

Just remember that a spiral staircase seems to get more diffi cult
to climb as you walk up higher.

Question 16

Q

In a cyclical test

*a. the items get progressively easier.**
*b. the diffi culty of the items remains constant.**
*c. you have several sections which are spiral in nature.**
*d. the client must answer each question in a specifi ed period**
*of time.**

Answer

A

c. you have several sections which are spiral in nature.

In each section the questions would go from easy ones to those
which are more diffi cult.

Cyclical testing is designed so that subsequent design iterations can take advantage of usability findings from previous rounds. Design is refined with good usability that is confirmed with users, ensuring a final product that is both easy and satisfying to use.

Question 17

Q

A test battery is considered

*a. a horizontal test.**
*b. a vertical test.**
*c. a valid test.**
*d. a reliable test.**

Answer

A

a. a horizontal test.

In a test battery, several measures are used to produce
results that could be more accurate than those derived

from merely using a single source. Say, this can get confus-
ing. Remember, that in the section on group processes I talked

about vertical and horizontal interventions. In testing, a verti-
cal test would have versions for various age brackets or levels of

education (e.g., a math achievement test for preschoolers and a
version for middle-school children). A horizontal test measures
various factors (e.g., math and science) during the same testing
procedure.

Question 18

Q

*In a counseling research study two groups of subjects took a test**
*with the same name. However, when they talked with each other**

they discovered that the questions were different. The researcher assured both groups that they were given the same test. How is this possible?

*a. The researcher is not telling the truth. The groups could**
*not possibly have taken the same test.**
*b. The test was horizontal.**
*c. The test was not a power test.**
*d. The researcher gave parallel forms of the same test.**

Answer

A

d. The researcher gave parallel forms of the same test.

When a test has two versions or forms that are interchangeable
they are termed parallel forms or equivalent forms of the same
test. From a statistical/psychometric standpoint each form must

have the same mean, standard error, and other statistical compo-
nents.

Question 19

Q

The most critical factors in test selection are

*a. the length of the test and the number of people who took**
*the test in the norming process.**
*b. horizontal versus vertical.**
*c. validity and reliability.**
*d. spiral versus cyclical format.**

Answer

A

c. validity and reliability.

Validity refers to whether the test measures what it says it mea-
sures while reliability tells how consistent a test measures an at-
tribute.

Question 20

Q

Which is more important, validity or reliability?

*a. Reliability.**
*b. They are equally important.**
*c. Validity.**
*d. It depends on the test in question.**

Answer

A

c. Validity.

Experts nearly always consider validity the number one
factor in the construction of a test. A test must measure
what it purports to measure. Reliability, choice “a,” is the
second most important concern. A scale, for example, must
measure body weight accurately if it is a valid instrument.

In order to be reliable, it will need to give repeated read-
ings which are nearly identical for the same person if the

person keeps stepping on and off the scale.

Question 21

Q

In the field of testing, validity refers to

a. whether the test really measures what it purports to measure.

*b. whether the same test gives consistent measurement.**
*c. the degree of cultural bias in a test.**
*d. the fact that numerous tests measure the same traits.**

Answer

A

a. whether the test really measures what it purports to measure.

There are fi ve basic
types of validity you should familiarize yourself with for
your exam: First, content validity or what is sometimes called
rational or logical validity. Second,
construct validity, which refers to a test’s ability to measure a

theoretical construct like intelligence, self-esteem, artistic tal-
ent, mechanical ability, or managerial potential. Third is con-
current validity, which deals with how well the test compares

to other instruments that are intended for the same purpose.
Fourth, predictive validity, also known as empirical validity,

which refl ects the test’s ability to predict future behavior accord-
ing to established criteria. On some exams, concurrent validity

and predictive validity are often lumped under the umbrella
of “criterion validity,” since concurrent validity and predictive
validity are actually different types of criterion-related validity.

Fifth, a small body of literature speaks of consequential valid-

*ity, which simply tries to ascertain the social implications of us-**
*ing tests**.

Question 22

Q

*A counselor peruses a testing catalog in search of a test which**
*will repeatedly give consistent results. The counselor**
*a. is interested in reliability.**
*b. is interested in validity.**
*c. is looking for information which is not available.**
*d. is magnifying an unimportant issue.**

Answer

A

a. is interested in reliability.

Thus, a test can have a high

reliability coeffi cient but still have a low validity coeffi -
cient. Reliability places a ceiling on validity, but validity
does not set the limits on reliability.

