April 2010 (1) IT Passport Examination

Question 1

Which of the following is an explanation of management principles?

a) Fundamental concepts that present the company’s significance of existence and
values, and act as the guideline for business activities

b) Resources, usually categorized as people, money, materials, or information, which
are utilized by a company to gain a competitive advantage

c) Long-term, mid-term, and short-term decision making plans for realizing the vision
that indicates the future direction of the company

d) Unique style or characteristics of a company, also referred to as corporate culture,
which has been derived and established over many years of business activities

Answer 1

a

Question 2

Among management organizations, which of the following is an explanation of divisional organization?

a) A corporate organization is divided into smaller groups, and each group takes partial
charge of functions interactively to complete the organization as a whole.

b) A corporate organization is divided into groups based on business functions, such as
product planning, purchasing, manufacturing, and sales.

c) A corporate organization is divided into profit-responsible units according to
product or market categories, with delegated authority and business goals.

d) Employees belong to two different organizational structures to flexibly handle
business operations on an as-required basis.

Answer 2

c

Question 2

For system failures of the past five years, which of the following is the most
appropriate chart to compare the annual trend of the number of failures by type and the
total number of failures?

a) Line-area chart

b) Double pie chart

c) Portfolio chart

d) Radar chart

Answer 2

a

Question 3

There are a total of 30 PCs across six departments. Software to be used on all of these
PCs is to be purchased. When the purchasing methods shown in the table below are
available, how much does the cheapest purchase arrangement cost in dollars? Here,
each department needs at least one manual.

Purchasing method | Right of use | Manual | Price (dollar)
_________________________
Single package | 1 | 1 | 150
1 license | 1 | 0 | 120
5 licenses | 5 | 0 | 450

a) 2,700
b) 3,060
c) 3,150
d) 3,180

Answer 3

c

Question 4

Which of the following is a case where the use of a Pareto chart is effective?

a) Evaluating the quality of a large number of modules by plotting the number of bugs
per unit step

b) Understanding the progress of a test by plotting both the occurrence of bugs and the
cumulative total of bugs in chronological order

c) Predicting the number of remaining bugs by plotting the cumulative total of bugs in
chronological order

d) Stratifying the bugs by cause and sorting them in descending order to identify
significant problems that result in greater improvement when solved

Answer 4

d

Question 5

How much (in millions of dollars) is the cost of sales in the current period under the
conditions shown below?

[Conditions]
Product inventory at the beginning of the current period: 2 million dollars

Amount of products purchased in the current period: 10 million dollars

Product inventory at the end of the current period: 3 million dollars

a) 5
b) 7
c) 9
d) 11

Answer 5

c

Question 6

7. The amount brought forward and purchases and sales in the current period are shown
   in the table below. When inventory assets are evaluated using first-in first-out method
   at the end of the period on December 31, how much (in dollars) is the base stock?

Purchases Sales
Date Quantity Unit price (dollar) Date Quantity
Amount brought forward
May 1
October 15
10
15
5
100
90
70
March 20
August 31
November 20
4
8
6

a) 840 b) 980 c) 1,080 d) 1,180

Answer 6

b

Question 7

Which of the following is an explanation of an income statement?

a) It shows the fluctuation of the funds during a single accounting period as activities
in three areas: sales, investment, and financial affairs.

b) It lists every income and cost during a single accounting period, and shows the
calculated profit.

c) It shows the income and expenditure in cash and deposit during a single accounting
period.

d) It lists all assets, liabilities, and capital stocks at the end of an accounting period

Answer 7

b

Question 8

Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning the use of a
single-licensed software package purchased for one PC or a computer at a company?

a) Since the program purchased for a PC is owned by the company, it can be freely
copied to other PCs in the company.

b) The purchased program can be installed on a LAN server and downloaded into
multiple PCs connected to the server.

c) When the purchased program is upgraded to a new version, the unnecessary old
version can be used for personal purposes outside the company.

d) When a computer manufactured by Company A is replaced with another
manufactured by Company B, the program can be altered without the permission of
the copyright holder within the extent necessary for the replacement

Answer 8

d

Question 9

In electronic commerce using public key cryptography, which of the following is
created by the CA (Certification Authority) which is a third-party organization
independent from the parties involved in the transaction?

a) Electronic certificate for public keys of the parties involved in the transaction

b) Digital signature of the parties involved in the transaction

c) Passwords for the parties involved in the transaction

d) Electronic certificate for private keys of the parties involved in the transaction

Answer 9

a

Question 10

An e-mail with a subject of “Caution: New computer virus” was received from the
external network. The sender is not a recognized person, and the truth of the content
is unknown. However, the e-mail describes the characteristics of the virus, and
instructs that the e-mail must be forwarded to as many people as possible. Which of
the following is an appropriate response with regard to this e-mail?

a) The e-mail is forwarded to acquaintances.

b) The e-mail is forwarded to all employees.

c) The e-mail is not forwarded to anyone.

d) An e-mail is sent to the sender to ask for countermeasures against the virus.

