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PE > AS Applied Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

AS Applied Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the blood transport system?

A

To deliver blood around the body to get oxygen to respiring tissues

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2
Q

How is blood transported around the body?

A

In blood vessels

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3
Q

What are the roles of the blood?

A
  • deliver oxygen to working muscles
  • remove waste products
  • transport nutrients, glucose and hormones
  • thermoregulation
  • protect body from infection
  • clots to prevent blood loss
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4
Q

What are the 2 parts to the double circulatory system?

A

Systemic and pulmonary

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5
Q

What is the systemic circulatory system?

A

Pump blood from heart to body and back via the aorta and vena cave

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6
Q

What is the pulmonary circulatory system?

A

Pump blood from the heart to lungs and back via the pulmonary artery and vein

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7
Q

What is the role of the septum?

A

Split the heart into left and right

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8
Q

Where is the SA node found?

A

Right atrium

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9
Q

Which ventricle has the thickest walls and why?

A
  • left ventricle
  • has the highest pressure
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10
Q

What are the semi lunar valves?

A
  • found between the ventricles and the arteries
  • prevent the back flow of blood
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11
Q

What is the cardiac conduction system?

A
  • SA node emits an electrical impulse
  • impulse spreads throughout the atria causing them to contract
  • impulse arrives at AV node
  • AV node delays transmission for 0.1s allowing atria to contract
  • impulse sent down septum via bundle of His
  • purkinje fibres spread impulse throughout muscular walls
  • ventricles contract
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12
Q

What does myogenic mean?

A

Generates its own impulse/self regulating e.g. the heart

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13
Q

Where is the neural control mechanism located?

A

In the medulla oblongata

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14
Q

Are the neural control mechanisms voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary

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15
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Sends out impulses to SA node to increase heart rate before and during exercise

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16
Q

What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Sends impulses to SA node to decrease heart rate after exercise

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17
Q

What is the role of receptors?

A

Detect changes in the body

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18
Q

What is the role of chemoreceptors?

A
  • detect changes in blood acidity
  • during exercise there is an increase in blood acidity so the sympathetic NS is stimulated causing heart rate to increase
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19
Q

What is the role of baroreceptors?

A
  • detect blood pressure changes
  • changes in pressure sends signals to medulla oblongata
  • stretch at high arterial pressure to allow heart rate to decrease
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20
Q

What is the role of proprioceptors?

A
  • detect changes in muscle movement
  • located in muscles, tendons and joints and medulla oblongata
  • detects movement at start of exercise and sends impulse to medulla oblongata to stimulate sympathetic NS
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21
Q

What is anticipatory rise?

A

Increase of heart rate before exercise (mimics the sympathetic NS)

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22
Q

What hormone causes anticipatory rise?

A

Adrenaline

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23
Q

What is stroke volume and what happens during exercise?

A
  • volume of blood leaving the left ventricle per beat
  • increases during exercise
  • 70ml per beat
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24
Q

What is venous return and what happens to it during exercise?

A
  • volume of blood returning to the heart via veins
  • increases during exercise
  • directly proportional to stroke volume
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25
Q

What is ejection fraction?

A
  • percentage of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per beat
  • average is 60%
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26
Q

What is the elasticity of cardiac fibres?

A

The degree of stretch of cardiac tissue during the diastole phase of the cardiac cycle

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27
Q

What is Starlings Law?

A

The more the cardiac fibres stretch the greater the force of contraction which increases ejection fraction

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28
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

A decrease in resting heart rate

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29
Q

What is CHD?

A
  • coronary heart disease
  • coronary arteries became blocked up due to fatty deposits
  • atherosclerosis
  • fatty deposits are called atheroma
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30
Q

What is high blood pressure and how can it be reduced?

A
  • a high force exerted by the blood against the blood vessel walls
  • can be reduced by aerobic exercise
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31
Q

What are LDLs?

A
  • low density lipoproteins
  • bad cholesterol
  • transported in blood to the tissues
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32
Q

What are HDL?

A
  • high density lipoproteins
  • good cholesterol
  • transport excess cholesterol in the blood to the liver where is it broken down
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33
Q

What is a stroke?

A
  • occurs when the blood supply to the brain is cut off causing damage to brain cells
  • aerobic exercise can reduce risk of stroke by 27%
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34
Q

What is cardiovascular drift?

A

As heart rate increases, over time stroke volume decreases

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35
Q

What are the causes of cardiovascular drift?

A
  • reduction in fluid in blood due to vasodilation
  • reduces venous return and stroke volume
  • increase in cardiac output due to thermoregulation
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36
Q

What is the structure and function of arteries?