Question 23

Q

Which measure would yield the highest level of reliability?

a. A TAT, projective test popular with psychodynamic helpers.

b. The WAIS-III, a popular IQ test.

*c. The MMPI-2, a popular personality test.**
*d. A very accurate scale.**

Answer

A

d. A very accurate scale.

In the real world physical measurements are more reliable than
psychological ones.

Question 24

Q

*Construct validity refers to the extent that a test measures an**
*abstract trait or psychological notion. An example would be**
*a. height.**
*b. weight.**
*c. ego strength.**
*d. the ability to name all men who have served as U.S. presi-**
*dents.**

Answer

A

c. ego strength.

Any trait you cannot “directly” measure or observe can be
considered a construct.

Question 25

Q

Face validity refers to the extent that a test

*a. looks or appears to measure the intended attribute.**
*b. measures a theoretical construct.**
*c. appears to be constructed in an artistic fashion.**
*d. can be compared to job performance.**

Answer

A

most experts technically no longer list “face validity” as a sixth
type of validity. Face validity—like a person’s face—merely tells
you whether the test looks like it measures the intended trait.

Face validity is
not required test information according to the 1974 committee
that drafted Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests.

a. looks or appears to measure the intended attribute.

Question 26

Q

*A job test which predicted future performance on a job very well would**
*a. have high criterion/predictive validity.**
*b. have excellent face validity.**
*c. have excellent construct validity.**
*d. not have incremental validity or synthetic validity.**

Answer

A

a. have high criterion/predictive validity.

Here you are concerned that the test will measure an indepen-
dent or external outside “criterion,” in this case the “future pre-
diction” of the job performance.

Choice “d” introduces you to
the terms incremental validity and synthetic validity. Although
incremental validity and synthetic validity are not considered two
of the fi ve or six major types of validity, don’t be too surprised if

they pop up on an advanced exam question.

Question 27

Q

*A new IQ test which yielded results nearly identical to other**
*standardized measures would be said to have**
*a. good concurrent validity.**
*b. good face validity.**
*c. superb internal consistency.**
*d. all of the above.**

Answer

A

a. good concurrent validity.

Criterion validity could be “concurrent” or “predictive.” Con-
current validity answers the question of how well your test stacks

up against a well-established test that measures the same be-
havior, construct, or trait.

Evidence for reliability and validity

is expressed via correlation coeffi cients. Suffi ce to say that the
closer they are to 1.00 the better.

The
relationship or correlation of a test to an independent measure
or trait is known as convergent validity. Convergent validity is

actually a method used to assess a test’s construct/criterion va-
lidity by correlating test scores with an outside source.

The test also should show discriminant va-
lidity. This means the test will not refl ect unrelated variables.

Question 28

Q

When a counselor tells a client that the Graduate Record Examination (GRE) will predict her ability to handle graduate work, the counselor is referring to

*a. good concurrent validity.**
*b. construct validity.**
*c. face validity.**
*d. predictive validity.**

Answer

A

d. predictive validity.

The Graduate Record Examination (GRE), the Scholastic Apti-
tude Test (SAT), the American College Test (ACT), and public

opinion polls are effective only if they have high predictive valid-
ity, which is the power to accurately describe future behavior or

events. Again the subtypes of criterion validity are concurrent
and predictive.

Question 29

Q

*A reliable test is _______ valid.**
*a. always.**
*b. 90%.**
*c. not always.**
*d. 80%.**

Answer

A

c. not always.

A reliable test is not always

valid. Reliability, nonetheless, determines the upper level of va-
lidity.

Question 30

Q

*A valid test is _______ reliable.**
*a. not always.**
*b. always.**
*c. never.**
*d. 80%.**

Answer

A

b. always.

A valid test is always reliable. Choice

Question 31

Q

*One method of testing reliability is to give the same test to the**
*same group of people two times and then correlate the scores.**
*This is called**
*a. test–retest reliability.**
*b. equivalent forms reliability.**
*c. alternate forms reliability.**
*d. the split-half method.**

Answer

A

a. test–retest reliability.

well-known test–retest method discussed here tests for “stabil-
ity,” which is the ability of a test score to remain stable or fl uctu-
ate over time when the client takes the test again. When using

the test–retest paradigm the client generally takes the same test
after waiting at least seven days. The test–retest procedure is
only valid for traits such as IQ which remain stable over time and
are not altered by mood, memory, or practice effects.

