arrt review: image production Flashcards

1
Q

benefit and disadvantage of fixed kVp chart

A

consistent contrast, high mAs settings for larger patients/body parts

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2
Q

benefit and disadvantage of variable kVp chart

A

assures penetration of the objects of interest; contrast is prone to unacceptable variations

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3
Q

technical considerations for a wet plaster cast

A

doubling of exposure factors
100% increase in mAs or 8-10 increase in kVp

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4
Q

technical considerations for a dry plaster cast

A

50-60% increase of mAs, 5-7 increase of kVp

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5
Q

technical considerations for a fiberglass cast

A

25-30% increase of mAs, 3-4 increase in kVp

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6
Q

barium sulfate contrast media requires (higher/lower) kVp techniques to ensure proper penetration of the contrast

A

higher

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7
Q

IV iodine based contrast media requires (higher/lower) kVp techniques to ensure proper penetration of the contrast

A

lower; to prevent over penetration

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8
Q

matrix size is dependent on _______ and _______________

A

field of view, pixel density

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9
Q

increase in IR size results in a (decrease/increase) in matrix size

A

increase

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10
Q

decreasing pixel size results in (increased/decreased) matrix size and (increases/decreases) spatial resolution

A

matrix size = increase
spatial resolution = increase

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11
Q

decreasing pixel size (increases/decreases) visibility of small structures

A

increases

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12
Q

as DEL increases, spatial resolution (increases/decreases)

A

decreases

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13
Q

what is spatial resolution measured in?

A

line pairs per mm

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14
Q

pixel size is measured ___________; pixel pitch is measured _______________

A

end to end, center to center

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15
Q

minimum response time for AEC

A

approximately 0.001 sec

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16
Q

the time it takes for an AEC system to respond and send the signal to terminate the exposure

A

minimum response time

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17
Q

those factors that affect the amount of exposure reaching the radiographic image receptor

A

photographic factors

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18
Q

those factors that affect the degree of divergence of x-ray beam and the information recorded on the radiographic image receptor

A

geometric factors

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19
Q

two subtypes of geometric factors

A

recorded detail, distortion

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20
Q

what type of anatomy do you put under the cathode end?

A

“FAT CAT”
dense anatomy under cathode end

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21
Q

tube housing leakage maximum rate

A

0.88 mGy/hr at 1 m

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22
Q

what is the space charge effect?

A

collection of free electrons surrounding the filament

at 1000 mA, no more electrons can be boiled off the filament

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23
Q

equation to calculate heat units

A

heat units = kVp x mA x S x W

where W is the waveform factor

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24
Q

waveform factor single phase

A

1

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25
Q

waveform factor 3 phase 6 pulse

A

1.35

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26
Q

waveform factor 3 phase 12 pulse

A

1.41

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27
Q

waveform factor high frequency

A

1.45

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28
Q

waveform factors for3 phase 6 pulse, 3 phase 12 pulse, and high frequency are sometimes averaged to ____

A

1.4

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29
Q

a decreased anode angle (increases/decreases) the anode heel effect

A

increases

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30
Q

an increased anode angle (increases/decreases) the anode heel effect

A

decreases

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31
Q

the anode angle and the anode heel effect are _______ related

A

inversely

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32
Q

which of the following anode angles is steep/small?
6 or 20

A

6

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33
Q

the anode heel effect increases with (increased/decreased) anode angle, (increased/decreased) SID, and (increased/decreased) field size

A

decreased anode angle
decreased SID
increased field size

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34
Q

a small anode angle with produce a (very narrow/very large) effective focal spot

A

very narrow

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35
Q

what type of anode angle do you want for high spatial resolution?

A

decreased (small) anode angle

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36
Q

what is larger, the actual focal spot or the effective focal spot?

A

actual is always larger than effective

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37
Q

the autotransformer works on what type of induction?

A

self induction

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38
Q

The step up & step down transformers work on what type of induction?