A
  • thick walls
  • made of elastic and muscle fibres
  • can vasoconstrict and vasodilate
  • carry blood away from heart
  • main one is aorta
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37
Q

What is the structure and function of arterioles?

A
  • small arteries
  • made of elastic and muscle fibres
  • vasodilate and vasoconstrict
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38
Q

What is the structure and function of capillaries?

A
  • tiny blood vessels supplying nutrients to cells and removing waste products
  • 1 cell thick
  • around lungs and muscles
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39
Q

What is the structure and function of veins?

A
  • thin walls
  • have valves
  • carrying blood to the heart
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40
Q

What is the structure and function of venuoles?

A
  • small veins
  • have pocket valves
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41
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Force exerted by blood against the blood vessels walls

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42
Q

How do you calculate blood pressure?

A

Blood flow x resistance

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43
Q

What is systolic pressure?

A

Pressure of contraction

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44
Q

What is diastolic pressure?

A

Pressure of relaxation of heart

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45
Q

What are the 4 venous return mechanisms?

A
  • skeletal muscle pump
  • pocket valves
  • involuntary/smooth muscle in vein walls
  • respiratory pump
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46
Q

What is the skeletal muscle pump?

A

Contracting muscles squeeze the walls of the veins to pump blood to the heart

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47
Q

What are pocket valves?

A

Prevent back flow of blood and ensures it is unidirectional

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48
Q

What is the function of smooth muscle in vein walls?

A

Contract when stimulated by sympathetic nervous system

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49
Q

What is the role of the respiratory pump?

A

Changes in pressure in the thorax during inspiration compressing the veins and squeezes blood towards the heart

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50
Q

How much oxygen combines with haemoglobin during exercise?

A

97%

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51
Q

How many oxygen molecules can a fully saturated haemoglobin molecule carry?

A

4

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52
Q

What stores oxygen in the muscles?

A

Myoglobin as it has a higher affinity to oxygen than haemoglobin

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53
Q

What is shown in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A
  • at low partial pressures of oxygen, haemoglobin unloads its oxygen
  • at high partial pressures of oxygen, haemoglobin loads its oxygen
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54
Q

What is the Bohr shift?

A
  • due to more carbon dioxide in the blood there is a low pH
  • curve shifts to the right
  • haemoglobin unloads easier as there is a reduced affinity for oxygen
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55
Q

What factors cause the Bohr shift?

A
  • increased blood temperature
  • partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases
  • a lower pH
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56
Q

What is vascular shunting?

A

Directing blood to skeletal muscles for respiration during exercise

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57
Q

How much blood is directed to the muscles at rest and during vigorous exercise?

A

At rest is 15-20% and during exercise is 80-85%

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58
Q

What is the importance of redistribution of blood?

A
  • increased supply of oxygen to working muscles
  • remove waste products
  • ensure move blood to skin for thermoregulation
  • direct more blood to heart as it is a muscle and requires extra oxygen during exercise
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59
Q

What is vasodilation?

A

Blood vessels around skeletal muscles widen to increase blood flow to muscles

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60
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

Blood vessels narrow around nonessential organs to decrease blood flow to muscles e.g. intestines

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61
Q

What is A-VO2 difference?

A
  • arterio-venous difference
  • the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood arriving at the muscles and the venous blood leaving the muscles
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62
Q

Why is A-VO2 difference low at rest?

A

Not much oxygen is required by the muscles

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63
Q

Why is A-VO2 difference high during exercise?

A
  • more oxygen is needed from blood for the muscles to respire
  • this will cause an increase in gas exchange at alveoli
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64
Q

What does regular aerobic training do to A-VO2 difference?

A
  • increases it
  • trained individuals can extract a greater amount of oxygen from the blood
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65
Q

What are the alveoli and the adaptations?

A
  • responsible for gas exchange between the lungs and blood via diffusion
  • thin walls (1 cell thick), short diffusion pathway
  • extensive capillary network, excellent blood supply
  • lots of alveoli that are highly folded, large surface area
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66
Q

How do the mechanics of breathing work?

A
  • air moves from high to low pressure down a pressure gradient
  • the steeper the gradient the faster the air flows
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67
Q

How does inspiration work?

A
  • external intercostal muscles contract
  • ribs pulled up and out
  • diaphragm contracts and flattens
  • volume of thorax increases
  • pressure decreases compared to atmosphere so air moves in down its pressure gradient
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68
Q

How does expiration work?