Question 32

Q

One method of testing reliability is to give the same population alternate forms of the identical test. Each form will have the same psychometric/statistical properties as the original instrument. This is known as

*a. test–retest reliability.**
*b. equivalent or alternate forms reliability.**
*c. the split-half method.**
*d. internal consistency.**

Answer

A

b. equivalent or alternate forms reliability.

Here a single group of examinees takes parallel forms of a test
and a reliability correlation coeffi cient is fi gured on the two sets
of scores. Counterbalancing is necessary when testing reliability
in this fashion. That is to say, half of the individuals get parallel

form A fi rst and half get form B initially. This controls for vari-
ables such as fatigue, practice, and motivation.

Question 33

Q

A counselor doing research decided to split a standardized test in half by using the even items as one test and the odd items as a second test and then correlating them. The counselor

*a. used an invalid procedure to test reliability.**
*b. was testing reliability via the split-half method.**
*c. was testing reliability via the equivalent forms method.**
*d. was testing reliability via the inter-rater method.**

Answer

A

b. was testing reliability via the split-half method.

In this situation the individual takes the entire test as a whole
and then the test is divided into halves. The correlation between
the half scores yields a reliability coeffi cient.

Question 34

Q

*Which method of reliability testing would be useful with an es-**
*say test but not with a test of algebra problems?**
*a. test–retest.**
*b. alternate forms.**
*c. split-half.**
*d. interrater/interobserver.**

Answer

A

d. interrater/interobserver.

What is Interscorer/Interrater/Interobserver Reliability? An assessment of the correlation between two or more rater, observers or scorers. The degree to which they would agree on the scoring of a test or interpretation of observed behaviors

choice “d,” several raters assess the same performance.
This method has been called “scorer reliability” and is utilized
with subjective tests such as projectives to ascertain whether the
scoring criteria are such that two persons who grade or assess
the responses will produce roughly the same score.

Question 35

Q

A reliability coefficient of 1.00 indicates

*a. a lot of variance in the test.**
*b. a score with a high level of error.**
*c. a perfect score which has no error.**

d. a typical correlation on most psychological and counseling tests.

Answer

A

c. a perfect score which has no error

As stated earlier, this generally occurs only in physical measure-
ment.

Question 36

Q

*An excellent psychological or counseling test would have a reli-**
*ability coeffi cient of**
*a. 50.**
*b. .90.**
*c. 1.00.**
*d. −.90.**

Answer

A

b. .90.

Ninety percent of the score measured the attribute in question,
while 10% of the score is indicative of error.

Question 37

Q

*A researcher working with a personality test discovers that the**
*test has a reliability coefficient of .70 which is somewhat typical. This indicates that:**
*a. 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate.**
*b. 30% of the people who are tested will receive accurate**
*scores.**
*c. 70% of the people who are tested will receive accurate**
*scores.**
*d. 30% of the score is accurate while 70% is inaccurate.**

Answer

A

a. 70% of the score is accurate while 30% is inaccurate.

Seventy percent of the obtained score on the test represented

the true score on the personality attribute, while 30% of the ob-
tained score could be accounted for by error. Seventy percent is

true variance while 30% constitutes error variance.

Question 38

Q

*A career counselor is using a test for job selection purposes. An**
*acceptable reliability coeffi cient would be _______ or higher.**
*a. .20.**
*b. .55.**
*c. .80.**
*d. .70.**

Answer

A

c. .80.

This is a tricky question. Although .70 is generally acceptable for
most psychological attributes, for admissions for jobs, schools,
and so on, it should be at least .80 and some experts will not
settle for less than .90.

Question 39

Q

*The same test is given to the same group of people using the**
*test–retest reliability method. The correlation between the first and second administration is .70. The true variance (i.e., the percentage of shared variance or the level of the same thing measured in both) is:**
*a. 70%.**
*b. 100%.**
*c. 50%.**
*d. 49%.**

Answer

A

d. 49%.

To demonstrate the variance of one factor accounted for by another you merely square the correlation (i.e., reliability coefficient).

So .70 × .70 = .49. .49 × 100 = 49%. Your exam could refer to this principle as the coefficient of determination.

Question 40

Q

IQ means

*a. a query of intelligence.**
*b. indication of intelligence.**
*c. intelligence quotient.**
*d. intelligence questions for test construction.**

Answer

A

c. intelligence quotient.

