Assessing Ocular Health 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what can you do to rule out open angle glaucoma?

A

by checking IOPs and visual fields

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2
Q

what is the posterior pole of the retina made up of?

A

-optic nerve head
-retinal vascular arcades
-the macula including the foveola, fovea, parafovea and perifovea

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3
Q

what are the 4 zones of the peripheral retina?

A

-The near periphery → a 1.5 mm ring adjacent to the 6 mm diameter macula (centred on the foveola and often defined as the posterior fundus)
-The middle periphery→ is the next 1.5mm ring
-The far periphery → measures the next 9mm to 10mm temporally and 16mm on the nasal side
-The extreme periphery or ora serrata → measuring the additional 2.1mm in the temporal and 0.7 mm on the nasal side

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4
Q

what kind of patient compalints require mandatory examination of the peripheral retina?

A

o Recent onset of floaters or increase in number of floaters
o Any floater that appears to reduce best-corrected acuity
o Flashes particularly if unaccompanied by headache and of an arcuate form arising with change of posture
o Any suggestion of vitreal haze during normal fundoscopy or if tobacco dust in the retrolental space
o History of blunt ocular trauma
o High myopia or family history of detachment
o Patients with lattice degeneration or retinal holes seen on normal fundoscopy
o Patients with a recent history of posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)
o Any patients for whom a wide-field view and stereoscopic imaging will enhance observation of a lesion
(examples are peripheral tumours, retinoschisis, diabetic retinopathy)
o All diabetic patients with any evidence of retinopathy
o Any patient taking tamoxifen (breast cancer), because of the possibility of secondary tumour in the eye
o Any patients taking chloroquine of hydroxychloroquine (malaria, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus)

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5
Q

give 11 differential diagnosis for flashes & floaters

A
  • Retinal detachment
  • Posterior vitreous detachment
  • Optic neuritis
  • Retinal vein occlusion
  • Diabetes
  • Inflammation of the eye panuveitis
  • Visual migraines
  • Tumour
  • Trauma
  • Ocular hypertension
  • OAG (open angle glaucoma) suspect
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6
Q

what do you need to do for patients presenting with CC flashes and floaters?

A

-use the schaeffer’s sign technique to check for tobacco dust which could indicate retinal tear
-need to dilate the patient in order to check the peripheral retina.

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7
Q

what patients should you not dilate?

A

-Patients who have to drive immediately after
-Patients who do not want to be dilated on that day for x reason (clearly document that you advised to dilate them but they did not want to that day)
-History of penetrating injury
-Extremely narrow angles in VH
-very high IOP e.g. 29

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8
Q

what is shaeffers sign?

A

= tobacco dust, clumping of pigmented cells in the anterior vitreous and on the corneal endothelium which could indicate PVD or RD

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9
Q

what should you remeber to record if you dilate a patient?

A

-drug and concentration ‘
-batch number
-expiry date
-patient consent

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10
Q

what is primary open angle glaucoma characterised as?

A

an IOP beyond the normal range in the presence of an open anterior chamber angle

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11
Q

give 3 advantages of head mounted BIO

A
  1. stereoscopic, wide-angles, high resolution views of the entire fundus and overlying vitreous
  2. Its optical principles and illumination options allow for visualisation of the fundus regardless of high ametropia , hazy ocular media , central opacities
  3. It can be performed with patient upright or supine
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12
Q

how does head mounted BIO work?

A
  1. light beams are directed into the patients eye
  2. reflected observation beams are produced from the retina
  3. these beams are focussed to an aerial image following placement of a high plus-powered condensing lens at its focal distance in front of the patient’s eye
  4. The resultant image is real, magnified, upside down and laterally
    reversed
  5. image located between the examiner and condensing lens
  6. The observer views this image through the oculars of the head-
    band indirect ophthalmoscope
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13
Q

what dilating agents are used for head mounted BIO?

A

0..5% or 1.0% tropicamide – for maximum dilation used in
conjunction with 2.5% phenylephrine

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14
Q

what does Goldmann-type 3- or 4 - mirror contact lens allow you to do?

A

allows the practitioner to see from the equator of the retina through to the ora serrata

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15
Q

what is the procedure for Goldmann-type 3- or 4 - mirror contact lens?

A
  • Clean and disinfect lens
  • Use local anaesthetic
  • Coupling solution
  • Determine the position of interest
  • Select the appropriate mirror
  • Rotate the lens such that the desired mirror is positioned 180° from the area of interest
  • Direct the slit-lamp light into the mirror of choice
  • Rotate the lens
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16
Q

what does scleral indentation allow you to do?

A

do a dynamic assessment of the peripheral tissues

17
Q

what equipment do you need for scleral indentation?

A
  • Scleral indenter
  • Head – mounted BIO
  • +20DS condensing lens
    PATIENT MUST BE SUPINE
18
Q

what type of patients could you do monocular indirect ophthalmoscopy?

A

-small pupils
-uncooperative children
-intolerance to bright light

19
Q

what further examinations to the retinal periphery can you do is signs and symptoms indicate it as necessary?

A
  • Fluorescein Angiography (FA)
  • Fundus autofluorescence (FAF)
  • Indocyanine green angiography (ICG)
20
Q

what is good about monocular indirect opthalmoscopy?

A

is gives you an increased field of view compared to direct ophthalmoscopy but still produced an erect real image

21
Q

how does monocular indirect ophthalmoscopy work?

A

-increases FOV by collecting and redirecting peripheral fundus-reflected illumination rays, extends the observer’s field of view approximately 4 to 5 times
-produces a real erect image as an internal lens system re-inverts the initially inverted image to a
real erect image, which is then magnified. This image is focusable using the focusing lever/ eyepiece