A

mutual induction

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39
Q

in a transformer, the side with more turns = where the voltage is (lower/higher)

A

higher

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40
Q

What is the role of the rectifier?

A

makes AC current into DC current (one way street for electrons)

rectifiers are also called “solid state diodes”

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41
Q

step up transformers
(increase/decrease) voltage
(increase/decrease) amperage

A

increase voltage, decrease amperage

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42
Q

step down transformers
(increase/decrease) voltage
(increase/decrease) amperage

A

decrease voltage, increase amperage

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43
Q

3 phase 6 pulse rectification has what voltage ripple?

A

14%

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44
Q

3 phase 12 pulse rectification has what voltage ripple?

A

4%

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45
Q

high frequency rectification has what voltage ripple?

A

~1%

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46
Q

mA station selected by the radiographer determines the amount of _______________ sent to the (primary/secondary) side of the filament transformer

A

current and voltage, primary

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47
Q

a rheostat operates as a ____________ within the filament circuit. by varying ________ in a circuit, ____ can be controlled

A

variable resistor, resistance, current

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48
Q

small focal spots usually range in size from ______; large focal spots usually range in size from _____

A

0.1 to 1.0 mm
0.3 to 2.0 mm

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49
Q

What type of exams would you use a “stationary” grid? Will you see grid lines?

A

portable or tabletop; you can see grid lines

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50
Q

What type of exams would you use an “oscillating” grid?

A

within bucky system; no grid lines

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51
Q

How will the following AEC
adjustments change the seconds during exposure? (Increase or decrease of seconds)

Increase kVp
Increase mA
Decrease mA
Increase Density setting by + 1

A

Increase kVp = decrease exposure time
Increase mA = decrease exposure time
Decrease mA = increase exposure time
Increase Density setting by + 1 = increase (?)

ONLY DENSITY will change receptor exposure; exposure time just changes how quickly you get there

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52
Q

a minimum kVp change of ___% is necessary to yield a noticeable receptor exposure change

A

10%

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53
Q

a minimum mAs change of ___% is necessary to yield a noticeable receptor exposure change

A

30%

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54
Q

what is grid focus error? where is grid cutoff seen?

A

using a grid outside established range range (SID), along lateral edges of image

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55
Q

what is a moire effect (aliasing) artifact?

A

a wavy artifact in digital imaging caused when grid lines are projected onto the imaging plate and are parallel with the scanning laser

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56
Q

what is a ghost image artifact?

A

caused when there is insufficient erasure of an image

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57
Q

the number of pixels sampled per millimeter as the laser scans each line of the imaging plate

A

sampling frequency

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58
Q

when you increase matrix size, you (increase/decrease) spatial resolutino

A

increase

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59
Q

what tool is used for spatial resolution tests in digital radiography?

A

line pair gauge

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60
Q

grid errors***
off angle

A
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61
Q

what is lateral decentering error in terms of grid error? where is grid cutoff seen?

A

central ray is not centered to the center of grid IN A FOCUSED GRID, higher frequency of grid lines on one side than the other

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62
Q

what is stopped grid error in terms of grid error? where is grid cutoff seen?

A

when an oscillating grid stops moving during the exposure, grid lines across entire image

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63
Q

what is upside down error in terms of grid error? where is grid cutoff seen?

A

grid is placed upside down, normal receptor exposure in center of image but complete cutoff towards both ends of the image

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64
Q

what is off level grid error? where is grid cutoff seen?

A

grid is placed not perpendicular (not level) in relation to the x-ray beam, results in decreased exposure across entire image

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65
Q

contrast of an image (increases/decreases) as the ratio of the grid increases

A

increases

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66
Q

which is better to reduce magnification: longer SID or shorter OID?