A
  • internal intercostal muscles contract
  • ribs move down and in
  • diaphragm relaxes and domes up
  • volume of thorax decreases
  • pressure increases compared to the air so air moves out down its pressure gradient
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69
Q

What is tidal volume and what happens during exercise?

A

Volume of air inspired/expired per breath, 0.5L at rest and increases during exercise

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70
Q

What is minute ventilation and what happens during exercise?

A

The volume of air inspired/expired per minute (breathing rate x tidal volume) and increases during exercise

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71
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume and what happens during exercise?

A

The extra volume of air you can inspire which decreases during exercise as tidal volume increases

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72
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume and what happens during exercise?

A

The extra volume of air you can expire which decreases during exercise as tidal volume increases

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73
Q

What is residual volume and what happens during exercise?

A

The volume of air left in the lungs after breathing which remains the same during exercise

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74
Q

What does a spirometer measure?

A

Measures the volume of air inspired/expired

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75
Q

What is partial pressure?

A

The pressure a gas exerts in a mixture of gases (mmHg)

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76
Q

How does gas exchange work at the lungs?

A
  • higher partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli so oxygen moves down concentration gradient from alveoli to blood
  • higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the lungs so carbon dioxide moves down concentration gradient from blood to alveoli
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77
Q

How does gas exchange work at the muscles?

A
  • higher partial pressure of oxygen in the blood so oxygen moves down concentration gradient from blood to muscles
  • higher partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the muscles so carbon dioxide moves down its concentration gradient from muscles to blood
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78
Q

What is the effect of exercise on the diffusion gradient?

A
  • muscles use more oxygen
  • steeper diffusion gradient
  • more oxygen diffuses into blood and into muscles
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79
Q

How do we regulate pulmonary ventilation during exercise?

A
  • neural control (brain and nervous systems)
  • chemical control (blood acidity)
  • hormonal control
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80
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system in regulation of pulmonary ventilations?

A
  • the sympathetic system increases breathing rate before and during exercise
  • the parasympathetic system decreases breathing rate after exercise
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81
Q

What is the respiratory centre?

A
  • located in the medulla oblongata
  • controls rate and depth of breathing using neural and chemical control
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82
Q

How do we control breathing during exercise?

A
  • increased carbon dioxide in blood stimulates the respiratory centre to increase breathing rate
  • the inspiratory centre sends out impulse in phrenic nerve to inspiratory muscles causing them to contract
  • can also be stimulated by blood acidity
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83
Q

What is the inspiratory centre?

A

Responsible for inspiration and expiration

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84
Q

What is the expiratory centre?

A

Stimulates expiratory muscles during exercise

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85
Q

What are factors that control breathing?

A

Mechanical factors, baroreceptors and stretch receptors

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86
Q

What are mechanical factors that control breathing?

A

Proprioceptors that are located in joints and muscles and provide feedback to RC to increase breathing

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87
Q

What are baroreceptors in the control of breathing?

A

Decrease in blood pressure detected in aorta and carotid results in increased breathing rate

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88
Q

What are stretch receptors in the control of breathing?

A

Prevent over inflation of lungs by sending impulses to the expiratory centre

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89
Q

How does adrenaline regulate breathing?

A

Before exercise the brain sends an impulse to adrenal glands which secretes adrenaline into the blood to increase breathing rate in preparation for exercise

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90
Q

How does minute ventilation during sub maximal exercise change?

A
  • anticipatory rise as a result of adrenaline
  • rapid rise due to an increase in acidity and an increase in temperature and muscle movement (medulla oblongata increase BR an TV)
  • levels off as a plateau is met
  • rapid decline as exercise stops
  • slower decrease due to need for oxygen to get rid of lactic acid
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91
Q

What are the effects of training on respiration?

A
  • small increase in lung volumes and capacities
  • increased number of red blood cells (haemoglobin)
  • increase in capillary density
  • increased number of mitochondria
  • energy demands met at lower minute ventilation
  • faster recovery post exercise
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92
Q

How does smoking affect the respiratory system?

A
  • irritates the trachea and bronchi (cilia)
  • reduced lung functions
  • damage cilia and alveoli
  • reduced efficiency of gas exchange leading to an increase risk of COPD
  • oxygen transport declines as CO combines with haemoglobin more readily than oxygen a it has a higher affinity
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93
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system?

A

Regulates the function of internal organs e.g. heart and some skeletal muscles, and is involuntary

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94
Q

What response does the sympathetic NS elicit?

A

Fight or flight

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95
Q

What response does the parasympathetic NS elicit?

