arrt review: procedures Flashcards

1
Q

body habitus percentage: sthenic

A

50%

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2
Q

body habitus percentage: asthenic

A

10%

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3
Q

body habitus percentage: hyposthenic

A

35%

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4
Q

body habitus percentage: hypersthenic

A

5%

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5
Q

what does the axial skeleton include?

A

skull, spine, thorax, sacrum

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6
Q

what does the appendicular skeleton include?

A

extremities, clavicle/scapula/shoulder girdle, pelvic bones (NOT including the sacrum/coccyx)

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7
Q

The only articulation between the upper extremities and the thorax is what?

A

the SC joint

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8
Q

the mastoid process is located at ____

A

C1

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9
Q

the thyroid cartilage is located at ____

A

C4-5

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10
Q

the vertebral prominens is located at ____

A

C7

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11
Q

the sternal (jugular) notch is located at ____

A

T2-3

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12
Q

the sternal angle is located at ____

A

T4-5

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13
Q

the inferior angle of the scapula is located at ____

A

T7

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14
Q

the xiphoid process is located at ____

A

T10

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15
Q

the lower costal margin is located at ____

A

L1-2

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16
Q

the umbilicus is located at ____

A

L3-4

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17
Q

the iliac crest is located at ____

A

L4-5

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18
Q

the ASIS is located at ____

A

S1

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19
Q

the greater trochanter is located at ____

A

pubic symphysis

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20
Q

what is the gonion? what is the inion?

A

gonion = angle of the mandible
inion = surfaced landmark located at the occipital protuberance

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21
Q

what is the superciliary ridge?

A

ridge of bone across the superior portion of both orbits

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22
Q

mesocephalic skull is ________ and has the petrous pyramids at ___ degrees from MSP

A

a “typical” skull, 47

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23
Q

brachycephalic skull is _________ has the petrous pyramids at ___ degrees from MSP

A

short from front to back, 54

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24
Q

doliocephalic skull is ____________, and has the petrous pyramids at _ degrees from MSP

A

long from front to back, 40

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25
Q

Townes CR angle for OML and IOML perpendicular positioning

A

OML = 30 caudad
IOML = 37 caudad

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26
Q

Townes method demonstrates what part of the skull?

A

occipital/posterior region

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27
Q

proper positioning of a lateral skull will show what in superimposition?

A

orbital plates, base of skull, greater wings of the sphenoid bone

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28
Q

PA axial (Caldwell) will have petrous ridges ________; PA will have them __________

A

in lower 1/3 of orbits, filling the orbits

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29
Q

proper positioning in an SMV view demonstrates what?

A

symmetry of mandibular rami, superimposition of mandibular symphysis over frontal bone

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30
Q

proper positioning of PA Axial (Caldwell) demonstrates what anatomy?

A

anterior portion of cranium, petrous ridges, orbits

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31
Q

proper positioning of PA skull demonstrates what?

A

frontal bone

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32
Q

in a Waters view, patient is positioned so OML forms what angle to the IR?

A

37 degree angle to IR

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33
Q

in a modified Waters view, patient is positioned so OML forms what angle to the IR?

A

55 angle to the IR

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34
Q

which requires more extension: Waters or modified Waters?

A

Waters (MML perpendicular as opposed to LML)

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35
Q

Degrees of rotation for different mandibular areas of interest***

A

ramus = true lateral
body = 30 degrees rotated towards IR
mentum = 45 degrees towards

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36
Q

positioning, CR angle, and centering for modified Law views

A

MSP angled 15 degrees towards table, CR 15 degrees caudad, centered at TMJ

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37
Q

Typical exam for pneumo

A

Typical exam for pneumo = PA chest on inspiration and expiration

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38
Q

Articulations between the bodies of the vertebrae are classified as ______________

A

amphiarthrodial

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39
Q

Dorsoflexion vs plantarflexion

dorsoflexion = toes (up/down)
plantarflexion = toes (up/down)

A

dorsoflexion = toes up
plantarflexion = toes down (pointed toes)

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40
Q

AP axial L5/S1 angle, centering

A

30-35 degrees cephalic, centered at L5/S1 joint space

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41
Q

what is the difference between a Danelius-Miller and a Clements-Nakayama?

A

Danelius Miller (cross table horizontal beam) = suspected fracture/dislocation, cannot frog leg

Clements-Nakayama = suspected BILATERAL hip fractures

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42
Q

what is a Clements-Nakayama view?