IQ testing has been the center of more heated
debates among experts than any other type of testing.

Question 41

Q

*_______ did research and concluded that intelligence was normally distributed like height or weight and that it was primarily genetic.**
*a. Spearman.**
*b. Guilford.**
*c. Williamson.**
*d. Francis Galton.**

Answer

A

d. Francis Galton.

Galton felt intelligence was a single or so-called unitary factor.

Question 42

Q

Francis Galton felt intelligence was

*a. a unitary faculty.**
*b. best explained via a two factor theory.**
*c. best explained via the person’s environment.**
*d. fl uid and crystallized in nature.**

Answer

A

a. a unitary faculty.

exceptional mental abilities were genetic and ran in families, and
said just that in his 1869 work Hereditary Genius.

Charles Spearman pos-
tulated two factors—a general ability G and a specifi c ability S

Fluid intelligence is fl ex-
ible (terrifi c they both begin with an F),

Question 43

Q

J. P. Guilford isolated 120 factors which added up to intelligence. He also is remembered for his

*a. thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking.**
*b. work on cognitive therapy.**
*c. work on behavior therapy.**
*d. work to create the first standardized IQ test.**

Answer

A

a. thoughts on convergent and divergent thinking.

Using factor analysis Guilford determined that there were 120
elements/abilities which added up to intelligence. Two of the

dimensions—convergent and divergent thinking—are still pop-
ular terms today. Convergent thinking occurs when divergent

thoughts and ideas are combined into a singular concept. Diver-
gent thinking is the ability to generate a novel idea.

Question 44

Q

A counselor is told by his supervisor to measure the internal consistency reliability (i.e., homogeneity) of a test but not to divide the test in halves. The counselor would need to utilize

*a. the split-half method.**
*b. the test–retest method.**
*c. the Kuder-Richardson coeffi cients of equivalence.**
*d. cross-validation.**

Answer

A

c. the Kuder-Richardson coeffi cients of equivalence.

Internal consistency or homogeneity of items also is known as

“interitem consistency.”

This can

be done by using the Kuder-Richardson estimates, which are of-
ten denoted on exams as the KR-20 or KR-21 formulas. Another

statistic, Lee J. Cronbach’s alpha coeffi cient, also has been used
in this respect.

Cross-
validation takes place when a researcher further examines the

criterion validity (and in rarer instances, the construct validity)

of a test by administering the test to a new sample.

Question 45

Q

The fi rst intelligence test was created by

*a. David Wechsler.**
*b. J. P. Guilford.**
*c. Francis Galton.**
*d. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon.**

Answer

A

d. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon.

Alfred Binet led the committee and the
rest is history. By 1905, Binet, along with his coworker Simon,
created a 30-question test with school-related items of increased
diffi culty.

in the United States in 1916,
Lewis M. Terman of Stanford University published an American
version of the Binet that was translated into English and adapted

Question 46

Q

Today, the Stanford-Binet IQ test is

*a. a nonstandardized measure.**
*b. a standardized measure.**
*c. a projective measure.**
*d. b and c.**

Answer

A

b. a standardized measure.

The Stanford-Binet is standardized because the scoring and ad-
ministration procedures are formal and well delineated.

Question 47

Q

IQ stands for intelligence quotient, which is expressed by

*a. CA/MA × 100.**
*b. CA/MA × 100.**
*c. MA/CA × 50.**
*d. MA/CA × 100.**

Answer

A

d. MA/CA × 100.

This is a mathematical formula that is supposed to be a measure of a person’s intelligence. When it was first created, it was defined as the ratio of mental age (MA) to chronological age (CA) multiplied by 100 (thus IQ = MA/CA x 100).

Although we still use the term IQ, the Binet today actually
relies on a standard age score (SAS) with a mean of 100
and a standard deviation of 16.

Question 48

Q

The Binet stressed age-related tasks. Utilizing this method, a 9-year-old task would be one which

*a. only a 10-year-old child could answer.**
*b. only an 8-year-old child could answer.**
*c. 50% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly.**
*d. 75% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly.**

Answer

A

c. 50% of the 9-year-olds could answer correctly.

A 9-year-old task was defi ned as one in which 1/2 of the 9-year-
olds tested could answer successfully.

Question 49

Q

*Simon and Binet pioneered the fi rst IQ test around 1905. The**
*test was created to**
*a. assess high school seniors in America.**
*b. assess U.S. military recruits.**
*c. discriminate normal from retarded Parisian children.**
*d. measure genius in the college population.**

Answer

A

c. discriminate normal from retarded Parisian children.