A

Rest and relax

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96
Q

What determines your proportion of muscle fibres

A

Genetics

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97
Q

What are slow twitch muscle fibres?

A
  • type 1
  • aerobic exercise
  • e.g. marathon
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98
Q

What are fast twitch muscle fibres?

A
  • type 2a and 2x
  • anaerobic
  • example of type 2a is 400-800m
  • example of type 2x is 100m
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99
Q

What are the functional characteristics of type I muscle fibres?

A
  • slow contraction speed
  • low force produced
  • high resistance to fatigue
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100
Q

What are the structural characteristics of type I muscle fibres?

A
  • small motor neurone size
  • high mitochondrial density
  • high capillary density
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101
Q

What are the functional characteristics of type IIa muscle fibres?

A
  • fast contraction speed
  • high force produced
  • moderate resistance to fatigue
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102
Q

What are the structural characteristics of type IIa muscle fibres?

A
  • large motor neurone size
  • moderate mitochondrial density
  • moderate capillary density
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103
Q

What are the functional characteristics of type IIx muscle fibres?

A
  • very fast contraction speed
  • very high force produced
  • very low resistance to fatigue
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104
Q

What are the structural characteristics of type IIx muscle fibres?

A
  • very large motor neurone
  • very low mitochondrial density
  • vey low capillary density
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105
Q

What is a motor unit?

A
  • a motor neurone and its muscle fibres
  • there is only one type of muscle fibre in a unit
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106
Q

What do motor neurone branches end in?

A

Neuromuscular junctions

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107
Q

What is the difference between small and large motor units

A
  • small motor units are used for fine motor control (e.g. eye movement)
  • large motor units are used to gross motor control (e.g. quadricep movement)
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108
Q

What is the all or nothing law?

A

Once a motor neurone stimulates muscle fibres, all fibres contract or no fibres contract

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109
Q

What must be crossed for a motor unit to contract?

A

The threshold

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110
Q

What is wave summation?

A

The greater the frequency if stimuli the greater the tension so the greater the force of contraction

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111
Q

What is a tetanic contraction?

A

The greater the frequency of stimuli the less time for rest so there is a build up of calcium so there is a high force, smooth, sustained contraction

112
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

When impulses are received at multiple places on the motor unit and add up causing a high force contraction

113
Q

What does PNF mean?

A

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

114
Q

What is PNF stretching?

A
  • passive stretch
  • effective way to increase flexibility and range of motion
  • as antagonist relaxes to allow agonist to contract and lengthen
  • proprioceptors detect a change in muscle length to prevent injury
115
Q

What are examples of proprioceptors?

A

Muscle spindles and golgi tendons

116
Q

Where do muscle spindles lie?

A

Between skeletal muscle fibres

117
Q

What is the role of muscle spindles?

A

Detect how far/fast a muscle is stretched and sends impulse to CNS to cause muscle to contract preventing over stretching and injury

118
Q

Where are golgi tendon organs found?

A

Between muscle fibre and tendon

119
Q

What is the role of golgi tendon organs?

A
  • detect levels of tension in muscle
  • as muscle contracts isometrically in PNF they sense increase in tension and send inhibitory signals to brain allow antagonist to relax and lengthen
120
Q

What is autogenic inhibition?

A

A sudden relaxation of muscle in response to high tension

121
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A
  • fibrous/fixed joints e.g. cranium
  • cartilaginous/slightly moveable e.g. pivot joint at neck
  • synovial/freely moveable joint e.g. ball and socket at shoulder
122
Q

What are the articulating bones at the ankle?

A

Talus, tibia and fibula

123
Q

What are the articulating bones at the knee?

A

Femur and tibia

124
Q

What are the articulating bones at the elbow?

A

Humerus, radius and ulna

125
Q

What are the articulating bones at the shoulder?

A

Humerus and scapula

126
Q

What are the articulating bones at the hip?

A

Femur and pelvis

127
Q

What are ball and socket joints?

A

Allow movement in every direction e.g. shoulder or hip

128
Q

What are hinges joints?

A

Allows movement in one direction (flexion/extension) e.g. elbow or hip

129
Q

Where is the sagittal plane?

A

Splits the body into left and right

130
Q

What is a sporting example at the sagittal plane?

A

Running e.g. 100m sprint

131
Q

Where is the frontal plane?

A

Splits the body into front and back

132
Q

What is a sporting example at the frontal plane?

A

Cartwheel/ star jumps

133
Q

Where is the transverse plane?

A

Splits the body into top and bottom

134
Q

What is a sporting example at the transverse plane?

A

Golf swing

135
Q

Where is the transverse axis?