A

shorter OID

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67
Q

sampling frequency is the _______________________ as the _____ scans each line of the imaging plate

A

number of pixels sampled per millimeter, laser

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68
Q

increasing the sampling frequency (increases/decreases) the spatial resolution

A

increases

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69
Q

(CR/DR) uses sampling frequency

A

CR

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70
Q

Nyquist frequency is the relationship between the __________________ and __________________

A

sampling frequency, the spatial resolution

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71
Q

S numbers are (directly/inversely) proportional to the exposure received by the IR
exposure index numbers are (directly/inversely) proportional

A

S numbers are inverse, EI are direct

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72
Q

where is the pre-reading kVp meter? what does it do?

A

primary or low voltage circuit between secondary side of autotransformer and primary side of the step up

provides a reading of the voltage that will be induced in the secondary side of the step up

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73
Q

where is the exposure switch? what does it do?

A

primary or low voltage circuit between secondary side of autotransformer and primary side of the step up

closes the circuit between the autotransformer and the step up transformer

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74
Q

where is the exposure timer? what does it do?

A

primary or low voltage circuit between secondary side of autotransformer and primary side of the step up

provides a means of controlling the duration of the radiographic exposure

75
Q

where is the mA selector? what does it do?

A

connected in series within the low voltage filament circuit between the autotransformer and the step down transformer

regulates amperage conducted through the filament circuit which regulates the amount of thermionic emission

76
Q

where is the focal spot selector? what does it do?

A

located within the filament low voltage circuit

selects the size of the filament within a dual filament tube

77
Q

where is the mA meter? what does it do?

A

located in series to the midpoint of the secondary side of the step-up transformer

helps rectifiers/diodes make direct current

78
Q

where are the rectifiers? what do they do?

A

in high voltage circuit

convert AC to DC

79
Q

values of interest (region of interest) is the __________ of information that is ______________________

A

digital data set, arranged into a histogram distribution

80
Q

what is rescaling?

A

a digital processing technique that is used to modify an overexposed or underexposed image

adjusts actual histogram to expected/desired

81
Q

what is a LUT?

A

look up table

Mathematical process used to add desired brightness/contrast to the image

82
Q

what is modulation transfer function?

A

Accuracy of the image compared to the actual object

System’s ability to transfer objection information into the image

83
Q

with MTF, resolution is best as the MTF ___; worst score is ____

A

approaches 1; worst at 0

84
Q

what is edge enhancement?

A

improves visibility of small, high contrast structures, noise may be slightly increased

85
Q

what is equilization?

A

postprocessing function where underexposed areas (light) are made darker and overexposed areas (dark) are made light

86
Q

what is spatial frequency filtering also known as?
what is edge enhancement also known as?

A

smoothing or low pass filtering, high pass filtering

87
Q

what is spatial frequency filtering/smoothing/low pass filtering?

A

postprocessing function that suppresses image noise (spatial resolution is degraded with this function)

88
Q

what is electronic cropping or masking?

A

postprocessing “collimation”

89
Q

window level determines ____________; window width determines ________________

A

brightness, gray scale (contrast)

90
Q

wider window widths result in a (long/short) gray scale with (high/low) image contrast

A

wider = longer gray scale with low contrast

91
Q

narrow window widths result in a (long/short) gray scale with (high/low) image contrast

A

narrow = short gray scale, high contrast

92
Q

what does HIS stand for? what does it refer to?

A

hospital information system; contains full patient information

93
Q

what does RIS stand for? what does it refer to?

A

radiology information system; contains radiology specific information about a patient including radiologist reports

94
Q

what does EMR stand for? what does it refer to?*

A

electronic medical record

95
Q

what does EHR stand for? what does it refer to?*

A

electronic health record

96
Q

what is a WAN versus a LAN network? which is faster?

A

wide area network (city/state/world)
local area network (smaller)
LAN is faster than WAN

97
Q

most common physical network connection layout

98
Q

what does DICOM stand for?

A

digital imaging and communication in medicine

99
Q

what does PACS stand for?