Question 50

Q

Today the Stanford-Binet is used from ages 2 to adulthood. The IQ formula has been replaced by the

*a. SAS.**
*b. SUDS.**
*c. entropy.**
*d. ACPA.**

Answer

A

a. SAS.

SAS stands for “standard age score.”

Question 51

Q

*Most experts would agree that the Wechsler IQ tests gained**
*popularity, as the Binet:**
*a. must be administered in a group.**
*b. favored the geriatric population.**
*c. didn’t seem to be the best test for adults.**
*d. was biased toward women.**

Answer

A

c. didn’t seem to be the best test for adults.

David Wechsler felt the Binet was

slanted toward verbal skills and thus he added “performance”
skills to ascertain attributes which might have been cultivated
in a background which did not stress verbal profi ciency. The
Wechsler yields a verbal IQ, performance IQ, and a full-scale
IQ. The WAIS-III has 7 verbal scales and 7 performance scales.

Question 52

Q

The best IQ test for a 22-year-old single male would be the

*a. WPPSI-III.**
*b. WAIS-III.**
*c. WISC-IV.**
*d. Computer-based testing.**

Answer

A

b. WAIS-III.

Choice “a,” the WPPSI or the Wechsler Preschool and Prima-
ry Scale of Intelligence, is suitable for children ages 2 years 6

months to 7 years, three months. Choice “b,” the Wechsler Adult
Intelligence Scale is intended for ages 16 and beyond. Choice
“c,” the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children , is appropriate
for kids 6 to 16 years, 11 months.

Question 53

Q

The best intelligence test for a sixth-grade girl would be the

*a. WPPSI-III.**
*b. WAIS-III.**
*c. WISC-IV.**
*d. Merrill-Palmer.**

Answer

A

c. WISC-IV.

Question 54

Q

The best intelligence test for a kindergartner would be the

*a. WPPSI-III.**
*b. WAIS-III.**
*c. WISC-IV.**
*d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.**

Answer

A

a. WPPSI-III.

Question 55

Q

*The mean on the Wechsler and the Binet is _______ and the**
*standard deviation is _______.**
*a. 100; 100.**
*b. 100; 15 Wechsler, 16 Stanford-Binet.**
*c. 100; 20.**
*d. 100; 1.**

Answer

A

b. 100; 15 Wechsler, 16 Stanford-Binet.

IQs above 100 are above average and those shy of 100 are below
average.

Question 56

Q

Group IQ tests like the Otis Lennon, the Lorge-Thorndike, and

*the California Test of Mental Abilities are popular in school set-**
*tings. The advantage is that**

a. group tests are quicker to administer.

b. group tests are superior in terms of predicting school performance.

c. group tests always have a higher degree of reliability.

d. individual IQ tests are not appropriate for school children.

Answer

A

a. group tests are quicker to administer.

World War I provided the impetus for the group testing move-
ment. Approximately 2 million men were tested using the Army

Alpha for literates and the Army Beta for illiterates and those
from other countries. School districts, government, and industry

prefer tests which can be administered to many individuals si-
multaneously. The catch is that group tests are less accurate and

have lower reliability.

Question 57

Q

The group IQ test movement began

*a. in 1905.**
*b. with the work of Binet.**
*c. with the Army Alpha and Army Beta in World War I.**
*d. with the AGCT in World War II.**

Answer

A

c. with the Army Alpha and Army Beta in World War I.

Note the word group.

Question 58

Q

In a culture-fair test

*a. items are known to the subject regardless of his or her**
*culture.**
*b. the test is not standardized.**
*c. culture-free items cannot be utilized.**
*d. African Americans generally score higher than Whites.**

Answer

A

*a. items are known to the subject regardless of his or her**
*culture.**

The culture-fair test attempts to expunge items which would be
known only to an individual due to his or her background. Key
exam hint: New ACA ethics now consider it unethical to

administer a test to a client from a given population un-
less that particular test or inventory has been normed on

that specifi c population! As an example, if you gave an
African-American client a test that had not been normed
on African Americans this would be considered a violation
of ethics.

Question 59

Q

*The Black versus White IQ controversy was sparked mainly by a 1969 article written by _______.**
*a. John Ertl.**
*b. Raymond B. Cattell.**
*c. Arthur Jensen.**
*d. Robert Williams.**

Answer

A

c. Arthur Jensen.