Answer 10

c

Question 11

Which of the following is the characteristic of QR code?

a) Reading direction is identified by using position detection patterns (cut-out
symbols).

b) It requires more space than a one-dimensional bar code to represent the same
amount of data.

c) It can only encode numbers and alphabetical letters.

d) It is a stacked bar code, which is made up of a set of bar codes stacked vertically one
above another

Answer 11

a

Question 12

13. ) A PPM (Product Portfolio Management) matrix is shown below. Which of the
    following is the appropriate combination of phrases to be inserted into blanks A and B?

A B
a) Gross profit margin Market growth rate
b) Gross profit margin Relative market share
c) Market growth rate Gross profit margin
d) Market growth rate Relative market share

Answer 12

d

Question 13

Which of the following is the appropriate combination of the external environment
factors in a SWOT analysis used for business strategy planning?

a) Opportunities and threats

b) Resources and technology

c) Market and customers

d) Strengths and weaknesses

Answer 13

a

Question 14

Which of the following is an explanation of core competence management?

a) Knowledge scattered across the company is shared to enhance the overall
problem-solving capability.

b) A flat organization structure with minimal hierarchical layers is maintained to
accelerate decision making.

c) Comparative analysis with other successful companies is performed to drive
management innovation.

d) Proprietary know-how and technology, which are not easy for other companies to
imitate, are focused to manage the company.

Answer 14

d

Question 15

Which of the following explains the maturity stage of product life cycle?

a) In this stage, sales increase rapidly. The market is revitalized and new players
enter the market, leading to more intense competition.

b) In this stage, sales and profits decrease gradually. Refraining from making
additional investments and withdrawing from the market is considered.

c) In this stage, growth in demand starts slowing down. Maintaining market share
and ensuring profit take precedence by means such as improving product quality.

d) In this stage, the company provides products to forward-thinking consumers. A
strategy to increase product recognition is adopted.

Answer 15

c

Question 16

17.) Company X summarized the results of positioning analysis of its marketing power in
relation to competitors into the table as shown below. In the table, “1” is the lowest
score, and “5” is the highest score. Where does Company X rank from the top?
Weight Company
X
Company
A
Company
B
Company
C
Price 5 3 4 3 2
Product quality 3 3 3 2 5
Brand name 3 4 2 5 1
Selling power 4 2 4 4 5
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Answer 16

d

Question 17

Which of the following is a management technique used to maintain a close
relationship with customers and increase profit by collecting various kinds of
information from customers and markets and promptly utilizing such information for
various purposes?

a) CRM

b) ERP

c) MRP

d) SCM

Answer 17

a

Question 18

As groupware applications that use servers on the corporate network connected via
WAN, two systems are developed; one is a product catalog system, which requires
regular updates of large volumes of data including graphic information, and the other is
a conference room reservation system, which requires real-time data update. The
groupware applications have a replication function to automatically synchronize
databases between servers, and allow updated data from a source database to be
reflected on a destination database at a specified time. From viewpoints of the data
volume and application operations, which of the following is an appropriate
deployment of the databases?

a) The product catalog system is deployed on a single server, and the conference room
reservation system is deployed on multiple servers using the replication function.

b) The product catalog system is deployed on a single server, and the conference room
reservation system is deployed on another single server.

c) The product catalog system is deployed on multiple servers using the replication
function, and the conference room reservation system is deployed on a single server.

d) The product catalog system is deployed on multiple servers using the replication
function, and the conference room reservation system is also deployed on multiple
servers using the replication function.

Answer 18

c

Question 19

Which of the following is an application that is suitable for groupware?

a) Score calculation of semester final exams

b) Month-end sales calculation

c) Air traffic control

d) In-house electronic bulletin board

Answer 19

d

Question 20

Which of the following is the situation where an improvement can be expected by
installing an MRP (Material Requirements Planning) system?

a) Drawing information is managed on both electronic files and hard copies, so design
change history cannot be accurately known.

b) Information concerning materials necessary for manufacturing and their required
quantities is complicated, so it is easy to miscalculate order quantities, and
production is being adversely affected.

c) There are many design changes, so production efficiency does not improve.

d) High-mix, low-volume production is adopted, so the cost of installing production
equipment is increasing.