A

picture archiving and communication system

100
Q

what does RAID stand for?

A

redundant array of independent disks
RAID 5 is most current

101
Q

laser used in conversion of analog images into digital images

A

helium-neon laser

102
Q

beam restriction variance

A

2% (+/-) of SID

103
Q

linearity variance

104
Q

reproducibility variance

105
Q

how often should lead aprons be tested?

106
Q

x axis on histogram = ____
y axis on histogram = ____

A

x axis = intensity
y axis = frequency

107
Q

signal values below VOI on histogram = ____________
Above VOI = ______________

A

below = collimated exposure
above = outside body

108
Q

histogram accuracy can be improved with __________ and _______________

A

selecting correct body part, correct collimation

109
Q

______________ identifies values of interest for processing

A

Histogram analysis

110
Q

a histogram is a _____ representing the _________ recorded by the _________

A

graph, range of exposure values, image receptor

111
Q

what is flat fielding?

A

post processing function implemented in order to eliminate non-uniformities in X-ray imaging sensors (applicable in the anode heel effect)

112
Q

what does MIMPS stand for?

A

medical image management & processing system

113
Q

how is EHR different from an EMR?

A

EHRs are used to communicate information in EMRs

114
Q

as anode angle increases, there is a ____________ in anode heel effect and a _______ in the effective focal spot

A

decrease, increase

115
Q

Total brightness levels visible in the image refers to

A

gray scale

116
Q

Describe low contrast image appearance

A

difference is small

117
Q

Describe high contrast image appearance

A

difference is big

118
Q

How would a “short scale” contrast appear?

A

High contrast, short scale

119
Q

How would a “long scale” contrast appear?

A

Low contrast, long gray scale

120
Q

high kVp = (high/low) scatter
low kVp = (high/low) scatter

A

high kVp = high scatter
low kVp = low scatter

121
Q

Why does using a grid improve contrast?

A

helps to maintain high signal differences in remnant beam

122
Q

increasing grid ratios (ex: adding a grid) will ______ scatter which will _____ image contrast

A

decrease, increase

123
Q

anything that increases scatter will do what to contrast?

124
Q

with a higher kVp, there is a (higher/lower) percent of photoelectric effect and a (higher/lower) percent of Comptom effect occurring

A

lower, higher

125
Q

Will low kVp have a high or low attenuation?

A

high attenuation

126
Q

Will high kVp have a higher or lower attenuation?

A

low attenuation

127
Q

low x-ray absorption = (high/low) signal

A

high signal

128
Q

true/false: windowing changes the data set of the image

A

false, it does not change the data set

129
Q

narrow window width = __________
wide window width = ___________

A

narrow window width = little gray, high contrast
wide window width = lots of gray, low contrast

“window lets the gray in”

130
Q

for optimal spatial resolution, do you want a large or small OID?

131
Q

Increasing SID (increases/decreases) spatial resolution due to __________________________

A

increases, beam divergence/less penumbra is created

132
Q

do we want large or small DELs for spatial resolution?

A

we want SMALL DELs for good spatial resolution

133
Q

do you want large/small factors for the following image receptor factors in spatial resolution?
DEL
pitch
fill factor

A

small DEL
small pitch
larger fill factor

134
Q

an image receptor has a matrix of ____ whereas the digital image has a matrix of _____

A

DELs, pixels

135
Q

do you want a large or small matrix for good spatial resolution?

A

large matrix (large TV!)

136
Q

SOD/SID “source” is measured from what?

A

the anode target

137
Q

minimum recommended resolution by the ACR

138
Q

the ___________ test can test monitor resolution. if it fails, it is usually the result of ________________

A

SMPTE Test Pattern, structural damage within the monitor

139
Q

what does the SMPTE test pattern test?

A

spatial resolution within the MONITOR

140
Q

as spatial frequency increases (object size decreases), MTF ____________

141
Q

what type of filter is used for absorbing low energy x-rays before they reach the patient?