Jensen, choice “c” mentioned earlier, sparked tremendous con-
troversy—actually that’s putting it mildly—when he suggested

in a 1969 Harvard Educational Review article (“How Much
Can We Boost IQ and Scholastic Performance?”) that the closer
people are genetically, the more alike their IQ scores. Adopted
children, for example, will sport IQs closer to their biological
parents than to their adopted ones. Jensen then leveled the
charge that Whites score 11 to 15 IQ points higher than Blacks
(regardless of social class).

the African-American psychologist Robert Williams
created the Black Intelligence Test of Cultural Homogeneity
(BITCH) to demonstrate that Blacks often excelled when given

a test laden with questions familiar to the Black community. Wil-
liams charged that tests like the Binet and the Wechsler were

part of “scientifi c racism.”

Question 60

Q

*The MMPI-2 is**
*a. an IQ test.**
*b. a neurological test.**
*c. a projective personality test.**
*d. a standardized personality test.**

Answer

A

d. a standardized personality test.

The MMPI-2 is suitable for those over 18. A sixth-grade reading
level is required and testing time varies from 60 to 90 minutes.
The test restandardization committee reported that the norming
sample for the MMPI-2 is larger and more representative than
the old measure.

The original version of this instrument was created in 1940. The

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2, the current ver-
sion used since 1989, is known as a “self-report” personality in-
ventory. The client can respond with “true,” “false,” or “cannot

say” to 567 questions (10 more than the traditional MMPI which
was the most researched test in history as well as the most useful

for assessing emotional disturbance).

Question 61

Q

661- The word psychometric means:

*a. a form of measurement used by a neurologist.**
*b. any form of mental testing.**
*c. a mental trait which cannot be measured.**
*d. the test relies on a summated or linear rating scale.**

Answer

A

b. any form of mental testing.

Psychometrics – coined from the Greek words for mental and measurement – refers to the field in psychology devoted to testing, measurement, assessment and related activitie

Psychometrics literally refers to the branch of counseling or psychology which focuses on testing. Choice “d” is used to describe

answer scales in which various values are given to different re-
sponses. For example, on a Likert Scale a “strongly agree” might

be given a 5, yet an “agree response” might be rated a 4. The
clients score is the “sum” of all the items.

Question 62

Q

In a projective test the client is shown

*a. something which is highly reinforcing.**
*b. something which is highly charged from an emotional**
*standpoint.**
*c. a and b.**
*d. neutral stimuli.**

Answer

A

d. neutral stimuli.

The idea here is that the client will “project” his or her person-
ality if given an unstructured task. More specifi cally, there are

several acceptable formats for projective tests: First, Associa-
tion—such as “What comes to mind when you look at this ink-
blot?” Second, Completion—“Complete these sentences with

real feelings”; third, Construction—such as drawing a person.

*The theory is that self-report inventories like the MMPI do not**
*reveal hidden unconscious impulses. In order to accomplish this the client is shown vague, ambiguous stimuli such as a picture or an inkblot. Some counselors believe that by using projective measures a client will have more diffi culty faking his or her responses and that he or she will be able to expand on answers.**

It should be noted that examiner bias is common when using
projectives and a therapist using projectives needs more training
than one who merely works with self-report tests.

Question 63

Q

*663. The 16 PF refl ects the work of**
*a. Raymond B. Cattell.**
*b. Carl Jung.**
*c. James McKeen Cattell.**
*d. Oscar K. Buros.**

Answer

A

a. Raymond B. Cattell.

*T_he 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire is suitable for persons_**
*16 and above and has been the subject of over 2,000 papers or other communications!** The test measures key personality factors such as assertiveness, emotional maturity, and shrewdness.

A couple can even decide that each party will take the 16 PF,
and an individual as well as a joint profi le will be compiled which

can be utilized for marital counseling. Choice “c” is another Cat-
tell, who coined the term mental test and spent time researching

mental assessment and its relation to reaction time at the Uni-
versity of Pennsylvania. James McKeen Cattell had originally

worked with Wundt and later Galton. Tests and inventories
like the 16 PF that analyze data outside of a given theory
are called factor-analytic tests or inventories rather than
theory-based tests.

Question 64

Q

664- The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator reflects the work of

*a. Raymond B. Cattell.**
*b. Carl Jung.**
*c. William Glasser.**
*d. Oscar K. Buros.**

Answer

A

b. Carl Jung.