Answer 20

b

Question 21

22.) When 300 pieces of Product A in the component table below are shipped, which of the
following is the net requirement of Part b? Here, the quantity in stock for A, a, b, and
c are as shown in the stock table below. In addition, there are no other items in
process, on back order, or already allocated.
Component table Stock table
Item
Component
(pcs)
Item Quantity in stock
(pcs)
a b c A 100
A 3 2 a 100
a 1 2 b 300
c 400
a) 200 b) 600 c) 900 d) 1,500

Answer 21

b

Question 22

Which of the following is an explanation of EDI?

a) It is an international standard for e-mail services, based on the OSI basic reference
model, which provides comprehensive services for the generation, transmission, and
processing of messages. These services enable the interconnection between
heterogeneous systems.

b) It is the exchange of business transaction data between computers (including
terminals) over a communication line. A standard convention is used to describe
various rules that must be followed by the parties involved.

c) It is a communication service that provides added values such as storage of data
transmitted over the network and conversion of data formats.

d) It is an ordering system that allows orders to be placed by transmitting order
information from a data entry terminal to the head office or a supplier. This system
saves labor in processing orders, and improves the efficiency of logistics and
inventory control.

Answer 22

b

Question 23

Which of the following can be used to check the validity and credit limit on an online
basis before credit card payments are accepted?

a) ACR

b) CAT

c) GPS

d) PDA

Answer 23

b

Question 24

When a corporate information strategy is developed, which of the following is the most
important item to be considered?

a) Evolution of information technology

b) Consistency with the business strategy

c) Consistency with existing systems

d) Information strategy of competitors

Answer 24

b

Question 25

Which of the following is an explanation of a business process model?

a) It describes data and functions required for programming during system
development.

b) It specifies conditions necessary for asking for proposal regarding the outsourcing of
system development.

c) It specifies the business activities and data flow which are subject to
computerization.

d) It describes organizations and resources required for the development, operations,
and maintenance of a system.

Answer 25

c

Question 26

Which of the following is appropriate as an advantage of outsourcing system
operations?

a) The company can decide to resume its own system operations as before at any time.

b) The company can have its information systems department focus on business tasks
such as planning and development.

c) It becomes easier to recognize problems in information systems.

d) It becomes easier for the company to take measures against troubles on its own.

Answer 26

b

Question 27

Among outsourcing services, which of the following is provided by an MSP (Managed
Service Provider)?

a) Connectivity to the Internet using “co-location” servers

b) Business processes such as human resource management, accounting, sales, and
logistics

c) The operations management of an IT infrastructure such as a network, server, or
storage over a network

d) Standard application services over a network through a billing method such as a flat
fee

Answer 27

c

Question 28

Which of the following is an explanation of SaaS?

a) Computer facilities are provided as a service, and a usage fee is charged.

b) Part of the functions of the information systems department are undertaken under
the outsourcing agreement, and a service fee is charged.

c) Software functions are provided as a service to multiple companies via the Internet,
and a usage fee is charged.

d) Software is provided for download, and a license fee is charged.

Answer 28

c

Question 29

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning risk analysis?

a) Since coping with all possible risks requires too much time and cost, the amount of
each risk loss and its probability should be predicted, and priority should be
assigned depending on the severity of the risk.

b) Before all measures are completed for a risk estimated by risk analysis, the risk
analysis should not be repeated.

c) Since the purpose of risk analysis is to prevent future loss, the data stored in similar
projects in the past should not be referenced.

d) Since the purpose of risk analysis is to know the actual amount of a loss suffered
from the occurrence of a risk, the cost of the measure should be determined
according to the amount of the loss.

Answer 29

a

Question 30

31.) Which of the following is appropriate as the source and destination of RFP (Request
For Proposal) for system development?

Source
(From)
Destination
(To)
a) Information systems department CIO
b) Information systems department Vendor
c) Information systems department User department
d) Vendor CIO

Answer 30

b

Question 31

Before putting the system into full operation, the user department and the information
systems department decided to jointly conduct operational tests to check if the system
works correctly. To which of the following should the user department give priority?

a) Checking if processes, such as online processing or batch processing, work
according to operational procedures

b) Checking if the system works according to predetermined business procedures

c) Checking if all application programs work according to specifications

d) Checking if the desired performance is achieved

Answer 31

b

Question 32

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of external design and internal
design?

a) Systems are divided into several programs in external design, while DFDs are
created for each program in internal design.

b) Data items are identified and logical data structures are determined in external
design, while physical data structures, data processing method, and checking
method are determined in internal design.

c) The order in which external design and internal design are performed is determined
based on user requirements in the basic planning phase.

d) External design is system design from the computer’s perspective, while internal
design is system design from the user’s perspective.