A

axiolateral inferosuperior view of hip (lateral)

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43
Q

what is a Danelius-Miller view?

A

cross table hip

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44
Q

what is a modified Cleaves?

A

unilateral non-trauma lateral view “frog” leg

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45
Q

a modified Cleaves requires leg a minimum of ____ degrees from _______

A

40-45, vertical

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46
Q

at what level is the carina?

A

T4-5

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47
Q

CR angle for LPO/RPO C-spine obliques

A

15-20 cephalic

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48
Q

CR angle for LAO/RAO C-spine obliques

A

15-20 caudad

49
Q

LPO/RPO C-spine obliques demonstrate the (upside/downside) intervertebral foramina and pedicles

A

upside (farther from IR)

50
Q

LPO C-spine obliques will demonstrate ___________

A

right intervertebral foramina

51
Q

RPO C-spine obliques will demonstrate ___________

A

left intervertebral foramina

52
Q

LAO C-spine obliques will demonstrate ___________

A

left intervertebral foramina

53
Q

RAO C-spine obliques will demonstrate ___________

A

right intervertebral foramina

54
Q

LAO/RAO C-spine obliques demonstrate the (upside/downside) intervertebral foramina and pedicles

A

downside (closer to IR)

55
Q

in L-spine obliques, the Scotty dog’s nose is turned ___________

A

towards the downside

56
Q

PA Scoliosis series is also called _____________

A

Ferguson Method

57
Q

how low should the collimation be for AP/PA scoliosis series?

A

low enough to include 1 inch of iliac crests

58
Q

where is the CR directed for an AP L-spine?

A

level of iliac crests (L4-5)

59
Q

a spinal condition where one vertebra (bone in the spine) slips forward over the vertebra below it

A

spondylolisthesis

60
Q

where does spondylolisthesis generally occur in the spine?

61
Q

where do you center for an L5/S1 spot shot?

A

1.5 inches inferior to iliac crest and 2 inches posterior to ASIS

62
Q

Scotty dog: what is the superior articular process?

63
Q

Scotty dog: what is the inferior articular process?

64
Q

Scotty dog: what is the pedicle?

65
Q

Scotty dog: what is the pars interarticularis?

66
Q

Scotty dog: what is the transverse process?

67
Q

Scotty dog: what is the lamina/spinous process?*

68
Q

in between each positioning line, there is __ degrees of difference

69
Q

primary pathology of myelograms is _____________

A

herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

70
Q

in myelograms, contrast is administered into the ___________

A

subarachnoid space (intrathecal injection)

71
Q

AP SI joints CR angle: ___ degrees cephalic for males, ___ degrees cephalic for females

A

30 degrees males, 35 degrees females

72
Q

unilateral AP hip centering

A

centered 2.5 inches distal to the midpoint of the line drawn between the pubic symphysis and the ASIS

73
Q

inlet projection CR angle/centering: _____________________

A

40 degree caudad, centering at ASIS

74
Q

outlet projection CR angle/centering: ___________________

A

males = 20-35 degrees cephalic, 2 inches distal to pubic symphysis
females = 30-45 degrees cephalic, 2 inches distal to pubic symphysis

75
Q

Outlet projection is also called _________

A

Taylor method

76
Q

Between the inlet/outlet projections, which has a different set of angles for males v. females?

A

outlet has different

77
Q

patient obliquity for Judet views; affected side (up/down)

A

45 degrees

78
Q

CR entering for Judet Method (acetabulum)

A

affected side down = perpendicular and centered to 2 inches distal and 2 inches medial to downside ASIS

affected side up = perpendicular and centered 2 inches directly distal to upside ASIS

79
Q

Evaluation criteria for Judet Method, upside acetabulum

A

the posterior rim of the acetabulum
the anterior iliopubic column
the obturator foramen is visualized

80
Q

Evaluation criteria for Judet Method, when centering to downside acetabulum

A

the anterior rim of the acetabulum is visualized
the posterior ischial column is visualized
the iliac wing is well demonstrated

81
Q

how many ribs do you need to see in a PA chest?