*the MBTI is based on Carl Jung’s analytic psychology. The**
*MBTI uses dichotomous types: extraversion versus introversion,sensing versus intuition, thinking versus feeling, and judging versus perceiving. The test results in a four-letter type score such as ISFJ (i.e., introversion, sensing, feeling, judging).**

Review question 654. Buros, mentioned in choice “d” of this

question as well as the last, is noted for his Mental Measure-
ments Yearbook, which was the fi rst major publication to review

available tests. After his death, the University of Nebraska set up

the Oscar K. Buros Center, which continued his valuable contri-
bution to the fi eld.

Answer 65

A

d. psychodynamic clinician.

Choices “a,” “b,” and “c” all refl ect positions that do not rely
heavily on the unconscious mind (especially the behaviorists
who believe that if you can’t directly measure the behavior, it is
not meaningful). Some theorists (e.g., Allport) would contend
that even if it is true that unconscious impulses exist, they are
not very important.

Answer 66

A

b. potential; what has been learned.

An aptitude test assesses “potential” and “predicts.” An achieve-
ment test examines what you know (e.g., the NCE). Predictive

validity is particularly important when choosing an apti-
tude test.

Answer 67

A

c. pictures.

The TAT consists of 30 cards plus one blank card. The test,
which is intended for ages 4 and beyond, uses up to 20 cards
when administered to any given individual (i.e., 19 selected to fi t
the age and sex of the client, plus one blank card). The pictures
on each card are intentionally ambiguous, and the client is asked to make up a story for each of them.

Answer 68

A

a. a test being normed solely on White middle-class clients.

This bias should be communicated to the client when the results
are explained.

Answer 69

A

a. Bender Gestalt.

The Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test (named after Lauretta
Bender) is actually an expressive projective measure, though
fi rst and foremost it is known for its ability to discern whether

brain damage is evident. Suitable for ages 4 and beyond the cli-
ent is instructed to copy nine geometric fi gures which the client

can look at while constructing his or her drawing.

Answer 70

A

c. an eighth-grade male with an IQ of 136.

Interest inventories work best with individuals who are of high-
school age or above inasmuch as interests are not extremely sta-
ble prior to that time. Interests become quite stable around age

25.

Answer 71

A

*c. they emphasize professional positions and minimize blue-**
*collar jobs.**

Also take note of the fact that contrary to popular opinion
interests and abilities are not—that’s right, not—highly

correlated. A client, for example, could have tremendous mu-
sical ability yet could thoroughly dislike being a musician.

Answer 72

A

a. they are reliable and not threatening to the test taker.

Generally, an interest inventory would be the least threatening
variety of test.

Answer 73

A

b. AMECD.

This ACA Division is the Association for Measurement and
Evaluation in Counseling and Development.

Answer 74

A

d. an achievement test.

The NCE is testing your knowledge and application of material
in the counseling profession.

Answer 75

A

a. GATB, the O*NET Ability Profi ler, and the MCAT.

Exam Hint: School selection tests assess aptitude.

Answer 76

A

b. social desirability (the right way to feel in society).

The converse of choice “b” occurs when an individual purposely,
or when in doubt, gives unusual responses. This phenomenon is
known as “deviation.”

Answer 77

A

c. GRE.

,the GRE attempts to predict graduate school perfor-
mance, but it also tests your level of knowledge. Some exams

will refer to tests like the GRE, MAT, MCAT, SAT, etc., as “ap-
titude-achievement tests.”

Say your exam presents you with one of
the aforementioned tests and gives you “aptitude” as one choice,
and “achievement” as another, but does not give you “aptitude
achievement” as an alternative (yipes!). Well, I certainly won’t

condone the practice, but based on my investigation of the text-
book taxonomy of tests I’d opt for the “aptitude” option

Answer 78

A

d. all of the above.

Moreover, it has been discovered that if the counselor involves
the client in the process of test selection it will improve his or
her cooperation in the counseling process.

Answer 79

A

a. how accurate or inaccurate a test score is.

The standard error (SE) of a statistic is the standard deviation of its sampling distribution or an estimate of that standard deviation.

If a client decided to take the same test over and over and over
again you could plot a distribution of scores. This would be the
standard error of measurement for the instrument in question.
Suffice it to say, the lower the better.

Answer 80

A

c. Tom will score between 103 and 109.