Answer 32

b

Question 33

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning program maintenance?

a) The source programs for the past few generations are checked, and then one version
on which changes can be made most efficiently is selected and modified.

b) If the program is simple, the logic is self-explanatory from the source code, so a
change history does not need to be maintained.

c) The maintenance work is completed when the requester who asks for the changes
confirms the content based on an acceptance test under the test environment.

d) Programs in the production library should not be modified directly, but should rather
be copied to the test library in order to make changes to them.

Answer 33

d

Question 34

When the default values (or predefined values) for options displayed on a data entry
screen are determined, which of the following is an appropriate approach?

a) The default values are determined according to business requirements, so they
should not be changed.

b) The values specified by the very last user can always work as the default values with
great efficiency.

c) The default values should be displayed in the upper left of data entry screens from
an efficiency viewpoint.

d) Frequently used values, if any, should be used as the default values.

Answer 34

d

Question 35

Which of the following is the method that is used to test the functions of modules in
accordance with specifications without respect to their internal structures?

a) Top-down test

b) Black box test

c) Bottom-up test

d) White box test

Answer 35

b

Question 36

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning program test?

a) It is better to assure software quality during the test phase than to improve it during
the design phase.

b) When a program is modified after completion of the test, it is better to retest the
program by using test data for checking the modified part in addition to data
confirmed in the previous test.

c) It is better to exclude test data which triggers errors in the program, because the
purpose of the test is to confirm that the program works properly.

d) It is better for programmers to design and execute the test cases.

Answer 36

b

Question 37

When a system is developed using a waterfall model, which of the following is the
most appropriate method that can be expected to shorten the development period?

a) Together with the start of the external design phase, the internal design and
programming phases are performed in parallel.

b) Documents, such as internal design specifications, are created after the start of full
operation of the system.

c) The number of project staff is increased in order to enable parallel activities in each
phase such as internal design, programming, and unit test.

d) The results of requirements definition, external design, and internal design are
reviewed all together at the completion of the internal design phase.

Answer 37

c

Question 38

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning software development
productivity?

a) If defects are detected at an early stage of the development cycle, they can be
corrected with fewer person-hours, and thereby productivity is increased.

b) Effective communication between the development team and the user department has
nothing to do with productivity.

c) Productivity is the same regardless of whether to use high-level languages or
assembly languages.

d) The adoption of an appropriate estimation method improves productivity.

Answer 38

a

Question 39

Among the descriptions about charts used for process management, which of the
following is a characteristic of the Gantt chart?

a) It is suited for grasping the important points in process management, and is used for
personal progress management.

b) It allows the order relation, required number of days, and number of floating days to
be grasped for individual activities.

c) It allows the scheduled and actual start/finish of each activity, as well as the
activities in progress, to be grasped.

d) It is suited for representing the chronological transition of the amount of activities
performed, and allows cost and progress to be managed simultaneously.

Answer 39

c

Question 40

Which of the following explains how to use a control chart?

a) A network diagram is created with arrows connecting the individual activities and
indicating their chronological relationships. The control chart is useful for
identifying process bottlenecks and preparing schedules.

b) A center line and a pair of upper and lower boundary lines are drawn, and the
characteristic values of products, etc. are plotted. The control chart is useful for
detecting quality problems and process abnormalities, so that the causes of problems
can be eliminated and problem recurrences prevented.

c) The numbers of product defect instances and the amounts of loss are categorized
according to defect cause, then sorted in descending order and added to the
cumulative total. This makes it possible to identify items whose improvement has
a greater impact.

d) Elements considered to be possible causes of a problem are arranged in a shape that
looks like a fishbone. This makes it possible to identify the essential causes of the
problem, and is useful in solving it.

Answer 40

b

Question 41

42.) In the arrow diagram below created to manage the schedule of a project, which of the
following is the critical path?

Picture……

a) A → C → E → G
b) A → D → H
c) B → E → F → H
d) B → E → G

Answer 41

d

Question 42

43.) The table below shows the current status of the development of design specifications,
indicating the number of actual person-days worked and the degree of progress. If
current productivity is maintained, how many person-days are required to complete all
specifications?