A

inherent filter

142
Q

what are compensating filters? are they in the tube housing?

A

used to even out exposure levels across an image, not part of the radiographic unit

143
Q

recommended maximum dose limit for occupational radiation exposure in the US?

A

50 mSv per year

144
Q

with regards to decreasing pixel size, decreasing can sometimes increase noise, but ____________ outweighs this

A

spatial resolution improvement

145
Q

Viewing angle that is best

A

90 degree angle to the monitor

146
Q

DI of 3 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

100% too high

147
Q

DI of 2 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

58% too high

148
Q

DI of 1 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

26% too high

149
Q

DI of -1 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

21% too low

150
Q

DI of -2 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

37% too low

151
Q

DI of -3 means the receptor received exposure ____ too (high/low)

A

50% too low

152
Q

CCD and TFT are used in _________________

A

general readiography

153
Q

TFT is used for _____________ and ____________

A

angiography, fluoroscopy

154
Q

what does the scintillation layer do?

A

converts xrays to light

155
Q

what does the CCD layer do?

A

converts light to an electrical signal

156
Q

what does the TFT layer do?

A

sends electrical signal to ADC

157
Q

what does the photodiode layer do?

A

converts light to an electrical signal

158
Q

which three of the following components are included in indirect capture flat-panel digital image detector systems?

photodiode
scintillation layer
ADC
thin-film transistor array
photoconductor

A

photodiode, scintillation, TFT array

159
Q

flat-panel detector systems typically use a ______________

A

thin-film transistor (TFT)

160
Q

systems using a scintillation layer must have a ______________ or a ___________ to convert _____________

A

photodiode or charged coupled device, light into an electrical signal

161
Q

in a CCD system, the scintillation layer is connected to the CCD sensor chips by _________

A

lenses or fiber optics

162
Q

what are the 3 controlling factors for magnification?

A

SID, OID, SOD

163
Q

what are the 3 controlling factors for shape distortion?

A

(1) anatomy of interest alignment (foreshortening)
(2) tube and (3) IR alignment (elongation)

164
Q

what factor(s) control foreshortening?

A

anatomy of interest being parallel versus not parallel with tube/IR

165
Q

what factor(s) control elongation?

A

tube and IR

166
Q

mnemonic for remembering elongation vs. foreshortening factors

A

“TIRE”
Tube, IR = Elongation

167
Q

with respect to foreshortening/elongation, the law of isometry states that the CR should be set at _________ formed between the object & receptor to minimize ____________

A

half of the angle formed, foreshortening

168
Q

magnification factor = _________

169
Q

when kVp is decreased, you (increase/decrease) the differences in signal intensities in the remnant beam

A

increase the difference

170
Q

S number exposure indicators are (direct/inverse)

171
Q

DI numbers are (direct/inverse)

172
Q

example: S number ideal for an exposure is 200. 75 would mean the x-ray is (overexposed/underexposed)

A

overexposed

173
Q

What is on the x-axis on a histogram?

A

exposure values

174
Q

What is on the y-axis on a histogram?

175
Q

portion of processing that modifies to desired brightness/contrast

A

look up table

176
Q

portion of processing that corrects for over or underexposure

177
Q

what are the required pieces of information on an image for identification?

A

patient name
patient DOB
exam date
exam location/facility
R or L marker

178
Q

what is receptor damage? does it happen with CR or DR?

A

Physical damage that causes hyper-dense artifact on the image that can occur with Dr or CR

179
Q

what is a detector element malfunction or dead pixel? does it appear in CR or DR?

A

Dead or damaged DELs appear as hyper-dense artifact, only in DR

180
Q

what is ghost imaging? does it appear in CR or DR?

A

incomplete erasure where old exams are seen; seen in CR only

181
Q

how does “hyper-dense” artifact appear?

A

bright white

182
Q

Centering must be within what percentage?

A

1% of the SID