Calculated simply by taking: 106−3=103 and 106+3=109. Hint:
Your exam could refer to this as the 68% confi dence interval (i.e.,
103 to 109). Classical test theory suggests the formula, X=T+E,
where X is the obtained score, T is the true score, and E is the
error. Hence, psychometricians know that if a client takes the
same test over and over, random error (i.e., E in the formula)
will cause the score to fl uctuate.

Answer 81

A

d. be lower than .82.

Increasing a test’s length raises reliability. Shorten it and
the antithesis occurs. Note: The Spearman Brown formula is
used to estimate the impact that lengthening or shortening a test
will have on a test’s reliability coeffi cient.

Answer 82

A

b. DSM or ICD.

Diagnosis is a medical term which asserts that you classify a disease based on symptomatology.

Answer 83

A

b. high reliability.

This is known as “interrater” reliability.

Interrater reliability refers to the extent to which two or more individuals agree.

Answer 84

A

a. clients often give inaccurate answers.

Say a client is monitoring her behavior and does not wish to dis-
appoint her therapist. The report could be biased. This is a “re-
active effect” of the self-monitoring.

Answer 85

A

b. A clinical psychologist.

Generally, a clinical psychologist would have the most training in
this area while the social worker would have the least education
regarding tests and measurements.

Answer 86

A

c. an informal assessment technique.

Self-reports, case notes, checklists, sociograms of groups, in-
terviews, and professional staffi ngs would also fall into this

category.

Answer 87

A

c. read the test manual included with the test.

The manual should specify the target population for the test in
question.

Answer 88

A

c. read the test manual included with the test.

The manual should specify the target population for the test in
question.

Answer 89

A

d. a test is merely a single source of data and not infallible.

Although the fi rst three choices are important to the counselor,

the fi nal statement should be explained to the client. An ex-
tremely high score—say on a mechanical aptitude test—does not

automatically imply that the client will prosper as a mechanic.

Answer 90

A

a. computer-assisted testing and computer interpretations.

Answer 91

A

*a. a greater reliance on tests while others want to rely on**
*them less.**

Answer 92

A

c. more public education is needed in the area of testing.

Again, the public needs to know the limitations of testing (i.e.,
that they are fallible). If you’ve been doing counseling for any
length of time then you’ve surely come in contact with clients
who have been harmed by hearing a score (e.g., their IQ) and
then reacting to it such that it becomes a negative, self-fulfi lling
prophecy.

Answer 93

A

d. A checklist.

*a client to do her checklist or diary one way and you would go**
*about it in a totally different manner.**

Answer 94

A

a. approximately 68% would score between 85 and 115.

Wechsler IQ test has been administered to a very large group of people so chances are the distribution of scores will be normal.
the mean score will be 100 (i.e., the average
IQ)
the standard deviation will be 15 (if the question were
asked about the Binet you’d use 16 as the standard deviation).
In a normal distribution approximately 68% of the population will fall between plus/minus 1 standard deviation of the mean.
a standard deviation of 15 you simply subtract 15 from 100 to get the low score (i.e., 85) and add 15 to 100 to get 115.
*

Answer 95

A

d. a projective test.

Although it is rare, some texts and exams take issue with the archa-
ic word projective and refer to such tests as “self- expressive.”

Answer 96

A

b. more unreliable than those given later in life.

These “toddler tests” are sometimes capable of picking up gross
abnormalities such as serious mental retardation.

Answer 97

A

b. never generalize on the basis of a single test score.

Answer 98

A

d. .25.

In most tests the level is set at .5 (i.e., 50% of the examinees will
answer correctly while 50% will not). However, in this case the
.25 level would allow you to ferret out the lower 75% you do not
wish to admit.

Answer 99

A

d. all of the above.

Persons over 18 can inspect their own records and those of
their children. The Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
also stipulates that information cannot be released without adult
consent.

Answer 100

A

d. all of the above.

Persons over 18 can inspect their own records and those of
their children. The Family Education Rights and Privacy Act
also stipulates that information cannot be released without adult
consent.

Answer 101

A

d. Americanized the Binet.

Since Terman was associated with Stanford University the test
became the Stanford-Binet.

Answer 102

A

c. 1.0.

The item diffi culty index is calculated by taking the number of
persons tested who answered the item correctly/total number of
persons tested. Hence, in this case 75/75=1.0. This maximum
score for item 12 tells you it is probably much too easy for your
examinees.

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