A

Through the sides of the body

136
Q

What is a sporting example on the transverse axis?

A

Somersault

137
Q

Where is the sagittal axis?

A

Through the belly button

138
Q

What is a sporting example on the sagittal axis?

139
Q

Where is the longitudinal axis?

A

Through the top of your head

140
Q

What is a sporting example on the longitudinal axis?

141
Q

What movements are at the sagittal plane?

A

Flexion and extension

142
Q

What movements are at the frontal plane?

A

Adduction and abduction

143
Q

What movements are at the transverse plane?

144
Q

What movements are in the transverse axis?

A

Flexion and extension

145
Q

What movements are at the sagittal axis?

A

Abduction and adduction

146
Q

What movements are at the longitudinal axis?

147
Q

What axis pairs with the sagittal plane?

A

Transverse axis

148
Q

What plane pairs with the transverse axis?

A

Sagittal plane

149
Q

What movements happen at the sagittal plane and transverse axis?

A
  • flexion/extension
  • 100m sprint
150
Q

What is plantar-flexion?

A

Planting the foot on the floor/pointing toes (agonist gastrocnemius)

151
Q

What is dorsi-flexion?

A

Flexed feet while on floor/lifting toes up (agonist tibialis anterior)

152
Q

What axis pairs with the frontal plane?

A

Sagittal axis

153
Q

What plane pairs with the sagittal axis?

A

Frontal plane

154
Q

What movement is at the frontal plane and sagittal axis?

A
  • abduction/adduction
  • cartwheel
155
Q

What axis pairs with the transverse plane?

A

Longitudinal axis

156
Q

What plane pairs with the longitudinal axis?

A

Transverse plane

157
Q

What movement is at the transverse plane and longitudinal axis?

A
  • horizontal abduction/adduction
  • golf swing
158
Q

What is meant by prime mover?

159
Q

What are the antagonistic muscle pairs?

A
  • bicep and tricep
  • quadricep and hamstring
  • tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius
  • gluteus maximus and illiopsoas
160
Q

What happens in the upwards phase of a bicep curl?

A
  • bicep contracts concentrically getting shorter fatter and harder
  • bicep is agonist and tricep is antagonist (relaxes)
  • angle between origin and insertion gets closer
161
Q

What happens in the downwards phase of a bicep curl?

A
  • the bicep contracts eccentrically getting longer and thinner under tension
  • the bicep is the agonist and the tricep is the antagonist (relaxes)
  • angle between origin and insertion gets bigger
162
Q

What happens in the downwards phase of a press up?

A
  • tricep contracts eccentrically getting longer and thinner
  • tricep is the agonist and bicep is the antagonist (relaxes)
  • angle between origin and insertion gets smaller
163
Q

What happens in the upwards phase of a press up?

A
  • tricep contracts concentrically getting shorter fatter and harder
  • tricep is the agonist and bicep is the antagonist (relaxes)
  • angle between origin and insertion gets bigger
164
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during elbow flexion?

A
  • agonist = bicep
  • antagonist = tricep
165
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during elbow extension?

A
  • agonist = tricep
  • antagonist = bicep
166
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during ankle plant-flexion?

A
  • agonist = gastrocnemius
  • antagonist = tibialis anterior
167
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during dorsi-flexion?

A
  • agonist = tibialis anterior
  • antagonist = gastrocnemius
168
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during knee flexion?

A
  • agonist = hamstring
  • antagonist = quadricep
169
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during knee extension?

A
  • agonist = quadriceps
  • antagonist = hamstrings
170
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during hip flexion?

A
  • agonist = illiopsoas
  • antagonist = gluteals
171
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during hip extension?

A
  • agonist = gluteals
  • antagonist = iliopsoas
172
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during hip adduction?

A
  • agonist = adductors
  • antagonist = gluteus
173
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during hip abduction?

A
  • agonist = gluteus
  • antagonist = adductors
174
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during horizontal hip adduction?

A
  • agonist = adductors
  • antagonist = gluteus
175
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during horizontal hip abduction?

A
  • agonist = gluteus
  • antagonist = adductors
176
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during shoulder flexion?

A
  • agonist = anterior deltoid
  • antagonist = latissimus dorsi
177
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during shoulder extension?

A
  • agonist = latissimus dorsi
  • antagonist = anterior deltoid
178
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during horizontal shoulder abduction?

A
  • agonist = latissimus dorsi
  • antagonist = pectorals
179
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during horizontal shoulder adduction?

A
  • agonist = pectorals
  • antagonist = latissimus dorsi
180
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during shoulder adduction?