Actual person-days worked Current progress (%)
External design spec 500 100
Internal design spec 350 70
Program design spec 270 30

a) 150

b) 630

c) 780

d) 1,120

Answer 42

c

Question 43

Which of the following is the first task to be performed when a project is initiated?

a) Progress management

b) Scheduling

c) Clarification of the project goals

d) Budget planning

Answer 43

c

Question 44

When a software development project is outsourced under a service contract, which of
the following is a responsibility of the outsourcer?

a) Directing the outsourcee to start the development prior to the contract date

b) Requesting a list of development staff

c) Making arrangements for the workplace and computer equipment used for the
development

d) Providing a list of deliverables and their delivery schedule

Answer 44

d

Question 45

Which of the following is the purpose of an SLA, an agreement between the IT service
provider and the customer on the service level provided?

a) To clearly define the scope and quality of the service

b) To clearly define the procedure for monitoring the service management periodically

c) To clearly define the objectives of computerization

d) To clearly define the education necessary for the staff

Answer 45

a

Question 46

From the perspective of system operations and management, which of the following is
not an appropriate reason for making a judgment on the end of the system life cycle?

a) More users are becoming unhappy because they are often unable to use newer
versions of programs.

b) Programs are becoming more complicated because of repeatedly added or modified
functions, and a heavy burden is imposed on the maintenance work.

c) Failures occur more frequently, maintenance parts take longer to obtain, and repairs
take longer than before.

d) Incidents, such as unauthorized access, program and/or data destruction, and
password theft, are becoming more frequent.

Answer 46

d

Question 47

Which of the following is performed in the PLAN phase of a PDCA
(Plan-Do-Check-Act) model applied to an ISMS (Information Security Management
System) process?

a) Management of operational status

b) Implementation of improvement measures

c) Review of implementation status

d) Risk assessment on information assets

Answer 47

d

Question 48

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the purpose of
incident management performed as a part of system operations management?

a) To identify the components of IT assets to prevent exceptional use

b) To recover the service with minimum disruption to maintain the service quality

c) To ensure changes in the implementation of an IT service comprised of both
software and hardware

d) To provide a single point of contact for all user inquiries to ensure service delivery

Answer 48

b

Question 49

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning a risk management
system?

a) Authority and functions is concentrated at the risk management executive who
performs all risk management tasks from detection/identification to evaluation of
risks.

b) Since risk management includes security control, departments other than those
specific to risk management should not be involved in risk management.

c) Since risk handling relates to insurance and business resource management, the
financial department should play the role of the risk management department.

d) Measures against risks should be performed by each department possessing
authority and functions, and total management should be performed by the risk
management department directly connected with the top management team.

Answer 49

d

Question 50

In a certain company, multiple PCs are to be used on a 100-volt commercial power
supply available in the facility. The PCs and display monitors are connected to a
dedicated power distribution board, and the maximum capacity of the circuit breaker is
20 A (amperes). What is the maximum number of PCs that can operate
simultaneously? Here, the power consumption is 200 W (watts) per PC and 100 W
per display monitor. PCs and display monitors are always used as a pair. Moreover,
the power consumption stays flat.

a) 4

b) 6

c) 10

d) 12

Answer 50

b

Question 51

Which of the following is specified as a requirement concerning internal audits in ISO
9001?

a) Internal audits are conducted by the company’s system audit department or system
audit specialists.

b) Internal audits are conducted at irregular intervals without prior notice to determine
whether the quality management system is functioning correctly as specified.

c) Internal audits are conducted to determine whether the quality management system
is effectively implemented and maintained, and conforms to the planning of product
realization and to the requirements of the standard.

d) As a prerequisite for conducting internal audits, the quality management system
must be certified according to ISO 9001.

Answer 51

c

Question 52

Which of the following is an explanation of IT governance?

a) A framework which is a comprehensive collection of best practices (successful
cases) concerning the management and operation rules of IT services

b) The organizational ability to guide the development and implementation of an IT
strategy in the correct direction to establish a competitive advantage

c) A specifications package requesting a detailed system proposal from a
subcontracting IT vendor from which information systems and IT services are to be
procured

d) An agreement in which the service level is clearly defined by a service provider in
order to assure the quality of the service

Answer 52

b

Question 53

Which of the following is obtained by multiplying the binary value 10110 by three?

a) 111010

b) 111110

c) 1000010

d) 10110000

Answer 53

c

Question 54

In order to compare the questions in the employment exams for last year and this year,
a large number of employees were asked to take both tests. The correlation
coefficient and the regression line were then obtained by plotting the scores for the last
year’s exam against the x-axis and the scores for this year’s exam against the y-axis.
Which of the following facts can be determined from the results shown below?

[Results]
The correlation coefficient is 0.8.
The regression line has a slope of 1.1.
The y-intercept value of the regression line is 10.

a) The y-intercept value of the regression line indicates that an employee who scored
zero (0) point on this year’s exam can score around 10 points on last year’s exam.

b) The slope of the regression line indicates that the average score for this year’s exam
is 1.1 times the average score for the last year’s exam.

c) The slope and the y-intercept value of the regression line indicate that higher scores
are easier to obtain with this year’s exam in comparison to last year’s exam.

d) The slope of the regression line and the correlation coefficient indicate that this
year’s exam is superior in quality compared to the last year’s exam.