A

9-10 pairs of ribs

82
Q

abdominal regions superior left to right

A

left hypocondriac, epigastric, right hypocondriac

83
Q

abdominal regions middle left to right

A

left lumbar, umbilical, right lumbar

84
Q

abdominal regions inferior left to right

A

left iliac, hypogastric, right iliac

85
Q

KUB vs upright abdomen vs lateral decubitus centering differences

A

KUB = at iliac crests
upright abdomen = 2 inches above iliac crests (light at axilla)
lateral decubitus = 2 inches above iliac crests

86
Q

order of small intestines

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

87
Q

smallest and longest portion of the small intestine

A

smallest = duodenum
longest = ileum

88
Q

anatomy demonstrated in right lateral decubitus BE?

A

medial side of ascending colon
lateral side of descending colon

89
Q

anatomy demonstrated in left lateral decubitus BE?

A

medial side of descending colon
lateral side of ascending colon

90
Q

anatomy demonstrated in posterior obliques (LPO/RPO) for BE

A

side farthest away

LPO = right (hepatic flexure, ascending colon)
RPO = left (splenic flexure, descending colon)

91
Q

anatomy demonstrated in anterior obliques (LAO/RAO) for BE

A

side closest

LAO = left (splenic flexure, descending colon)
RAO = right (hepatic flexure, ascending colon)

92
Q

BE positioning visualization - where will barium be?
prone = _________ colon
supine = _________ colon

A

prone = transverse colon, sigmoid colon
supine = ascending/descending colon

93
Q

anatomy demonstrated prone PA in upper GI

A

entire stomach and duodenal loop
body and pyloris are filled with barium

94
Q

anatomy demonstrated recumbent RAO in upper GI

A

best for demonstrating the duodenal bulb + the C-loop of duodenum

air will fill fundus

95
Q

anatomy demonstrated right lateral in upper GI

A

right retrogastric space, duodenal loop, duodenojejunal junction

air will fill fundus

96
Q

anatomy demonstrated supine AP in upper GI

A

barium fills fundus

air/gas will fill body and pylorus

97
Q

anatomy demonstrated recumbent LPO in upper GI

A

demonstrates fundus, provides unobstructed view of the duodeneal bulb without superimposition by the pylorus

air/gas fills pyloris

98
Q

in an upper GI, what positioning will best demonstrate presence of hiatal hernia?

A

recumbent AP in 25-30 degree Trendelenburg position

99
Q

access point for ERCP is the ___________

A

duodenal papilla

100
Q

anatomy demonstrated in AP axial for BE

CR angle/centering

A

rectosigmoid colon

30-40 degrees axial, 2 inches below ASIS

101
Q

Colles fracture
-fall on ___________
-(ventral/dorsal) displacement of distal fragment

A

FOOSH
dorsal displacement of distal

102
Q

Smith fracture
-fall on ___________
-(ventral/dorsal) displacement of distal fragment

A

flexed wrist
ventral displacement

103
Q

Where is the distal radial fragment displaced? Smith = ______
Colles = _______

A

Smith = anterior (ventral)
Colles = posterior (dorsal)

104
Q

Ribs 1-10 articulate with ______________ and _______________

A

vertebral body and transverse process

105
Q

in a lawrence method shoulder x-ray, how is the patient’s arm positioned?

A

90 degrees abducted from body

106
Q

rotation in a lateral skull image is evident by ______________

A

anterior and posterior separation of symmetric vertical bilateral structures (such as mandibular rami, greater wings of sphenoid)

107
Q

tilt in a lateral skull is evident by ____________________

A

superior and inferior separation of symmetric horizontal structures (such as orbital plates and greater wings of sphenoid bone)

108
Q

C spine obliques centering

109
Q

L spine obliques CR centering

A

L3 (lower costal margin), 1-2 inches above iliac crest and 2 inches medial to ASIS

110
Q

how do you determine if you use a perpendicular vs 5-8 degree caudal angle on a L5-S1 spot?

A

textbook answer: interiliac line
clinical: looking at lateral L spine images

111
Q

layers of the esophagus from internal to external

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
serosa (fibrous) layer

112
Q

AP partial flexion CR angle
able to partially extend = ___________
unable to partially extend = ______________

A

perpendicular, 10-15 towards joint

113
Q

a ______ ring is seen in the esophagus and is commonly associated with hiatal hernias

114
Q

each lung is enclosed in ___________

A

visceral pleura

115
Q

the spinal cord is found in what opening created by the vertebral arch?

A

vertebral foramen

116
Q

at what level does the spinal cord terminate?

117
Q

term that describes the pouches found throughout the colon

118
Q

long bands of tissue that run the length of the colon

A

taeniae coli