A
  • agonist = latissimus dorsi
  • antagonist = deltoid
181
Q

What is the agonist and antagonist during shoulder abduction?

A
  • agonist = deltoid
  • antagonist = latissimus dorsi
182
Q

What is an isotonic concentric contraction?

A
  • muscle moves and gets shorter, fatter and harder under tension
  • e.g. upwards phase of bicep curl
183
Q

What is isotonic eccentric concentration?

A
  • muscle moves and gets longer and thinner under tension
  • e.g. bicep in downwards phase of bicep curl
184
Q

What is an isometric muscle contraction?

A
  • muscle doesn’t move under tension
  • e.g. crucifix
185
Q

Where does energy for muscle contractions come from?

186
Q

What enzyme breaks ATP into ADP?

187
Q

What is ATP?

A

Adenosine, ribose sugar and 3 inorganic phosphates

188
Q

What is ADP?

A

Adenosine, ribose sugar and 2 inorganic phosphates

189
Q

What reaction breaks ATP into ADP?

A

Hydrolysis reaction

190
Q

What reaction forms ATP from ADP?

A

Condensation reaction

191
Q

What are the 3 energy systems?

A

Aerobic, anaerobic glycolytic and ATP-PC

192
Q

What are the characteristics of the aerobic system?

A
  • low intensity
  • high duration
  • oxygen is present
  • 38 ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule
193
Q

What are the 3 stages of the aerobic system?

A
  • Glycolysis
  • Krebs Cycle
  • Electron Transport Chain
194
Q

What is glycolysis?

A
  • in sarcoplasm of the muscle cell
  • glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid creating energy to resynthesise 2 ATP
  • pyruvic acid is oxidised into 2 acetyl groups
  • carried into stage 2 by co enzyme A
195
Q

What is the Krebs cycle?

A
  • matrix of mitochondria
  • acetyl groups combine with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid
  • hydrogen is removed and undergoes oxidative carboxylation removing carbon and hydrogen
  • 2 ATP molecules are resynthesised and carbon dioxide is produced
  • hydrogen goes to stage 3
196
Q

What is the electron transport chain?

A
  • in mitochondria cristae
  • hydrogen splits into hydrogen ions and electrons
  • electrons provide energy to resynthesise 34 ATP molecules
197
Q

How many ATP molecules are made in the aerobic system?

A

38 ATP molecules

198
Q

In what conditions are fats broken down?

A

Aerobic conditions (in the presence of oxygen)

199
Q

What is beta oxidation?

A
  • stored fats are broken into glycerol and 3 fatty acids
  • fatty acids undergo beta oxidation into 2 acetyl groups
  • follows the same route as glucose
200
Q

Why is beta oxidation better than the use of glycogen for synthesising ATP?

A

More ATP is resynthesised from 1 fatty acid than 1 glycogen molecule

201
Q

What are the advantages of the aerobic system?

A
  • more ATP can be produced (38)
  • no fatiguing by products
  • lots of glycogen/fat stores so exercise can last for longer
202
Q

What are the disadvantages of the aerobic system?

A
  • complex system so takes a while to meet oxygen demand
  • glycogen and fatty acids must be completely broken down
  • fatty acids require lots of oxygen to be broken down
203
Q

What are the characteristics of the ATP-PC system?

A
  • 0-10s
  • very high intensity
  • use of phosphocreatine
  • without oxygen
204
Q

What is the process of the ATP-PC system?

A
  • creatine kinase detects high levels of ADP
  • breaks down phosphocreatine producing energy to resynthesise 1 ATP molecule
205
Q

What does creatine kinase do?

A

Detects high ADP levels and breaks down phosphocreatine

206
Q

What is the ratio of the aerobic system?

207
Q

What is the ratio of the ATP-PC system?

208
Q

What are the advantages of the ATP-PC system?

A
  • ATP can be resynthesised rapidly
  • phosphocreatine stores can be restored quickly (50% in 30s and 100% in 3mins)
  • can extend time using ATP-PC system with creatine supplements
209
Q

What are the disadvantages of the ATP-PC system?

A
  • limited phosphocreatine supply
  • only 1 ATP molecule synthesised
  • phosphocreatine can only be restored in presence of oxygen
210
Q

What are the characteristics of the anaerobic glycolytic system?

A
  • carbohydrate burning system
  • 400-800m
  • 10s-3mins
  • relatively high intensity
211
Q

What are the processes in the anaerobic glycolytic system?