Answer 54

c

Question 55

A search is performed by specifying a character string comprised of multiple alphabetic
characters and one delimiter character “.” (period). An “*” (asterisk) represents an
arbitrary character string with zero or more characters, and a “?” (question mark)
represents an arbitrary single character. Which of the following character strings
matches the character string represented below?

X*.Y??

a) XY.XYY

b) XXX.YY

c) XYX.YXY

d) YXYX.YXY

Answer 55

c

Question 56

Which of the following is a characteristic of tree structure that is one of data structures?

a) Data elements can be retrieved by traversing a hierarchy of nodes from the higher
levels to the lower levels.

b) Data elements can be retrieved in the order in which they were stored.

c) Data elements can be retrieved in the reverse order from the order in which they
were stored.

d) Data elements can be retrieved by traversing cells consisting of a data field and a
pointer field.

Answer 56

a

Question 57

At a desk that is only large enough to place 4 files at the same time, 6 files, A through
F, are used to perform a task. When 4 files are already placed on the desk, the least
recently used file must be placed back into the drawer before the 5th file can be placed
on the desk. When the files are used in the sequence A, B, C, D, B, A, E, A, B, F,
which of the following is the last file placed back into the drawer?

a) A

b) B

c) D

d) E

Answer 57

c

Question 58

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of Java?

a) It is an interpreter-type object-oriented language developed in the 1970s and
includes an integrated development environment with editor and debugger as well as
OS functions.

b) It incorporates object-oriented concepts, such as class and inheritance, into the
programming language C, and has upper compatibility with C.

c) It is a markup language used on the Web and describes the document structure by
using tags. It enables the creation of hypertext that links text, movies, etc.

d) It is an object-oriented language and enables the creation of applets that run in Web
browsers.

Answer 58

d

Question 59

Which of the following is an appropriate description of a characteristic of hypertext
written in HTML?

a) Text information is handled, so image files cannot be linked.

b) Links are hierarchically structured, so the user must return to the top hierarchical
level to move to another text.

c) Links have bidirectional information, so the user can move freely between texts.

d) The user can move to the specified text by clicking a link.

Answer 59

d

Question 60

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the cooling system in
a PC?

a) Cooling efficiency is enhanced by installing air outlet and inlet fans next to each
other on the back of the enclosure.

b) Disk surface in a hard disk drive is cooled by circulating external air flow into the
drive.

c) A heat sink with a higher volume-to-surface area ratio provides higher cooling
efficiency.

d) A fanless PC uses cooling methods such as natural convection cooling and water
cooling.

Answer 60

d

Question 61

Which of the following is an appropriate characteristic of flash memory?

a) Since it allows high-speed access, it is used as cache memory, etc.

b) Since data can be written only once, it is used as program memory, etc.

c) Since it is rewritable and nonvolatile memory, it is used as USB memory or SD card.

d) Although refresh cycles are required, it is used as main memory because of the
capability of rewriting data any number of times.

Answer 61

c

Question 62

Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of primary cache memory and
secondary cache memory (hereinafter referred to as “primary” and “secondary”
respectively) in a CPU?

a) Primary and secondary are categorized based on access speed; high-speed memory
is referred to as primary, and low-speed memory is referred to as secondary.

b) Primary is memory to speed up the data transfer between the hard disk and CPU,
while secondary is memory to speed up rendering on a video graphics board.

c) Primary is memory to speed up memory access, while secondary is memory to
increase virtual capacity of main memory.

d) Primary is memory which the CPU accesses first, while secondary is memory
accessed next by the CPU when required information is not found in primary.

Answer 62

d

Question 63

Which of the following is a characteristic common to IEEE 1394 and USB that are
connection interfaces for computers and peripheral devices?

a) Peripheral devices can be connected and disconnected while the computer and/or
devices are powered on.

b) A maximum transfer rate is 100 Mbits/second.

c) A unique ID needs to be assigned to each device connected to a PC.

d) Data can be transmitted in parallel over multiple data lines.

Answer 63

a

Question 64

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning a hot site in a backup
system configuration?

a) It is a shared site where, at the occurrence of a failure, backup data and programs are
transported to recover the system and resume operations.

b) It runs as a standby site where data and programs are constantly updated via network,
and operations are immediately resumed at the occurrence of a failure.

c) It is a backup site where hardware is installed, and data and programs are
transported and stored on a regular basis. At the occurrence of a failure, these are
used to recover the system and resume operations.

d) It is a reserved backup site where, at the occurrence of a failure, necessary hardware,
data, and programs are transported and operations are resumed.