A
  • in the sarcoplasm of the muscle
  • glycogen phosphorylase breaks down glycogen into glucose
  • phosphofructokinase breaks down glucose into pyruvic acid
  • pyruvic acid os broken down into lactic acid by lactate dehydrogenase
  • 2 molecules of ATP are resynthesised
212
Q

What is the ratio of ATP produced in the anaerobic glycolytic system?

213
Q

What is the role of glycogen phosphorylase?

A

To break glycogen into glucose

214
Q

What is the role of phosphofructokinase?

A

To break glucose into pyruvic acid

215
Q

What is the role of lactate dehydrogenase?

A

To break pyruvic acid into lactic acid

216
Q

What are the advantages of the anaerobic glycolytic system?

A
  • ATP can be resynthesised quickly
  • in presence of oxygen lactic acid can be converted into glycogen and used as fuel
  • can be used for sprint finish
217
Q

What are the disadvantages of the anaerobic glycolytic system?

A
  • OBLA occurs causing fatigue
  • a relatively small amount of energy released
218
Q

What is the energy continuum?

A

A term used to describe which energy system is most predominant in an activity and the contribution of the 3 systems

219
Q

What are sporting examples of when the ATP-PC system is predominant?

A

100m sprint, javelin

220
Q

What are sporting examples of when the anaerobic glycolytic system is predominant?

A

400m run, 200m swim or a gymnastics floor routine

221
Q

What are sporting examples of when the aerobic system is predominant?

A

Marathon or a football match

222
Q

What is a threshold?

A

Where one system is exhausted and the next one takes over

223
Q

What is the ATP-PC threshold?

A

When the ATP-PC system is exhausted and anaerobic glycolytic system takes over

224
Q

Ho would you spot thresholds on a graph?

A

Where the energy systems cross over

225
Q

What energy system is associated with slow twitch muscle fibres?

A

The aerobic system so production of 38 ATP is slow but fibres are endurance based so less likely to fatigue

226
Q

What energy system is associated with type 2x muscle fibres?

A

The ATP-PC/anaerobic glycolytic system so 1-2 ATP are made fast but doesn’t last long as fibres have a low resistance to fatigue

227
Q

Why is the aerobic system predominant when intensity is low?

A

Demand for oxygen is easily met and glucose can be broken down more efficiently as oxygen is present

228
Q

Why are fats only burnt at very low intensities?

A

Fats need lots of oxygen to be broken down so as intensity increases the oxygen demand increases which cannot be me so the break down of glycogen begins

229
Q

What is oxygen consumption?

A

The amount of oxygen used to produce ATP, also known as VO2 and increases as intensity increases

230
Q

What does is mean if you have a high maximal oxygen consumption?

A

The better the aerobic capacity

231
Q

What is VO2 max?

A

The maximum volume of oxygen that can be taken up ad used by the muscles per minute

232
Q

What is submaximal oxygen deficit?

A

At start of exercise you use the anaerobic system until the circulatory system and mitochondria can meet oxygen demand

233
Q

What is MAOD?

A

Maximum oxygen deficit

234
Q

Why is oxygen deficit bigger during maximal exercise?

A

Performer is short of oxygen at the start so they have to work more anaerobically

235
Q

When does oxygen deficit occur?

A

At the start of exercise

236
Q

Why does oxygen deficit occur?

A

Because performers work anaerobically at the start of exercise as they cannot meet the oxygen demand yet

237
Q

When does oxygen debt occur?

A

After exercise

238
Q

What is the other name for oxygen debt?

239
Q

What does EPOC stand for?

A

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption

240
Q

What is EPOC?

A

Extra oxygen consumed after exercise to aid recovery

241
Q

What are the components to EPOC?

A

Fast and slow component

242
Q

What is the fast component of EPOC?

A

Extra oxygen consumed to restore ATP and phosphocreatine and restaturate myoglobin with oxygen

243
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

A protein that stores oxygen in the muscles and has a higher affinity to oxygen than haemoglobin

244
Q

What is the slow component of EPOC?

A

Extra oxygen consumed after exercise to remove lactic acid

245
Q

What are the ways that you can remove lactic acid?

A
  • lactic acid can be converted into pyruvic acid which is oxidised into CO2 and water and used as an energy source
  • can be transported to the liver where it is converted into glucose and glycogen and stored (cori cycle)
  • can be converted into proteins (urea)
  • can be lost in sweat and urine
246
Q

Why does a high breathing and heart rate maintain after exercise?

A

Extra oxygen is needed to assist recovery to replenish ATP and CP stores, resaturate myoglobin and remove lactic acid helping total return body to a pre-exercise state

247
Q

What process maintains increased body temperature after exercise

A

Vasoconstriction

248
Q

Why is a high temperature maintained after exercise?