Answer 64

b

Question 65

There is a system consisting of two processing units. What is the difference in
availabilities between when one of the units must be running for the system to function
and when both units must be running? Here, the availability for each processing unit
is 0.90, and factors other than the processing unit are ignored.

a) 0.09

b) 0.10

c) 0.18

d) 0.19

Answer 65

c

Question 66

Which of the following is the term used to describe the volume of work processed by a
system during a specific time period?

a) Access time

b) Overhead

c) Throughput

d) Turn around time

Answer 66

c

Question 67

What is the minimum virtual memory required (in Mbytes) under the conditions
below?

[Conditions]
1. Memory required for the OS: 200 Mbytes

2. Memory required for applications: 50 Mbytes per application, multiplied by the
   number of applications that run concurrently. Eight applications run concurrently.
3. Memory required for activities such as controlling main memory: Amount of main
   memory + 20 Mbytes. Amount of main memory is 512 Mbytes.
4. Required virtual memory: Sum of the conditions 1 through 3.

a) 762

b) 782

c) 1,112

d) 1,132

Answer 67

d

Question 68

Which of the following explains the functions of an archiver that is one type of data
management utility?

a) It prepares areas on hard disks for storing data and managing such stored data.

b) It packs multiple files into a single file or restores them for data backup or
distribution.

c) It protects data through such functions as file protection to secure the data from
unauthorized use or destruction, and copy protection to prevent illegal data copying.

d) On a fragmented hard disk, it reorganizes files by placing them in as many
consecutive blocks as possible.

Answer 68

b

Question 69

In a system, four types of access rights (Read, Append, Modify, and Delete) are set on
each record of the file used there. For example, one file might be set to Read only,
while another file might be set to three access rights, Read, Append, and Modify at the
same time.
What is the maximum number of combinations of these access rights that can be set on
a file? Here, at least one access right must be set. When Modify is set, Read and
Append are also set automatically. When Delete is set, all of the other three rights are
also set automatically.

a) 4

b) 5

c) 8

d) 15

Answer 69

b

Question 70

Which of the following is an appropriate usage of charts, graphs, or diagrams?

a) A line graph is used to represent the ratio of operating profit by business segment.

b) A pie chart is used to compare the profitability, stability, and productivity of several
companies.

c) A radar chart is used to represent the change in sales over the past three years.

d) A scatter diagram is used to represent the correlation between the number of
passengers getting on and off at the nearest station and the number of customers
visiting a chain store.

Answer 70

d

Question 71

72.) A spreadsheet program is used to create a quick reference chart for the compound
interest per a principal of 1,000 dollars. Which of the following is the expression that
should be entered in cell B4? Here, the expression in cell B4 is copied to each of cells
B4 through F13.
A B C D E F
1 Principal 1,000
2 Interest rate 0.02 0.025 0.03 0.035 0.04
3 Number of years
4 1
5 2
6 3 … … … … … …
…
13 10

a) $B$1* ((1 +$B2) ^ $A4−1)

b) $B$1* ((1 +$B2) ^ A$4−1)

c) $B$1* ((1+B$2) ^ $A4−1)

d) $B$1* ((1+B$2) ^ A$4−1)

Answer 71

c

Question 72

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning “open source”?

a) Modification of the source code is permitted under certain conditions.

b) Redistribution is permitted for limited usage and users.

c) The copyright for the source code is disclaimed.

d) The source code must be distributed for free.

Answer 72

a

Question 73

When a GUI screen is designed for users who are both familiar with keyboard
operation and users who are not, which of the following is the most appropriate
consideration to realize a user interface with good usability?

a) Minimizing the number of items for keyboard entry, and having users select as many
items as possible from lists using a mouse

b) Providing both mouse and keyboard interfaces for frequently used operations

c) Enabling frequently used operations to be executed by double-clicking the mouse

d) Grouping together important items, such as mandatory items, irrespective of the
format of the data entry sheet, in order not to cause a lack of input

Answer 73

b

Question 74

A company has different kinds of forms that must be submitted by paper. The
company wishes to provide these forms as electronic files on the Web bulletin board
system within its intranet, and make them available to all employees. Since many of
the forms use more than one font, and/or include diagrams and tables, the forms must
be printable without being affected by the user’s software environment. Which of the
following is the most appropriate data format?

a) HTML format

b) PDF format

c) Text data format

d) Data format for a word-processing software

Answer 74

b

Question 75

Which of the following is an international standard for a compression method for still
(or static) images?