A

To ensure expiratory rates are high so lots of extra oxygen is consumed until the body returns to normal

249
Q

How is lactate made?

A

Lactic acid is broken down releasing hydrogen ions and the remaining salt combines with sodium or potassium ions to make lactate

250
Q

Why is there an increased acidity as lactate accumulates?

A

There are more hydrogen ions which decreases the pH

251
Q

What effect does an increased acidity have on the body?

A

It slows down enzyme activity which slows the breakdown of glycogen causing fatigue

252
Q

What does OBLA stand for?

A

Onset of blood lactate accumulation

253
Q

What is OBLA?

A

As exercise intensity increases the body cannot produce enough oxygen to breakdown lactate so it builds up

254
Q

What is the lactate threshold?

A

Moving from aerobic to anaerobic zones and the point at which lactate rapidly accumulates

255
Q

Why is there no lactate accumulation during aerobic exercise?

A

Lactic acid is still produced but there is enough oxygen to break it down

256
Q

What does measuring OBLA give us?

A

An indication of a person endurance capacity

257
Q

Can the lactate threshold be altered?

A

Yes, through training, diet etc the lactate threshold can be delayed which delays OBLA

258
Q

How is lactate threshold expressed?

A

As a % of VO2 max

259
Q

What effect do high fitness levels have on lactate threshold and OBLA?

A

The fitter you are the higher the lactate threshold delaying OBLA so you can work harder for longer

260
Q

What test shows OBLA?

A

The multistage fitness test

261
Q

What are the factors affecting the rate if lactate accumulation?

A
  • exercise intensity = higher the intensity the quicker lactate accumulates
  • muscle fibre type = use of type 1 fibres slows rate of lactate accumulation
  • rate of blood lactate removal = the more lactate removed the less accumulation so less fatigue
  • respiratory exchange ratio = higher rate of gas exchange more oxygen to remove lactate less accumulation
  • fitness of performer = increased fitness levels delay lactate threshold so lactate accumulation is delayed
262
Q

How do you increase tolerance to lactate?

A

Years of training

263
Q

What does buffering allow?

A

Increased rate of lactate removal so there is lower lactate levels

264
Q

How does buffering work?

A

Absorbs the lactate so they can work at higher intensities for longer without fatiguing

265
Q

What physiological adaptations occur to increase lactic acid tolerance?

A

More mitochondria, more oxidative enzymes, increased capillary density and more myoglobin

266
Q

What are the factors affecting VO2 max?

A

Gender, age, body composition, lifestyle choices, genetics, training and physiological factors

267
Q

What is measuring energy expenditure?

A

Measuring how much energy is released and can be used to identify fitness levels

268
Q

What is the indirect calorimetry test?

A
  • measures how much carbon dioxide is produced and how much oxygen is consumed
  • allows us to identify what substrates are being used (CP, glycogen or fats)
  • accurate estimate
269
Q

What is lactate sampling?

A
  • taking a blood sample and testing the lactate concentration
  • accurate and objective
270
Q

What is the VO2 max test/direct gas analysis?

A
  • measures concentration of oxygen inspired and carbon dioxide expired in a lab
  • involves increasing intensity of exercise until exhaustion
271
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ration (RER)?

A
  • ratio of oxygen consumed to carbon dioxide produced
  • carbon dioxide expired per minute / oxygen inspired per minute
  • value close to 1 = use of carbohydrates (aerobic)
  • value around 0.7 = use of fats (aerobic)
  • value above 1 = anaerobic
272
Q

What is altitude training?

A
  • training 2500m+ in low ppO2
  • reduced diffusion gradient so trains body to work anaerobically for longer and delays the anaerobic threshold
273
Q

What are the strengths of altitude training?

A
  • increased number of red blood cells
  • increased capillarisation
  • increased ability to work with lactate
274
Q

What are the disadvantages of altitude training?

A
  • home sickness
  • adaptations lost quickly
  • altitude sickness
275
Q

What is high intensity interval training (HIIT)?

A
  • trains both aerobic and anaerobic systems
  • periods of work (anaerobic) followed by periods of rest (aerobic)
  • can adjust the variables duration of rest/exercise, speed and number of intervals
276
Q

What is plyometric training?

A
  • develops power
  • anaerobic, high intensity explosive activities
  • fast twitch muscle fibres
277
Q

What is SAQ training?

A
  • speed, agility and quickness
  • improves multi directional movement
  • invasion games players
  • anaerobic

PE (6 decks)

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