a) BMP

b) JPEG

c) MPEG

d) PCM

Answer 75

b

Question 76

Which of the following is used for supporting decision making by organizing,
integrating, and accumulating a large volume of data obtained through various
corporate activities?

a) Data administration

b) Data warehouse

c) Data dictionary

d) Data mapping

Answer 76

b

Question 77

A hard disk failure occurred on a mail server, and e-mails of many users were lost.
Recovery of data was attempted, but e-mails sent and received during the two-week
period after the last backup could not be restored because backups were only created
every two weeks. Taking a lesson from this incident, a measure is to be implemented
to allow restoration up to the state of the day before such a failure. Which of the
following is an appropriate measure?

a) Performing daily incremental backup in addition to biweekly (every two-week) full
backup

b) Accumulating e-mails on multiple different hard disks in a distributed manner

c) Implementing hard disk mirroring on the mail server for higher reliability, without
changing the existing backup schedule

d) Storing daily backup onto the same hard disk media, and a biweekly (every
two-week) copy of the backup to another storage media

Answer 77

a

Question 78

Which of the following can be implemented by using the packet filtering of a firewall?

a) Tampered packets received from the Internet are corrected. If a packet cannot be
corrected, a log is generated and it is blocked from passing into the internal network.

b) The header and data of the packet received from the Internet are checked for
tampering. If any tampering is detected, the packet is discarded.

c) A packet with a dynamically allocated TCP port number is permitted to pass through
to the internal network by converting the packet to one with a fixed TCP port
number on the receiver side.

d) Only packets with a specific TCP port number are permitted to pass through to the
internal network from the Internet.

Answer 78

d

Question 78

Which of the following is the role of DNS in a TCP/IP network?

a) It allocates an unused IP address from the addresses registered in a server in
response to an IP address allocation request from devices such as PCs.

b) It allows server programs to be called by specifying only the program name,
regardless of the server IP address.

c) It translates an in-house private IP address to a global IP address to enable access to
the Internet.

d) It maps a domain name or a host name to an IP address.

Answer 78

d

Question 78

Which of the following is an appropriate measure to avoid a shortage of total mailbox
capacity at the mail server?

a) Setting an upper limit for each user’s mailbox capacity

b) Implementing mirrored disks on the mail server

c) Having back-ups of mail data

d) Sending large e-mails in bulk during hours when they do not adversely affect the
transmission of other e-mails

Answer 78

a

Question 79

Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning protocols and
languages related to the Internet?

a) FTP is a protocol for transferring e-mail messages with files attached to them.

b) HTML is a language that allows the user to define tags for describing the logical
structure of a document.

c) HTTP is a protocol for transferring information such as HTML documents.

d) SMTP is a protocol for sending and receiving image information

Answer 79

c

Question 80

Public key cryptography is used for message encryption to prevent wiretapping.
Which of the following is the key used to encrypt the message to be sent?

a) Receiver’s public key

b) Receiver’s private key

c) Sender’s public key

d) Sender’s private key

Answer 80

a

Question 81

Which of the following is the purpose of attaching a digital signature to software
published on the Internet?

a) To notify that the software author is responsible for its maintenance

b) To restrict the software usage to certain users

c) To express that the software copyright holder is the signer of the digital signature

d) To assure that the software content has not been changed or tampered with

Answer 81

d

Question 82

Which of the following is an effective measure against information leakage?

a) A checksum should be appended to the data to be sent.

b) Hard disks in which data is stored should be mirrored.

c) Copies of data backup media should be stored at a remote site.

d) Content of hard disks in notebook PCs should be encrypted.

Answer 82

d

Question 83

Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning worms?

a) They infect the OS system files and repetitively intrude other computers over the
network.

b) Unauthorized functions, such as file destruction, are activated when a certain
specific date or condition is met.

c) They copy and multiply themselves, and move from one computer to the next
through a network.

d) They infect other programs and propagate themselves independently without using a
network.

Answer 83

c

Question 84

A Web server was invaded from the outside and tampered with its content. Which of
the following is the appropriate sequence of actions to be taken?

1 Analyze the server, IDS (Intrusion Detection System), and firewall logs to
identify the access method, the extent of the impact, and the route of entry.

2 Rebuild the system, and apply the latest patches and security setup data.

3 Disconnect the server from the network.

4 Connect the server to the network, and monitor its operation for a while.

a) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4

b) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4

c) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4

d) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4

Answer 84

d

Question 85

Which of the following can be realized by using SSL/TLS?

a) Communication processing time between the client and server is reduced.

b) Communication between the client and server is encrypted.

c) Communication logs between the Web server and browser are recorded.

d) SMTP connection from e-mail software to a Web server is enabled.

Answer 85

b